Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Systemic Pathology > Final (will have Q's from midterms 1 & 2 also) > Flashcards

Final (will have Q's from midterms 1 & 2 also) Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Flank pain, WBC casts in the urine due to ureteral ascending infection are characterized by:

A. Hydronephrosis
B. Glomerulonephritis
C. Pyelonephritis
D. Cystitis

A

C. Pyelonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
    usually does all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Follow infection with group A beta-hemolytic streptococci
B. Follow a streptococcal infection in less than 5 days
C. Have a better prognosis in children than in adults
D. Show low serum complement levels
E. Elevation of antistreptolysin O (ASO) titer

A

B. Follow a streptococcal infection in less than 5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. All of the following are the components of diabetic glomerulopathy EXCEPT:

A. Fibrin thrombi
B. Diffuse glomerulosclerosis
C. Nodular glomerulosclerosis
D. Mesangial proliferation

A

A. Fibrin thrombi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Adult polycystic kidney disease is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Hematuria
B. Hypertension
C. Flank pain
D. Shrunken, cystic kidneys

A

D. Shrunken, cystic kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Analgesic drugs induce, which of the following renal effect?

A. Interstitial nephritis
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Glomerulonephritis
D. Nephrotic syndrome

A

A. Interstitial nephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. What is the most common type of hypertension due to renal artery stenosis?

A. Essential hypertension
B. Secondary hypertension
C. Systolic hypertension
D. Malignant hypertension

A

B. Secondary hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. All of the following statements are true of urinary calculi EXCEPT:

A. They are more common in males
B. They may be associated with pseudomonas infection
C. They are bilateral in 40 % of cases
D. The incidence increased in leukemia

A

C. They are bilateral in 40 % of cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. What is the most common cause of acute ischemic tubular necrosis?

A. Shock
B. Urinyl nitrate
C. Gentamicin
D. Cyclosporin

A

A. Shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Hydronephrosis is:

A. Dilatation of bilateral ureters
B. Dilatation of the renal pelvis with flattened the calyces
C. Bulging urinary bladder diverticula
D. Shrunken kidneys

A

B. Dilatation of the renal pelvis with flattened the calyces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. What is the most common primary kidney tumor?

A. Will’s tumor
B. Adenocarcinoma
C. Transitional cell carcinoma
D. Squamous cell carcinoma

A

B. Adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Renal cell carcinoma arising from:
A. Distal convoluted tubules
B. Collecting tubules
C. Loop of Henle
D. Proximal convoluted tubules
E. Glomeruli
A

D. Proximal convoluted tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. What is the pathological finding of chronic cystitis?

A. Hyperemia with suppurative exudate
B. Fibrosis and loss of elasticity of bladder wall
C. Friable, granular mucosa and ulcer formation
D. Dilatation of the urinary bladder

A

B. Fibrosis and loss of elasticity of bladder wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Chronic renal failure
A. White blood cell casts
B. Red blood cell casts
C. Fatty casts
D. Waxy casts
E. Hyperparathyroidism
F. Hemoptysis and hematuria
G. Acute tubular necrosis
H. Before age 5
A

D. Waxy casts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Nephritic syndrome
A. White blood cell casts
B. Red blood cell casts
C. Fatty casts
D. Waxy casts
E. Hyperparathyroidism
F. Hemoptysis and hematuria
G. Acute tubular necrosis
H. Before age 5
A

B. Red blood cell casts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Renal stones
A. White blood cell casts
B. Red blood cell casts
C. Fatty casts
D. Waxy casts
E. Hyperparathyroidism
F. Hemoptysis and hematuria
G. Acute tubular necrosis
H. Before age 5
A

E. Hyperparathyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Lead and mercury
A. White blood cell casts
B. Red blood cell casts
C. Fatty casts
D. Waxy casts
E. Hyperparathyroidism
F. Hemoptysis and hematuria
G. Acute tubular necrosis
H. Before age 5
A

G. Acute tubular necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. Acute pyelonephritis
A. White blood cell casts
B. Red blood cell casts
C. Fatty casts
D. Waxy casts
E. Hyperparathyroidism
F. Hemoptysis and hematuria
G. Acute tubular necrosis
H. Before age 5
A

A. White blood cell casts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Good pasture’s syndrome
A. White blood cell casts
B. Red blood cell casts
C. Fatty casts
D. Waxy casts
E. Hyperparathyroidism
F. Hemoptysis and hematuria
G. Acute tubular necrosis
H. Before age 5
A

