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Systemic Pathology > Midterm 2 > Flashcards

Midterm 2 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Heinz bodies in the blood cells is observed in:
A. Cooley's anemia (thalathemia major)
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
D. Sickle cell anemia
E. Auto-immune hemolytic anemia
A

C. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

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2
Q
  1. Hematologic disorders occurring mainly in populations in the Mediterranean region includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A. G-6-PD deficiency
B. Factor IX deficiency (Christmas disease)
C. Thalassemia major
D. Thalathemia minor

A

B. Factor IX deficiency (Christmas disease)

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3
Q
  1. Non-immune hemolytic anemia can be recognized in patients with:
A. SLE
B. Malarial infection
C. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
D. Hodgkin's disease
E. Rh incompatibility
A

B. Malarial infection

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4
Q
  1. All of the following are characteristic of iron deficiency anemia EXCEPT:

A. Increase microcytes
B. Decrease ferritin plasma level
C. Reduce total iron binding capacity
D. Decrease of mean corpuscular volume

A

C. Reduce total iron binding capacity

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5
Q
  1. Lymphocytosis in the peripheral blood is observed with all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Epstein-Barr virus infection
B. Helminth infection
C. Herpes infection
D. Cytomegalovirus infection

A

B. Helminth infection

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6
Q
  1. The most common type of leukemia found in children under the age of 15 years is:
A. Acute myelocytic leukemia
B. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
C. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
D. Chronic myelocytic leukemia
E. Hairy cell leukemia
A

B. Acute lymphocytic leukemia

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7
Q
  1. All of the following are clinical features of multiple myeloma EXCEPT:

A. Increase serum calcium
B. Bence-Jones proteinuria
C. Circular (punched out) osteolytic lesions commonly seen in skull X-ray
D. Bone marrow smears containing decreased plasma cell numbers
E. Recurrent infection

A

D. Bone marrow smears containing decreased plasma cell numbers

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8
Q
  1. Acute hemolytic anemia is most likely due to:

A. Decreased life span of WBCs
B. Decreased life span of platelet
C. Decreased life span of RBCs
D. Fast breakdown of lymphocytes

A

C. Decreased life span of RBCs

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT observed with thrombocytopenia purpura?
A. Reduced platelet number
B. Splenomegaly
C. Petechiae and purpuric lesions on the skin
D. Increased bleeding time
E. Normal mean platelet volume
A

D. Increased bleeding time

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10
Q
  1. Sickle cell anemia
A. Abnormality of factor VIII 
B. Reed Sternberg cell 
C. Philadelphia chromosome 
D. Microcytic hypochromic anemia 
E. Macrocytic megaloblastic anemia 
F. Salmonella osteomyelitis 
G. Increased PT (prothrombin time)
H. B-cell lymphocytes 
I. Monoclinal gammopathy (mainly IgG)
A

F. Salmonella osteomyelitis

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11
Q
  1. Hemophilia A
A. Abnormality of factor VIII 
B. Reed Sternberg cell 
C. Philadelphia chromosome 
D. Microcytic hypochromic anemia 
E. Macrocytic megaloblastic anemia 
F. Salmonella osteomyelitis 
G. Increased PT (prothrombin time)
H. B-cell lymphocytes 
I. Monoclinal gammopathy (mainly IgG)
A

A. Abnormality of factor VIII

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12
Q
  1. Chronic myelocytic leukemia
A. Abnormality of factor VIII 
B. Reed Sternberg cell 
C. Philadelphia chromosome 
D. Microcytic hypochromic anemia 
E. Macrocytic megaloblastic anemia 
F. Salmonella osteomyelitis 
G. Increased PT (prothrombin time)
H. B-cell lymphocytes 
I. Monoclinal gammopathy (mainly IgG)
A

C. Philadelphia chromosome

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13
Q
  1. Vitamin K deficiency
A. Abnormality of factor VIII 
B. Reed Sternberg cell 
C. Philadelphia chromosome 
D. Microcytic hypochromic anemia 
E. Macrocytic megaloblastic anemia 
F. Salmonella osteomyelitis 
G. Increased PT (prothrombin time)
H. B-cell lymphocytes 
I. Monoclinal gammopathy (mainly IgG)
A

