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Systemic Pathology > Midterm 1 > Flashcards

Midterm 1 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. All of the following characterize poly-arteritis nodosa EXCEPT:
    A. Association with HbsAg
    B. Coronary arteritis
    C. Spares the lungs
    D. Most common cause of death is renal failure
    E. Female predominant disease
A

B. Coronary arteritis

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2
Q
  1. All of the following are true concerning temporal arteritis EXCEPT:

A. Elevated erythroyte sedimentation rate
B. Association with polymyalagia rheumatica
C. Disease of elderly males
D. Visual disturbance
E. Headache

A

C. Disease of elderly males

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3
Q
  1. All of the following characterize thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger’s disease) EXCEPT:
A. Produces IgA nephropathy
B. Strong association with young men who smoke
C. Involves the neurovascular compartmen
t of the digits of
the hands and feet
D. Associated with Raynaud's phenomenon
E. Reversible on cessation of smoking
A

A. Produces IgA nephropathy

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4
Q
  1. One of the following is NOT cause the Raynaud’s phenomenon:

A. Buerger’s disease
B. Churg-Strauss angiitis
C. Ergot poisoning
D. CREST syndrome

A

B. Churg-Strauss angiitis

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5
Q
  1. Prosthetic heart disease
A. Coronary arteritis
B. Pulseless disease
C. Birthmark on newborn face
D. Polycystic renal disease
E. Thromboembolism
F. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
A

E. Thromboembolism

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6
Q
  1. Takayasu’s vasculitis
A. Coronary arteritis
B. Pulseless disease
C. Birthmark on newborn face
D. Polycystic renal disease
E. Thromboembolism
F. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
A

B. Pulseless disease

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7
Q
  1. Kawasaki’s disease
A. Coronary arteritis
B. Pulseless disease
C. Birthmark on newborn face
D. Polycystic renal disease
E. Thromboembolism
F. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
A

A. Coronary arteritis

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8
Q
  1. Capillary hemangioma
A. Coronary arteritis
B. Pulseless disease
C. Birthmark on newborn face
D. Polycystic renal disease
E. Thromboembolism
F. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
A

C. Birthmark on newborn face

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9
Q
  1. Berry aneurysm
A. Coronary arteritis
B. Pulseless disease
C. Birthmark on newborn face
D. Polycystic renal disease
E. Thromboembolism
F. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
A

D. Polycystic renal disease

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10
Q
  1. What is the pathological finding in Wagener’s granulomatosis?
A. Acute bacterial inflammati
on of the upper respiratory tract
B. Acute glomerulonephritis
C. Crescentic glomerulonephritis
D. Caseating granulomatous vasculitis of respiratory tract
A

C. Crescentic glomerulonephritis

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11
Q
  1. What is the LEAST complication of varicose veins?
A. Edema
B. Venous stasis
C. Stasis dermatitis
D. Thrombosis
E. Bleeding
A

E. Bleeding

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12
Q
  1. Atheroma is :

A. Formation of fatty layer in the tunica media of small arteries
B. Formation of fibrofatty plaques in the tunica intima of large arteries
C. Formation of hard fibrous connective tissue in large arteries
D. Formation of fibrofatty layer in the left ventricle of the heart

A

B. Formation of fibrofatty plaques in the tunica intima of large arteries

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13
Q
  1. All of the following are complications of atherosclerosis EXCEPT :
A. Infarction
B. Aneurysm
C. Calcification of the atheroma
D. Emphysema
E. Transient ischemic attack or stroke
A

D. Emphysema

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14
Q
  1. What is the LEAST common risk factor for at herosclerosis?
A. Familiar tendency
B. Hyperlipidemia
C. Hypertension
D. Smoking
E. Diabetes
A

A. Familiar tendency

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15
Q
  1. Aneurysm is:

A. Abnormal tortuous and dilated veins
B. A localized abnormal dilatation of any vessel
C. Rupture of the tunica vasora of any vessel
D. Abnormal proliferation of the tunica intima of any vessel

A

B. A localized abnormal dilatation of any vessel

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16
Q
  1. What is the most common type of aneurysm?

A. Syphilitic aneurysm
B. Berry aneurysm
C. Atherosclerotic aneurysm
D. Dissecting aneurysm

A

C. Atherosclerotic aneurysm

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17
Q
  1. What is the most common complication of atherosclerotic aneurysm?