F. Hemoptysis and hematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Will’s tumor
A. White blood cell casts
B. Red blood cell casts
C. Fatty casts
D. Waxy casts
E. Hyperparathyroidism
F. Hemoptysis and hematuria
G. Acute tubular necrosis
H. Before age 5
A

H. Before age 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. Nephrotic syndrome
A. White blood cell casts
B. Red blood cell casts
C. Fatty casts
D. Waxy casts
E. Hyperparathyroidism
F. Hemoptysis and hematuria
G. Acute tubular necrosis
H. Before age 5
A

C. Fatty casts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. 80 % of the semen secreted by:
A. Posterior lobe of the prostate gland
B. Bilateral lobes of
the prostate gland
C. Middle lobe of the prostate gland
D. Seminal vesicle
A

D. Seminal vesicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. What are the complications of untreated undescended testicle?

A. Orchitis
B. Develops testicular tumor
C. Both statements are correct
D. Neither statement is correct

A

B. Develops testicular tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. What is the most common cause of orchitis in adult males?

A. Mumps parotitis
B. Measles parotitis
C. Bacterial parotitis
D. Cytomegalovirus

A

A. Mumps parotitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. The most common cause of an enlarged testicle is:
A. A hydrocele
B. Orchitis
C. Tumor
D. Fragile X-syndrome
E. A hematocele
A

C. Tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. What is the tumor marker for the teratoma of the testis?

A. CEA level
B. Beta human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) level
C. Estrogen level
D. Prostatic specific antigen (PSA)

A

B. Beta human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. What is the most common penile tumor?

A. Adenocarcinoma
B. Transitional cell carcinoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Leiomyosarcoma

A

C. Squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. What are the features of acute prostatitis?

A. Usually leads to granulomatous prostatitis
B. Symptoms of perineal pain and dysuria
C. Develops prostatic tumor
D. Microscopically, characterized by necrotizing vasculitis
E. Exclusive cause is neisseria gonorrhea

A

B. Symptoms of perineal pain and dysuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. All of the following are the complications of prostatic hyperplasia EXCEPT:

A. Difficulty in initiating and maintaining a urinary stream
B. Smooth muscle hypertrophy of the urinary bladder
C. Urinary tract infection
D. Develops prostatic carcinoma
E. Diverticula of the urinary bladder

A

D. Develops prostatic carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. Most common testicular tumor, highest radiosensitivity and associated with cryptorchid testis are the manifestations of :

A. Seminoma of the testes
B. Teratoma of the testes
C. Adenocarcinoma of the prostate
D. Hematocele of the testes

A

A. Seminoma of the testes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. What are the features of adenocarcinoma of the prostate?

A. Soft and nodular to rectal examination
B. Commonly brain metastasis in advanced cases
C. Arises in the periurethral portion of the prostate
D. Increased incidence in middle age and then decreasing in the elderly
E. Osteoblastic metastasis

A

E. Osteoblastic metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. A carcinoma in situ of the penis
A. Urethra opens onto the ventral surface
B. Bowen's disease
C. Urinary retention
D. Secretes Beta HCG
E. Chlamydia
A

B. Bowen’s disease

32
Q
  1. Choriocarcinoma of the testes
A. Urethra opens onto the ventral surface
B. Bowen's disease
C. Urinary retention
D. Secretes Beta HCG
E. Chlamydia
A

D. Secretes Beta HCG

33
Q
  1. Epididymo-orchitis in young age
A. Urethra opens onto the ventral surface
B. Bowen's disease
C. Urinary retention
D. Secretes Beta HCG
E. Chlamydia
A

E. Chlamydia

34
Q
  1. Hypospadias
A. Urethra opens onto the ventral surface
B. Bowen's disease
C. Urinary retention
D. Secretes Beta HCG
E. Chlamydia
A

A. Urethra opens onto the ventral surface

35
Q
  1. Adenocarcinoma of the prostate
A. Urethra opens onto the ventral surface
B. Bowen's disease
C. Urinary retention
D. Secretes Beta HCG
E. Chlamydia
A

C. Urinary retention

36
Q
  1. Endometriosis is:

A. Inflammation of the uterine tissue
B. Abnormal location of the uterine tissue
C. Benign tumor of the uterus
D. Abnormal location of the ovarian tissue