G. Increased PT (prothrombin time)

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14
Q
  1. Multiple myeloma
A. Abnormality of factor VIII 
B. Reed Sternberg cell 
C. Philadelphia chromosome 
D. Microcytic hypochromic anemia 
E. Macrocytic megaloblastic anemia 
F. Salmonella osteomyelitis 
G. Increased PT (prothrombin time)
H. B-cell lymphocytes 
I. Monoclinal gammopathy (mainly IgG)
A

I. Monoclinal gammopathy (mainly IgG)

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15
Q
  1. Hodgkin’s disease
A. Abnormality of factor VIII 
B. Reed Sternberg cell 
C. Philadelphia chromosome 
D. Microcytic hypochromic anemia 
E. Macrocytic megaloblastic anemia 
F. Salmonella osteomyelitis 
G. Increased PT (prothrombin time)
H. B-cell lymphocytes 
I. Monoclinal gammopathy (mainly IgG)
A

B. Reed Sternberg cell

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16
Q
  1. Burkitt’s lymphoma
A. Abnormality of factor VIII 
B. Reed Sternberg cell 
C. Philadelphia chromosome 
D. Microcytic hypochromic anemia 
E. Macrocytic megaloblastic anemia 
F. Salmonella osteomyelitis 
G. Increased PT (prothrombin time)
H. B-cell lymphocytes 
I. Monoclinal gammopathy (mainly IgG)
A

H. B-cell lymphocytes

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17
Q
  1. Subacute combined degeneration
A. Abnormality of factor VIII 
B. Reed Sternberg cell 
C. Philadelphia chromosome 
D. Microcytic hypochromic anemia 
E. Macrocytic megaloblastic anemia 
F. Salmonella osteomyelitis 
G. Increased PT (prothrombin time)
H. B-cell lymphocytes 
I. Monoclinal gammopathy (mainly IgG)
A

E. Macrocytic megaloblastic anemia

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18
Q
  1. Vitamin B12 deficiency
A. Abnormality of factor VIII 
B. Reed Sternberg cell 
C. Philadelphia chromosome 
D. Microcytic hypochromic anemia 
E. Macrocytic megaloblastic anemia 
F. Salmonella osteomyelitis 
G. Increased PT (prothrombin time)
H. B-cell lymphocytes 
I. Monoclinal gammopathy (mainly IgG)
A

E. Macrocytic megaloblastic anemia

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19
Q
  1. Iron deficiency anemia
A. Abnormality of factor VIII 
B. Reed Sternberg cell 
C. Philadelphia chromosome 
D. Microcytic hypochromic anemia 
E. Macrocytic megaloblastic anemia 
F. Salmonella osteomyelitis 
G. Increased PT (prothrombin time)
H. B-cell lymphocytes 
I. Monoclinal gammopathy (mainly IgG)
A

D. Microcytic hypochromic anemia

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20
Q
  1. folic acid deficiency
A. Abnormality of factor VIII 
B. Reed Sternberg cell 
C. Philadelphia chromosome 
D. Microcytic hypochromic anemia 
E. Macrocytic megaloblastic anemia 
F. Salmonella osteomyelitis 
G. Increased PT (prothrombin time)
H. B-cell lymphocytes 
I. Monoclinal gammopathy (mainly IgG)
A

E. Macrocytic megaloblastic anemia

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21
Q
  1. The most common primary tumor of the salivary gland is:

A. Adenocarcinoma of the sublingual gland
B. Mixed parotid tumor
C. Mixed submandibular tumor
D. Leiomyoma of the parotid gland

A

B. Mixed parotid tumor

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22
Q
  1. All of the following are true statements concerning esophageal disorders EXCEPT:

A. Achalasia is characterized by relaxation of
the lower esophageal sphincter and proximal esophageal dilatation without peristalsis
B. A Zenker’s diverticulum is the most common false esophageal diverticulum
C. Lye ingestion produce strictures in the esophagus and predispose to esophageal cancer
D. Esophageal varices are secondary to portal hypertension
E. Progressive systemic sclerosis presents with dysphagia for solids