A. Thromboembolism
B. Hypertension
C. Bowel infarction
D. Rupture

A

D. Rupture

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18
Q
  1. Endarteritis obliterans is associated with:
A. Atherosclerotic aneurysm
B. Varicose veins
C. Syphilitic aneurysm
D. Berry aneurysm
E. Dissecting aneurysm
A

C. Syphilitic aneurysm

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19
Q
  1. Lindau-Von Hippel disease is:

A. Capillary hemangioma of the liver
B. Cavernous hemangioma of the liver
C. Cavernous hemangioma of the bone
D. Cavernous hemangioma of the muscle

A

B. Cavernous hemangioma of the liver

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20
Q
  1. Liver angiosarcoma is:

A. Benign vascular tumor due to vinyl chloride or arsenic material
B. Malignant vascular tumor affecting the tunica adventitia of the arteries
C. Malignant vascular tumor due to arsenic and vinyl chlorideaffecting the vascular endothelium
D. Benign vascular tumor arising from the endothelial cells of vessels

A

C. Malignant vascular tumor due to arsenic and vinyl chlorideaffecting the vascular endothelium

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21
Q
  1. All of the following are major risk factors for coronary artery disease EXCEPT:
A. Increased LDL > 160 mg/dl
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Increased apoprotein A levels
D. Hypertension
E. Smoking
A

C. Increased apoprotein A levels

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22
Q
  1. What is the most often etiology of coronary artery disease?
A. Hypertension
B. Hypotension
C. Shock
D. Atherosclerosis
E. Congenital heart disease
A

D. Atherosclerosis

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23
Q
  1. Stable angina pectoris is:

A. Cardiac chest pain with exertion
B. Chest pain at rest
C. Chest pain with ST elevation (EKG) on stress test
D. Chest pain does not relieved by nitroglycerine

A

A. Cardiac chest pain with exertion

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24
Q
  1. In unstable angina, you would expect:

A. Severe fixed coronary artery disease
B. Angina at rest
C. Both statements are correct
D. Neither statement is correct

A

C. Both statements are correct

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25
Q
  1. Someone had myocardial infarction (MI) at lateral wall of his heart, which branch of coronary artery affected?
A. Left anterior descending artery
B. Left circumflex coronary artery
C. Left anterior descending and
left circumflex coronary arteries
D. Left circumflex coronary and posterior coronary arteries
E. Right coronary artery
A

B. Left circumflex coronary artery

26
Q
  1. All of the following are true statements concerning an acute transmural myocardial infarction EXCEPT:

A. Most common cause of death in the united states
B. Most commonly involves a thrombus of the right coronary artery
C. Ventricular arrhythmia is the most common cause of death
D. Degree of left ventricular dysfunction determines the prognosis
E. More common in males than females

A

B. Most commonly involves a thrombus of the right coronary artery

27
Q
  1. What is the most common complications of myocardial infarction and lead to death?

A. Arrhythmias
B. Rupture
C. Mural thrombus
D. Ventricular aneurysms

A

A. Arrhythmias

28
Q
  1. Rheumatic fever produces all of the following features EXCEPT:

A. Myocarditis
B. Pericarditis
C. Endocarditis
D. Mural thrombus

A

D. Mural thrombus

29
Q
  1. All of the following are the major Jones-Criteria of rheumatic fever EXCEPT:
A. Carditis
B. Arthralgia
C. Arthritis
D. Chorea
E. Erythema marginatum
A

B. Arthralgia

30
Q
  1. What is the most common cause of myocarditis in the U.S.?
A. Coxsackie B virus
B. Hepatitis B virus
C. Toxoplasmosis
D. Cytomegalovirus
E. Myco
A

A. Coxsackie B virus

31
Q
  1. Alcoholism may be causing ONE of the following heart diseases?

A. Congestive cardiomyopathy
B. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
D. Obliterative cardiomyopathy

A

A. Congestive cardiomyopathy

32
Q
  1. What is the most common cause of death in acute rheumatic fever?
A. Pericarditis
B. Endocarditis
C. Myocarditis
D. Mitral stenosis
E. Mitral incompetence
A

C. Myocarditis

33
Q
  1. What is the most common primary cardiac tumors?
A. Cardiac rhabdomyomas
B. Cardiac myxoma
C. Metastatic tumor
D. Cardiac leiomyoma
E. Cardiac adenocarcinoma
A