A

B. Abnormal location of the uterine tissue

37
Q
  1. What is the most common primary uterine cancer?

A. Adenocarcinoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Transitional cell carcinoma
D. Metastatic tumor

A

A. Adenocarcinoma

38
Q
  1. All of the following are causes of pelvic inflammatory disease EXCEPT:
A. Gonococcus and chlamydia
B. Intrauterine devices (IUDs)
C. Postpartum endometritis
D. Pregnancy
E. Curettage from abortion
A

D. Pregnancy

39
Q
  1. An excess bleeding during a regular period is called:

A. Menorrhagia
B. Metrorrhagia
C. Menorrhea
D. Me

A

A. Menorrhagia

40
Q
  1. In the list below, the ovarian tumor with the highest degree of bilateral involvement is:

A. Serous cystadenoma
B. Mucinous cystadenoma
C. Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
D. Serous cystadenocarcinoma

A

D. Serous cystadenocarcinoma

41
Q
  1. Stein-Leventhal syndrome is:

A. Fibrotic cystic ovaries with ovulation
B. Polycystic ovary associated with ovulation
C. Polycystic ovary associated with anovulation
D. Associated with any fertile females

A

C. Polycystic ovary associated with anovulation

42
Q
  1. What is the most common mass in a wo
    men under 35 year of age, freely movable?

A. Fibroadenoma
B. Fibocystic change
C. Intraductal adenoma
D. Intraductal carcinoma

A

A. Fibroadenoma

43
Q
  1. What is the most common complication of uterine cervical carcinoma and cause of death?

A. Distant metastasis to the lymph nodes
B. Distant metastasis to the lung
C. Local infiltration, bilateral ureters
D. Local spread to the lower third of the vagina

A

C. Local infiltration, bilateral ureters

44
Q
  1. What is the most common cause of breast abscess?

A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pneumonia
C. Streptococcus hemolytica
D. Viral infection

A

A. Staphylococcus aureus

45
Q
  1. Association of Hydatiform mole includes:

A. Partial, incomplete and complete types
B. Normal genetic pattern
C. Markedly elevated levels of human chorionic gonadotropin
D. Vaginal outflow of necrotic, hemorrhagic material

A

C. Markedly elevated levels of human chorionic gonadotropin

46
Q
  1. What is the most common types of primary ovarian tumor?

A. Germ cell tumor
B. Epithelial cell tumors
C. Gonadal-stromal tumors
D. Metastatic tumors

A

B. Epithelial cell tumors

47
Q
  1. Which of the following statements concerning gynecomastia is correct?

A. It usually presents as an ill-defined mass in the upper outer quadrant of the breast
B. Histologically, shows dilated ducts containing inspissated secretions
C. It may occur in the female breast
D. It may be related to cirrhosis or estrogen excess

A

D. It may be related to cirrhosis or estrogen excess

48
Q
  1. Polycystic ovary syndrome
A. Radiosensitive associated with turner syndrome
B. Toxemia during pregnancy
C. Incomplete separation of the placenta
D. Amenorrhea, infertility, obesity
E. Metastatic adenocarcinoma to the ovary
F. Nipple discharge of blood
G. Malignancy of trophoblastic cells
H. 75 % of all breast cancers
A

D. Amenorrhea, infertility, obesity

49
Q
  1. Choriocarcinoma
A. Radiosensitive associated with turner syndrome
B. Toxemia during pregnancy
C. Incomplete separation of the placenta
D. Amenorrhea, infertility, obesity
E. Metastatic adenocarcinoma to the ovary
F. Nipple discharge of blood
G. Malignancy of trophoblastic cells
H. 75 % of all breast cancers
A

G. Malignancy of trophoblastic cells

50
Q
  1. Dysgerminoma
A. Radiosensitive associated with turner syndrome
B. Toxemia during pregnancy
C. Incomplete separation of the placenta
D. Amenorrhea, infertility, obesity
E. Metastatic adenocarcinoma to the ovary
F. Nipple discharge of blood
G. Malignancy of trophoblastic cells
H. 75 % of all breast cancers
A

A. Radiosensitive associated with turner syndrome

51
Q
  1. Krukenberg tumor
A. Radiosensitive associated with turner syndrome
B. Toxemia during pregnancy
C. Incomplete separation of the placenta
D. Amenorrhea, infertility, obesity
E. Metastatic adenocarcinoma to the ovary
F. Nipple discharge of blood
G. Malignancy of trophoblastic cells
H. 75 % of all breast cancers
A