A

A. Achalasia is characterized by relaxation of

the lower esophageal sphincter and proximal esophageal dilatation without peristalsis

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23
Q
  1. Barrette’s esophagus is a precancerous of:

A. Squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus
B. Squamous cell carcinoma of the fundus of the stomach
C. Adenocarcinoma of the stomach
D. Adenocarcinoma of the esophagus

A

D. Adenocarcinoma of the esophagus

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24
Q
  1. What is the most common primary tumors of the esophagus?
A. Adenocarcinoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Leiomyosarcoma
D. Leiomyoma
E. Metastatic
A

B. Squamous cell carcinoma

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25
Q
  1. Familial polyposis coli is characterized by:

A. Autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance
B. Multiple hamartomatous polyps throughout the colon
C. 100 % risk of carcinoma within 30 years of diagnosis
D. An association with fibromatosis and multiple osteomas
E. An association with tumors of the central nervous system

A

C. 100 % risk of carcinoma within 30 years of diagnosis

26
Q
  1. Sliding hiatal hernia is:

A. Congenital short esophagus at the pharyngeal level
B. Most common type due to short esophagus at the diaphragm
C. Found in the area of the gastric fundus around the esophagus
D. Protrusion portion of the ileum through hiatal opening

A

B. Most common type due to short esophagus at the diaphragm

27
Q
  1. What is the most etiological factor for chronic atrophic gastritis?
A. Alcohol
B. Renal failure
C.Aspirin
D. Auto-immune
E. Smoking
A

D. Auto-immune

28
Q
  1. What is the most common cause of peptic ulcer?
A. Helicobacter pylori
B. Campylobacter spp.
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Influenza
E. Parasites
A

A. Helicobacter pylori

29
Q
  1. All the following statements concerning carcinoma of the colon-rectum are true EXCEPT:

A. 95 % of all carcinoma of the colo-rectum are adenocarcinoma
B. Mucin secretion aids extension of the primary malignancy
C. Left-sided lesions tend to grow as polypoid fungating masses
D. Serum levels of carcino-embryonic antigen (CEA) are directly related to size and spread
E. Serum levels of CEA fall to zero with complete removal of the tumor

A

C. Left-sided lesions tend to grow as polypoid fungating masses

30
Q
  1. All of the following are true of carcinoid tumors EXCEPT:

A. They are the most commonly located in the appendix
B. When malignant, they are most commonly in the small intestine
C. Right heart valvular disease is the most common sign of carcinoid syndrome
D. Tumors metastasizing to the liver can produce the carcinoid syndrome
E. 5-hydroxy indole acetic acid is increased in the urine in carcinoid syndrome

A

C. Right heart valvular disease is the most common sign of carcinoid syndrome

31
Q
  1. All of the following statements are correct concerning peptic ulcer disease EXCEPT:

A. Duodenal ulcers are more common in men than women
B. Perforation with air under
the diaphragm is more common with duodenal than gastric ulcers
C. Duodenal ulcers have no risk for cancers
D. Gastric ulcers are most commonly located along the lesser curvature
E. Non-steroidals are the most common cause of peptic ulcer disease

A

E. Non-steroidals are the most common cause of peptic ulcer disease

32
Q
  1. What is the most common cause of acute appendicitis?

A. Bacterial infection
B. Fecalith
C. Parasitic infestation
D. Viral

A

B. Fecalith

33
Q
  1. Stage “D” of the Duke staging of the colon cancer is:

A. Tumor limited to the mucosa, no lymph nodes
B. Invasion with nodal involvement and distant metastasis
C. Tumors penetrate the entire wall with no lymph nodes
D. Tumors penetrate the entire wall
with nodal involvement

A

B. Invasion with nodal involvement and distant metastasis

34
Q
  1. Ulcerative colitis

A. Lymphadenopathy, blunted villi distended by macrophages
B. Chronic granulomatous inflammatory disease
C. Linitis plastica
D. Ganglion cells deficiency
E. Ampicillin (antibiotic)
F. Inflammatory ulceration, only the mucosa of the colon
G. Large, sessile polyps