B. Cardiac myxoma

34
Q
  1. Tetralogy of Fallot

A. Tricuspid valve leaflets
B. Mitral valve leaflets
C. Aschoff’’s bodies
D. Libman Sacks endocarditis
E. Left to right shunt (congenital heart disease)
F. Right to left shunt (congenital heart disease)
G. Positive blood culture

A

F. Right to left shunt (congenital heart disease)

35
Q
  1. Systemic lupus erythromatosus

A. Tricuspid valve leaflets
B. Mitral valve leaflets
C. Aschoff’’s bodies
D. Libman Sacks endocarditis
E. Left to right shunt (congenital heart disease)
F. Right to left shunt (congenital heart disease)
G. Positive blood culture

A

D. Libman Sacks endocarditis

36
Q
  1. Rheumatic heart disease

A. Tricuspid valve leaflets
B. Mitral valve leaflets
C. Aschoff’’s bodies
D. Libman Sacks endocarditis
E. Left to right shunt (congenital heart disease)
F. Right to left shunt (congenital heart disease)
G. Positive blood culture

A

B. Mitral valve leaflets
&
C. Aschoff’’s bodies

37
Q
  1. Acute bacterial endocarditis

A. Tricuspid valve leaflets
B. Mitral valve leaflets
C. Aschoff’’s bodies
D. Libman Sacks endocarditis
E. Left to right shunt (congenital heart disease)
F. Right to left shunt (congenital heart disease)
G. Positive blood culture

A

A. Tricuspid valve leaflets
&
C. Aschoff’’s bodies

38
Q
  1. Subacute bacterial endocarditis

A. Tricuspid valve leaflets
B. Mitral valve leaflets
C. Aschoff’’s bodies
D. Libman Sacks endocarditis
E. Left to right shunt (congenital heart disease)
F. Right to left shunt (congenital heart disease)
G. Positive blood culture

A

B. Mitral valve leaflets
&
G. Positive blood culture

39
Q
  1. VSD

A. Tricuspid valve leaflets
B. Mitral valve leaflets
C. Aschoff’’s bodies
D. Libman Sacks endocarditis
E. Left to right shunt (congenital heart disease)
F. Right to left shunt (congenital heart disease)
G. Positive blood culture

A

E. Left to right shunt (congenital heart disease)

40
Q
  1. Intra-venous drugs

A. Tricuspid valve leaflets
B. Mitral valve leaflets
C. Aschoff’’s bodies
D. Libman Sacks endocarditis
E. Left to right shunt (congenital heart disease)
F. Right to left shunt (congenital heart disease)
G. Positive blood culture

A

A. Tricuspid valve leaflets
&
G. Positive blood culture

41
Q
  1. All of the following predispose to the respiratory distress EXCEPT:

A. Prematurity
B. Maternal diabetes
C. Hypercortisolism
D. C- section

A

C. Hypercortisolism

42
Q
  1. What is the pathological characters of the pulmonary embolism?

A. Liquefactive necrosis
B. Coagulative necrosis
C. Caseating necrosis
D. Fibrous necrosis in early stage

A

B. Coagulative necrosis

43
Q
  1. What is the pathological expectation of acute bronchitis?

A. Exudative infiltrate of neutrophils and fibrin
B. Edema of the bronchi filled with lymphocyte only
C. Histamine release due to bacterial infection
D. Vascular congestion with fibrous infiltration

A

A. Exudative infiltrate of neutrophils and fibrin

44
Q
  1. All of the following characterize restrictive lung disease EXCEPT:
A. Decreased FEV 1 sec./FVC ratio
B. Decreased total lung capacity
C. Hypoxemia
D. Normal to decreased PaCo2
E. Decreased compliance but increased elasticity
A

A. Decreased FEV 1 sec./FVC ratio

45
Q
  1. All of the following are true statements concerning chronic bronchitis EXCEPT:

A. Blue-bloater due to Co2 retention
B. Less severe ventilation/perfusion mismatch than emphysema
C. Increased mucous gland hyperplasia
D. Productive cough for 3 consecutive months and 2 consecutive years
E. Increased Reid’s index

A

B. Less severe ventilation/perfusion mismatch than emphysema

46
Q
  1. In bronchiectasis:

A. The patient coughs up scant amounts of sputum
B. The dilated bronchi extend to the lung periphery
C. Both statements are correct
D. Neither statement is correct

A

B. The dilated bronchi extend to the lung periphery

47
Q
  1. What is the most common cause of community acquired bronchopneumonia?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Influenza virus
C. Pseudomonas
D. Streptococcus pneumonia
E. Streptococcus viridans
A

D. Streptococcus pneumonia

48
Q
  1. Good Pasture syndrome is:

A. Auto-immune disease causing walking pneumonia
B. Auto-immune disease causing interstitial pneumonitis and glomerulonephritis
C. Non auto-immune disease with pneumonitis and glomerulonephritis
D. Non auto-immune disease with reaction on the basement membrane of the alveoli

A

B. Auto-immune disease causing interstitial pneumonitis and glomerulonephritis

49
Q
  1. Panacinar emphysema is characterized by:

A. Most common type of emphysema
B. Involves the proximal respiratory bronchiole
C. Associated with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
D. It has a subpleural bulae subtype

A

C. Associated with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

50
Q
  1. All of the following are the primary lung cancers EXCEPT:
A. Adenocarcinoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Oat cell carcinoma
D. Metastasis of the breast cancer
E. Large cell carcinoma
A

D. Metastasis of the breast cancer

51
Q
  1. One of the following, types of lung cancers is NOT centrally originating:

A. Adenocarcinoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Small cell carcinoma
D. Large cell carcinoma

A

A. Adenocarcinoma

52
Q
  1. Which of the following relationships is INCORRECT?

A. Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia………….lung abscess
B. Squamous cell carcinomas have the best pro
gnosis and small cell carcinomas have the worst prognosis
C. Small cell carcinomas are generally amenable to surgical removal
D. Osteogenic sarcoma and testicular tumors metastasize to the lungs

A

C. Small cell carcinomas are generally amenable to surgical removal

53
Q
  1. Tuberculosis
A. Patchy consolidation pneumonia
B. Crohn's focus
C. Walking pneumonia
D. Staphylococcus aureus causing bronchial dilatation
E. Non-patchy consolidation pneumonia
F. Coal dust (carbon dioxide)
G. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
H. Collapse of the alveoli
A

B. Crohn’s focus

54
Q
  1. Bronchiectasis
A. Patchy consolidation pneumonia
B. Crohn's focus
C. Walking pneumonia
D. Staphylococcus aureus causing bronchial dilatation
E. Non-patchy consolidation pneumonia
F. Coal dust (carbon dioxide)
G. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
H. Collapse of the alveoli
A

D. Staphylococcus aureus causing bronchial dilatation

55
Q
  1. Bronchopneumonia
A. Patchy consolidation pneumonia
B. Crohn's focus
C. Walking pneumonia
D. Staphylococcus aureus causing bronchial dilatation
E. Non-patchy consolidation pneumonia
F. Coal dust (carbon dioxide)
G. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
H. Collapse of the alveoli
A

A. Patchy consolidation pneumonia

56
Q
  1. Atelectasis
A. Patchy consolidation pneumonia
B. Crohn's focus
C. Walking pneumonia
D. Staphylococcus aureus causing bronchial dilatation
E. Non-patchy consolidation pneumonia
F. Coal dust (carbon dioxide)
G. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
H. Collapse of the alveoli
A

H. Collapse of the alveoli

57
Q
  1. Emphysema
A. Patchy consolidation pneumonia
B. Crohn's focus
C. Walking pneumonia
D. Staphylococcus aureus causing bronchial dilatation
E. Non-patchy consolidation pneumonia
F. Coal dust (carbon dioxide)
G. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
H. Collapse of the alveoli
A

G. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

58
Q
  1. Lobar pneumonia
A. Patchy consolidation pneumonia
B. Crohn's focus
C. Walking pneumonia
D. Staphylococcus aureus causing bronchial dilatation
E. Non-patchy consolidation pneumonia
F. Coal dust (carbon dioxide)
G. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
H. Collapse of the alveoli
A

E. Non-patchy consolidation pneumonia

59
Q
  1. Atypical pneumonia
A. Patchy consolidation pneumonia
B. Crohn's focus
C. Walking pneumonia
D. Staphylococcus aureus causing bronchial dilatation
E. Non-patchy consolidation pneumonia
F. Coal dust (carbon dioxide)
G. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
H. Collapse of the alveoli
A

C. Walking pneumonia

60
Q
  1. Anthracosis
A. Patchy consolidation pneumonia
B. Crohn's focus
C. Walking pneumonia
D. Staphylococcus aureus causing bronchial dilatation
E. Non-patchy consolidation pneumonia
F. Coal dust (carbon dioxide)
G. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
H. Collapse of the alveoli
A

F. Coal dust (carbon dioxide)

Systemic Pathology (11 decks)

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