E. Metastatic adenocarcinoma to the ovary

52
Q
  1. Intraductal papilloma
A. Radiosensitive associated with turner syndrome
B. Toxemia during pregnancy
C. Incomplete separation of the placenta
D. Amenorrhea, infertility, obesity
E. Metastatic adenocarcinoma to the ovary
F. Nipple discharge of blood
G. Malignancy of trophoblastic cells
H. 75 % of all breast cancers
A

F. Nipple discharge of blood

53
Q
  1. Infiltrating ductal adenocarcinoma
A. Radiosensitive associated with turner syndrome
B. Toxemia during pregnancy
C. Incomplete separation of the placenta
D. Amenorrhea, infertility, obesity
E. Metastatic adenocarcinoma to the ovary
F. Nipple discharge of blood
G. Malignancy of trophoblastic cells
H. 75 % of all breast cancers
A

F. Nipple discharge of blood
&
H. 75 % of all breast cancers

54
Q
  1. Per-eclampsia
A. Radiosensitive associated with turner syndrome
B. Toxemia during pregnancy
C. Incomplete separation of the placenta
D. Amenorrhea, infertility, obesity
E. Metastatic adenocarcinoma to the ovary
F. Nipple discharge of blood
G. Malignancy of trophoblastic cells
H. 75 % of all breast cancers
A

B. Toxemia during pregnancy

55
Q
  1. Abruptio placenta
A. Radiosensitive associated with turner syndrome
B. Toxemia during pregnancy
C. Incomplete separation of the placenta
D. Amenorrhea, infertility, obesity
E. Metastatic adenocarcinoma to the ovary
F. Nipple discharge of blood
G. Malignancy of trophoblastic cells
H. 75 % of all breast cancers
A

C. Incomplete separation of the placenta

56
Q
  1. Primary hyperaldosteronism is associated with all the following features EXCEPT:
A. Adenoma
B. Muscle weakness
C. Edema
D. Expansion of intravascular volume
E. Polyu
57
Q
  1. A 42 year old man complains of recently having
    to change his shoe size from 9 to 11 and also says that his hands and jaw are now larger. The disorder is most likely mediated through:
A. Prolactin
B. Somatomedin
C. ACTH
D. Thyrotropin
E. Antidiuretic hormone
A

B. Somatomedin

58
Q
  1. What is the most common cause of cushing’s syndrome?
A. Bilateral adrenal hyperplasia
B. Adrenal adenoma
C. Adrenal carcinoma
D. Excess use of glucocorticoid
E. Ectopic adrenal tissue
A

A. Bilateral adrenal hyperplasia

59
Q
  1. All of the following are feature of cushing’s syndrome EXCEPT:
A. Osteoporosis
B. Central obesity
C. Pituitary adenoma
D. Hypotension
E. Hyp
A

D. Hypotension

60
Q
  1. Feature of hyperparathyroidism includes:

A. Carpopedal spasm
B. Fatigue and renal stones
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Nervousness

A

B. Fatigue and renal stones

61
Q
  1. Medullary carcinoma is a ssociated with all EXCEPT:

A. Derived from parafollicular cells
B. Females: males ratio of 3:1
C. Produce calcitonin and serotonin
D. Associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia

A

B. Females: males ratio of 3:1

62
Q
  1. Psammoma bodies are the features of ONE of the following disorders:

A. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
B. Follicular adenoma of the thyroid
C. Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid
D. Follicular carcinoma of the thyroid

A

C. Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid

63
Q
  1. Which of the following is the highly malignant tumor of the thyroid?

A. Papillary carcinoma
B. Follicular carcinoma
C. Medullary carcinoma
D. Anaplastic carcinoma

A

D. Anaplastic carcinoma

64
Q
  1. All of the following are the clinical finding in hypothyroidism EXCEPT:

A. Hypophosphatemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Recent thyroid or parathyroid surgery
D. Nervousness

A

A. Hypophosphatemia

65
Q
  1. The microangiopathy of diabetes mellitus is thought to be related to:

A. Deposition of amyloid
B. Glycosylation products and sorbitol production
C. Anti-basement membrane antibodies
D. Circulating immune complexes