A

F. Inflammatory ulceration, only the mucosa of the colon

35
Q
  1. Pseudomembranous colitis

A. Lymphadenopathy, blunted villi distended by macrophages
B. Chronic granulomatous inflammatory disease
C. Linitis plastica
D. Ganglion cells deficiency
E. Ampicillin (antibiotic)
F. Inflammatory ulceration, only the mucosa of the colon
G. Large, sessile polyps

A

E. Ampicillin (antibiotic)

36
Q
  1. Adenocarcinoma of the stomach

A. Lymphadenopathy, blunted villi distended by macrophages
B. Chronic granulomatous inflammatory disease
C. Linitis plastica
D. Ganglion cells deficiency
E. Ampicillin (antibiotic)
F. Inflammatory ulceration, only the mucosa of the colon
G. Large, sessile polyps

A

C. Linitis plastica

37
Q
  1. Whipple’s disease

A. Lymphadenopathy, blunted villi distended by macrophages
B. Chronic granulomatous inflammatory disease
C. Linitis plastica
D. Ganglion cells deficiency
E. Ampicillin (antibiotic)
F. Inflammatory ulceration, only the mucosa of the colon
G. Large, sessile polyps

A

A. Lymphadenopathy, blunted villi distended by macrophages

38
Q
  1. Hirschsprung’s disease

A. Lymphadenopathy, blunted villi distended by macrophages
B. Chronic granulomatous inflammatory disease
C. Linitis plastica
D. Ganglion cells deficiency
E. Ampicillin (antibiotic)
F. Inflammatory ulceration, only the mucosa of the colon
G. Large, sessile polyps

A

D. Ganglion cells deficiency

39
Q
  1. Crohn’s disease

A. Lymphadenopathy, blunted villi distended by macrophages
B. Chronic granulomatous inflammatory disease
C. Linitis plastica
D. Ganglion cells deficiency
E. Ampicillin (antibiotic)
F. Inflammatory ulceration, only the mucosa of the colon
G. Large, sessile polyps

A

B. Chronic granulomatous inflammatory disease

40
Q
  1. Villous adenoma of the colon

A. Lymphadenopathy, blunted villi distended by macrophages
B. Chronic granulomatous inflammatory disease
C. Linitis plastica
D. Ganglion cells deficiency
E. Ampicillin (antibiotic)
F. Inflammatory ulceration, only the mucosa of the colon
G. Large, sessile polyps

A

G. Large, sessile polyps

41
Q
  1. Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia due to:
A. Absence of hepatocyte cells
B. Uridine diphospho-glucuronide
(UDPG) transferase deficiency
C. Obstruction of the common bile duct
D. Obstruction of the hepatic vein
A

B. Uridine diphospho-glucuronide

(UDPG) transferase deficiency

42
Q
  1. what is the most common cause of liver cirrhosis?
A. Wilson's syndrome
B. Hematochromatosis
C. Chronic active viral hepatitis
D. Alcoholic liver cirrhosis
E. Vascular cirrhosis
A

D. Alcoholic liver cirrhosis

43
Q
  1. What is the most common type of hepatitis associated with traveler’s?
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis D
E. Hepatitis E
A

A. Hepatitis A

44
Q
  1. What is the pathological feature of alcoholic hepatitis?
A. Liver fibrosis
B. Shrunken liver
C. Presence of mallory bodies
D. Absence of mallory bodies
E. Regenerative nodules in the liver
A

C. Presence of mallory bodies

45
Q
  1. Wilson’s syndrome is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Excess free copper
B. Excess total copper level
C. Decreased ceruloplasmin
D. Kayser-Fleisher ring in the cornea
E. Liver cirrhosis
A

B. Excess total copper level

46
Q
  1. What is the prognosis of chronic aggressive hepatitis cirrhosis?
A. Good
B. Fair
C. Very poor
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
A

C. Very poor

47
Q
  1. Hepatocellular carcinoma is associated with:

A. Usually presents with painless jaundice and weight gain
B. It is not associated with cirrhosis
C. Most commonly associated with schistosomiasis in the U.S.
D. May be associated with previous hepatitis C virus infection

A

D. May be associated with previous hepatitis C virus infection

48
Q
  1. What is the most common malignant liver cancer?

A. Hepatocellular carcinoma
B. Metastatic tumor
C. Cholangiocarcinoma
D. Angiosarcoma

A

B. Metastatic tumor

49
Q
  1. What is the tumor marker of hepatocellular carcinoma?

A. Beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin “HCG”
B. Carcinoembryonic antigen “CEA”
C. Alpha fetoprotein
D. Estrogen receptors

A

C. Alpha fetoprotein

50
Q
  1. All of the following are the predisposing factors of cholelithiasis EXCEPT:

A. Acute hepatitis A
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Forty year old, obese female
D. Liver cirrhosis

A

A. Acute hepatitis A

51
Q
  1. What is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis?

A. Liver cirrhosis
B. Gastritis
C. Alcoholism
D. Intra-abdominal trauma

A

C. Alcoholism

52
Q
  1. What is the most common location of pancreatic adenocarcinoma?

A. Tail of pancreas
B. Head of pancreas
C. Both locations are correct
D. Neither location is correct

A

B. Head of pancreas

53
Q
  1. Hepatitis E
A. Excess NaCl in the sweat
B. Impact gall stones
C. Feco-oral transmission
D. I.V. drugs
E. " Chain of lakes" appearance
F. Elevated serum amylase
G. Head of pancreas
H. Decreased ceruloplasmin
A

C. Feco-oral transmission

54
Q
  1. Chronic pancreatitis
A. Excess NaCl in the sweat
B. Impact gall stones
C. Feco-oral transmission
D. I.V. drugs
E. " Chain of lakes" appearance
F. Elevated serum amylase
G. Head of pancreas
H. Decreased ceruloplasmin
A

E. “ Chain of lakes” appearance

55
Q
  1. Cholecystitis
A. Excess NaCl in the sweat
B. Impact gall stones
C. Feco-oral transmission
D. I.V. drugs
E. " Chain of lakes" appearance
F. Elevated serum amylase
G. Head of pancreas
H. Decreased ceruloplasmin
A

B. Impact gall stones

56
Q
  1. Wilson’s syndrome
A. Excess NaCl in the sweat
B. Impact gall stones
C. Feco-oral transmission
D. I.V. drugs
E. " Chain of lakes" appearance
F. Elevated serum amylase
G. Head of pancreas
H. Decreased ceruloplasmin
A

H. Decreased ceruloplasmin

57
Q
  1. Hepatitis
A. Excess NaCl in the sweat
B. Impact gall stones
C. Feco-oral transmission
D. I.V. drugs
E. " Chain of lakes" appearance
F. Elevated serum amylase
G. Head of pancreas
H. Decreased ceruloplasmin
A

D. I.V. drugs

58
Q
  1. Cystic fibrosis of the pancreas
A. Excess NaCl in the sweat
B. Impact gall stones
C. Feco-oral transmission
D. I.V. drugs
E. " Chain of lakes" appearance
F. Elevated serum amylase
G. Head of pancreas
H. Decreased ceruloplasmin
A

A. Excess NaCl in the sweat

59
Q
  1. Acute pancreatitis
A. Excess NaCl in the sweat
B. Impact gall stones
C. Feco-oral transmission
D. I.V. drugs
E. " Chain of lakes" appearance
F. Elevated serum amylase
G. Head of pancreas
H. Decreased ceruloplasmin
A

F. Elevated serum amylase

60
Q
  1. Pancreatitis
A. Excess NaCl in the sweat
B. Impact gall stones
C. Feco-oral transmission
D. I.V. drugs
E. " Chain of lakes" appearance
F. Elevated serum amylase
G. Head of pancreas
H. Decreased ceruloplasmin
A

G. Head of pancreas

Systemic Pathology (11 decks)

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