A

B. Glycosylation products and sorbitol production

66
Q
  1. Which of the following pairs of pituitary adenoma / clinical disorder is correct:

A. Gonadotropic / Acromegaly
B. Somatotropic / hyperthyroidism
C. Prolactinoma / galactorrhea
D. Corticotropic / empty cell syndrome

A

C. Prolactinoma / galactorrhea

67
Q
  1. All of the following are the feature of diabetic patients EXCEPT:
A. Tetany
B. Recurrent infection
C. Sensory neuropathy
D. Impotence
E. Retinitis
68
Q
  1. Hyperprolactinemia

A. Excess secretion of hormones in chronic renal insufficiency
B. Most common endocrinopathy caused by pituitary tumor
C. Most common thyroid cancer with best prognosis
D. Auto-immune disease
E. Hypothyroidism of childhood
F. Thin, young age with HLA-DR3 and ketoacidosis
G. Obese, middle age with dysfunctional insulin receptors and more family history
H. Hypercalcemia

A

B. Most common endocrinopathy caused by pituitary tumor

69
Q
  1. Cretinism

A. Excess secretion of hormones in chronic renal insufficiency
B. Most common endocrinopathy caused by pituitary tumor
C. Most common thyroid cancer with best prognosis
D. Auto-immune disease
E. Hypothyroidism of childhood
F. Thin, young age with HLA-DR3 and ketoacidosis
G. Obese, middle age with dysfunctional insulin receptors and more family history
H. Hypercalcemia

A

E. Hypothyroidism of childhood

70
Q
  1. Type I diabetes mellitus

A. Excess secretion of hormones in chronic renal insufficiency
B. Most common endocrinopathy caused by pituitary tumor
C. Most common thyroid cancer with best prognosis
D. Auto-immune disease
E. Hypothyroidism of childhood
F. Thin, young age with HLA-DR3 and ketoacidosis
G. Obese, middle age with dysfunctional insulin receptors and more family history
H. Hypercalcemia

A

F. Thin, young age with HLA-DR3 and ketoacidosis

71
Q
  1. Secondary hyperparathyroidism

A. Excess secretion of hormones in chronic renal insufficiency
B. Most common endocrinopathy caused by pituitary tumor
C. Most common thyroid cancer with best prognosis
D. Auto-immune disease
E. Hypothyroidism of childhood
F. Thin, young age with HLA-DR3 and ketoacidosis
G. Obese, middle age with dysfunctional insulin receptors and more family history
H. Hypercalcemia

A

A. Excess secretion of hormones in chronic renal insufficiency

72
Q
  1. Hashimoto’s disease

A. Excess secretion of hormones in chronic renal insufficiency
B. Most common endocrinopathy caused by pituitary tumor
C. Most common thyroid cancer with best prognosis
D. Auto-immune disease
E. Hypothyroidism of childhood
F. Thin, young age with HLA-DR3 and ketoacidosis
G. Obese, middle age with dysfunctional insulin receptors and more family history
H. Hypercalcemia

A

D. Auto-immune disease

73
Q
  1. Type II diabetes mellitus

A. Excess secretion of hormones in chronic renal insufficiency
B. Most common endocrinopathy caused by pituitary tumor
C. Most common thyroid cancer with best prognosis
D. Auto-immune disease
E. Hypothyroidism of childhood
F. Thin, young age with HLA-DR3 and ketoacidosis
G. Obese, middle age with dysfunctional insulin receptors and more family history
H. Hypercalcemia

A

G. Obese, middle age with dysfunctional insulin receptors and more family history

74
Q
  1. Papillary carcinoma

A. Excess secretion of hormones in chronic renal insufficiency
B. Most common endocrinopathy caused by pituitary tumor
C. Most common thyroid cancer with best prognosis
D. Auto-immune disease
E. Hypothyroidism of childhood
F. Thin, young age with HLA-DR3 and ketoacidosis
G. Obese, middle age with dysfunctional insulin receptors and more family history
H. Hypercalcemia

A

C. Most common thyroid cancer with best prognosis

75
Q
  1. Parathyroid adenoma

A. Excess secretion of hormones in chronic renal insufficiency
B. Most common endocrinopathy caused by pituitary tumor
C. Most common thyroid cancer with best prognosis
D. Auto-immune disease
E. Hypothyroidism of childhood
F. Thin, young age with HLA-DR3 and ketoacidosis
G. Obese, middle age with dysfunctional insulin receptors and more family history
H. Hypercalcemia

A

H. Hypercalcemia

Systemic Pathology (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions