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Immunology/Microbiology > Microbiology Final Exam > Flashcards

Microbiology Final Exam Flashcards

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1
Q

anaerobic gram positive cocci

A

peptostreptococci

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2
Q

anaerobic gram positive rods

A

propionibacterium

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3
Q

what are the three major organisms of anaeroboes

A

actinomyces
bacteroides
clostridia

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4
Q

two bugs that cause constipation

A

typhoid

bostulism

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5
Q

what are the three mechanisms of anaerobe culture

A

gas pack
oxyplates
glove box

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6
Q

how do anaerobes generate energy

A

by only fermentation

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7
Q

if the statement says the anaerobe cannot grow in the intestine and only is in the skin

A

propionibacterium

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8
Q

where does clostridia grow

A

intestine

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9
Q

bacteroides fragillis is found

A

intestine

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10
Q

fusobacterium is found

A

mouth and intestine

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11
Q

peptostreptococci is found

A

mouth, intestine, urogenital

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12
Q

what type of infections do anaerobes usually occur

A

endogenous infections

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13
Q

polymicrobial infections

A

anaerobes

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14
Q

gram stain and shape of actinomyces

A

gram positive rod

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15
Q

acid fast

A

nocardia and TB

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16
Q

filamentous forms hypahe

A

actinomyces

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17
Q

chronic granulmatous lesions

A

actinomyces

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18
Q

grains of sand

A

actinomyces

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19
Q

forms abcesses connected to sinus tract

A

actinomyces israelli

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20
Q

invasive dental work, lumpy jaw

A

actinomyces

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21
Q

branching filamentous gram positive rod

A

nocardia, tuberculosis

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22
Q

most common actinomyces infection

A

cevicofacial

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23
Q

women with IUD

A

pelvic infection with actinomyces

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24
Q

common manifestation of brain abscesses

A

actinomyces

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25
Q

sulfur granules

A

actinomyces

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26
Q

white colonies with domed surface

A

actinomyces

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27
Q

gram negative pleomorphic rod

A

bacteroides fragilis

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28
Q

has LPS but is not toxic

A

bacteroides fragilis

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29
Q

intraabdominal infections usally from trauma or abdominal surgery

A

b fragilis

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30
Q

abcess formation in female genital tract

A

b fragillis

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31
Q

how does gastroenteritis caused by B fragilis

A

self limited watery diarrhea, enterotoxin caused by changes of GI epithelium via F actin rearrangement- chloride scretion and fluid loss

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32
Q

gas in specimen

A

b fragilis

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33
Q

infect adjacent to mucosal membrane

A

b fragillis

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34
Q

bile esculin agar

A

b fragillis

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35
Q

gram positive spore forming rod

A

clostridia

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36
Q

can survive years in soil

A

clostridia

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37
Q

highly resistant to physical and chemical agents

A

clostrida

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38
Q

ubiquitous in soil, water, and sewage part of normal GI normal flora

A

clostridia

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39
Q

what are the clostriudm species

A

perfringes, tetani, botulinum, difficile

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40
Q

what causes psuedomembranous colitis

A

c difficile

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41
Q

what is responsible for gas gangrene, food poisoning and necrotizing enteritis

A

clostridium perfringens

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42
Q

nonmotile but spreads on the media

A

c perfringes

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43
Q

flat spreading colonies

A

perfringes

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44
Q

double zone of hemolysis

A

c perfringens

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45
Q

complete hemolysiis cuased by

A

omega toxin

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46
Q

wider zone of partial hemolysis caused by

A

alpha toxin

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47
Q

very rapid generation time

A

C perfringes

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48
Q

gas gangrene

A

c perfringes

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49
Q

alpha toxin of c perfringes

A

mediates gangrene

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50
Q

type C perfringes causes

A

enteritis necroticans

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51
Q

cellulitis with gas formation

A

c perfringes

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52
Q

suppurative myositis

A

accumulation of pus in muscle planes, result of c perfringes

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53
Q

toxic delirium

A

c perfringes

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54
Q

hypovolemia of c perfringes is caused by

A

circulating toxin

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55
Q

shiny bronz color wound

A

gas gangrene

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56
Q

what toxin of C perfringes causes capillary damage, and thrombocytopenia

A

alpha toxin

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57
Q

antibiotic associated dirrhea in nursing home residents

A

c perfringes

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58
Q

papua new guinea, undercooked contaminaed pork with sweet potatoes

A

c perfringes

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59
Q

necrotizing enteriitis is caused by what toxin

A

beta toxin

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60
Q

nagler reaction on egg yolk agar

A

C perfringes

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61
Q

stormy fermentation: coagulation of moil

A

C perfringes

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62
Q

round terminal spores

A

C tetani

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63
Q

pig bel

A

c perfringes

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64
Q

looks like a drumstick

A

C tetani

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65
Q

hoarse manure

A

C tetani

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66
Q

what are the two toxins associated with C tetani

A

oxygen labile hemolysin, heat labile neuroxin

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67
Q

oxygen labile hemolysin

A

tetanolysin

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68
Q

heat labile neurotoxin

A

tetanospasmim

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69
Q

what toxin associated with tetanus

A

tetanospasm, heat labile neurotoxin

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70
Q

heat labile neurotoxin is what type of toxin

A

AB type toxin, b Binds gangliosides on neurons and A enters cytoplasm

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71
Q

tetanus toxin casues two CNS problems

A

prevents release of inhibitory transmitters (GABA and glycine)
promotes muscle over activity (spastic paralysis)

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72
Q

what are the four manifestations of C tetani

A

generalized tetanus
localized tetanus
cephalic tetanus
tetanus neonatorum

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73
Q

lock jaw

A

lock jaw

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74
Q

hydrophobia

A

c tetani and rabies

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75
Q

what are the 3 treatment goals for C tetani

A

remove the toxin
remove source of infection
supportive care + antibiotics

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76
Q

gram positive rod

A

C botulinum

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77
Q

botulism toxin

A

heat labile toxin, inhibits the release of acetylcholine, 7 toxins town, casues flaccid paralysis

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78
Q

which infection causes spastic paralysis

A

c tetani

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79
Q

what infection causes flaccid parlysis

A

C botulinum

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80
Q

honey with infants

A

C botulinum

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81
Q

what are the to clostriudm species with AB bacterial toxin

A

C botulinum and C tetani

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82
Q

floppy baby syndrome

A

infant botulinum

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83
Q

intoxification in kids and infection in adults

A

C botulinum

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84
Q

produces lipase , digest milk proteins, ferments glucose

A

C botulinum

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85
Q

constipation

A

c botulinum

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86
Q

why can’t you treat infant bostulism wit antibiotics

A

it is a performed toxin

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87
Q

slender gram positive sporulating anaerobe

A

C difficile

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88
Q

toxins produced by C difficile

A

enterotoxin (toxin A)

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89
Q

mucoid green diarrhea

A

C diff

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90
Q

pseudomembranous colitis

A

C diff

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91
Q

mucosa covered with white, gray or yellow patches , contains fibrin, mucus and WBC’s

A

pseudomembranous colitis, C dif

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92
Q

peptostreptococcu is

A

anaerobic gram positive cocci

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93
Q

cause bacterial vaginosis

A

mobiluncus

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94
Q

normal flora of vaginal tract

A

lactobacillus

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95
Q

causes acne

A

propionibacterium acnes

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96
Q

anaerobic gram negative bacteria cause

A

50% of chronic sinusitis and ear infections and almost all peridontal infections

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97
Q

gram positive cocci anaerobie

A

peptostreptococci

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98
Q

gram negative cocci

A

veilonella

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99
Q

gram positive rods anaerobic

A

actinomyces, clostridia

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100
Q

gram negative rods anaerobic

A

bacteroides

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101
Q

treponemes causes

A

symphilis

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102
Q

borrelia causes

A

lyme disease

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103
Q

spiral shaped, do NOT have LPS, gram neg

A

spirochetes

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104
Q

what technique is used to see spirochetes

A

dark field microscopy

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105
Q

what are the two major pathogenic species of treponemes

A

treponema pallidum, treponema carateum

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106
Q

treponema carateum causes

A

pinta

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107
Q

___________causes acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

A

T vincentii

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108
Q

T pectinovorum causes

A

peridontal disease

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109
Q

T pallidum pertenue causes

A

yaws

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110
Q

T pallidum endemicum causes

A

endemic syphillis

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111
Q

extremely slender spiral organism

A

trepnonema pallidum

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112
Q

tissue destruction and lesions of syphilis due to what

A

host immune response

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113
Q

primary phase of syphillis is associated with

A

painless chancre

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114
Q

who’s at risk for zoonoses

A

occupational hazard, farmers, vets, outdoor expsoure

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115
Q

gram stain of pasteurella multocida

A

gram negative coccobacillus

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116
Q

is pasteurella multicida oxidase positive or negative

A

oxidase positive

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117
Q

where is pasteurella multocida found

A

comensall in URT of livestock, poultry, domestic cats/dogs

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118
Q

how do you get pasteurella multocida

A

infection from animal bite or strath (most of the time cats)

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119
Q

symptoms of pasteruella multocida

A

usually follows animal bite, rapidly progressive cellulitis, , lymphadenitis, can progress to abscesses, osteomyelitis, and septic arthritis

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120
Q

bipolar staining, growth of blood and chocolate agar

A

P multocida

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121
Q

cause of cat scratch disease

A

bartonella henselae

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122
Q

get after a cat scratch

A

bartonella henselae

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123
Q

safety pin staining

A

pasteurella multocida

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124
Q

warthin starry silver stain

A

bartonella henselae

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125
Q

bacillary angiomatosis

A

resemvles kaposi sarcoma (AIDS defining illness)

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126
Q

you can get this from B henselae

A

bacillary angiomatosis

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127
Q

lichenoid violaceous plaque

A

b henselae

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128
Q

splenoectomized, alcohols and IC are at risk for this fastidious gram negative rod

A

capnocytophaga canimorsus

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129
Q

diagnosis of capnocytophago canimorsus

A

hisotyr of dog bite

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130
Q

what zoonoses can cause gangrene

A

capnocytophaga canimorsus

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131
Q

causes rat bite fever

A

streptobacillus moniliformis

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132
Q

long thin gram negative rod

A

streptobacillus moniliformis

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133
Q

can cause haverhill fever

A

s moniliformis

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134
Q

gram positive microaerophilic aerophilic rods or filaments

A

erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

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135
Q

easily decolorized on gram strain

A

erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

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136
Q

associated with Pigs

A

erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

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137
Q

erysipeloid

A

E rhusiopathiae

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138
Q

erysipeloid is what

A

inflammatory skin lesion, lesion is painful and pruriti, burning, throbbing, appears violaceous with raised rash. appears PURPLE!

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139
Q

what zoonoses associated with producing hydrogen sulfide

A

E rhusiopathiae

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140
Q

two that are alpha hemolytic

A

E rhusiopathiae and Strep pneumoniae

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141
Q

triple sugar iron agar

A

E rhusiopathiae

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142
Q

brucella species are what gram stan

A

aerobic gram negative coccobaciili

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143
Q

B canis is from

A

brucella species

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144
Q

B suis

A

from pigs

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145
Q

B meletensis

A

most pathogenic and is from goats and sheep

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146
Q

B abortus

A

cows

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147
Q

enzymes produced by brucella

A

catalase, oxidase, urease

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148
Q

patient presents with profuse sweating

A

brucella

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149
Q

francisella tularensis causes

A

rabbit fever

150
Q

gram stain of F tularensis

A

aerobic gram negative rod, facultative intracellular

151
Q

ulcerograndular tularemia

A

entry to skin

152
Q

pulmonic tularemia

A

inhalation

(10-50 bacilli)

153
Q

oropharyngeal tularemia

A

ingestion 100 million required

154
Q

causes atypical pneumonia

A

mycoplasma, legionella, francisella tularensis

155
Q

grows on buffered charcoal yeast agar

A

francisella and legionella

156
Q

francisella tularemia abs cross react with

A

salmonella
brucella
yersinia
legionella

157
Q

causes plaque

A

yersinia pestis

158
Q

sylvatic plaque

A

yersinia pestis

159
Q

urban plaque

A

yersinia pestis

160
Q

endemic to south wast

A

yersinia pestis

161
Q

fraction F gene

A

antiphagocytic protein capsule of yersinia pestis

162
Q

plasminogen activator protease gene

A

yersinia pestis

163
Q

prarie dogs

A

yersinia pestis

164
Q

function of YopJ and P

A

initiates apoptosis in macrophages and supresses cytokine production

165
Q

bubonic plaque transmitted by

A

fleas

166
Q

Yog genes type of virulence factor

A

type III secretion system

167
Q

virulence factors associated with Y pestis

A

fraction F1 gene
plasminogen activator protease gene
YOP genes: type III secretion

168
Q

buboes form

A

Y pestis

169
Q

symptoms of bubonic plaque

A

bacteria multiply in LN buboes formed

170
Q

septicemic plaque (black death)

A

subcutaneous hemorrhages, DIC, vascular collapse

171
Q

Pneumonic plaque

A

hemorrhagic pneumonia, easily transmitted between people, >90% mortality

172
Q

fleas

A

bubonic plaque

173
Q

bipolar staining

A

yersinia pestis

174
Q

causes spongiform encephalopathies

A

unconventional slow viruses

175
Q

why are the prions do not conform to definition of a virus

A

have no virion structure or genome
do NOT elicit immune response
extremely resistant to inactivation

176
Q

what is more stable alpha helix or beta spleated sheat ?

A

beta pleated sheat

177
Q

what are the four prion diseases

A

kuru
creatuzfeldt jakob disease
gerstmann-straussler scheinker syndrome
fatal familial insomia

178
Q

mechanism of kuru

A

cannibalism

179
Q

sproadic CJD

A

spontaneous PrPC to PrP sc conversion or somatic mutation

180
Q

iatrogenic CJD

A

infection from prion containing material

181
Q

familila CJD

A

mutations in the PrP gene

182
Q

VCJD

A

infection from BSE

183
Q

what are the four convensional slow viral diseases

A

measles, papvavirus, rubella, and AIDS (cause encephalitis but are not prions)

184
Q

resistant to proteases

A

prions

185
Q

prion protein is called

A

scrapie like prion protein

186
Q

what is the difference between PrPSc and PrPC

A

differs in tertiary structure due to folding

187
Q

what causes the spongiform apperance in prion disease

A

accumulation of PrPsc

188
Q

amyyloid plaques

A

prion disease

189
Q

human growth hormone, dura mater graft

A

creutzfeldt jakob disease

190
Q

rare subset of inhered form of CJD and has an earlier onsept similar to CJD

A

gerstmann straussler scheinker syndrome

191
Q

results from genetic mutation, different symptoms than CJD resulitng from 2 mutations

A

fetal familial insomnia

192
Q

2 hit hypothesis of CJD and FFI

A

must have a aspartic acid to asparagine at 1788 and then a second mutation at 129 (valine then familial and methionine then FFI

193
Q

difference between CJD and vCJD

A

earlyer age of onset
time between disease and death is 6-24 motns (longer)
extenstive plaque formation that contain high concentrations of PrPsc

194
Q

3 phases of T pallidum

A

primar phase- painless chancre at site of infection
secondary phase- disseminated disease
late tertiary phase- destruction of specific tissue

195
Q

copper colored rash ALL over the body

A

secondary T pallidum

196
Q

patchy alopecia

A

secondary syphillis

197
Q

condylmoata lata

A

associated with ayphilis, soft fleshy papules

198
Q

condylomata acuminata

A

HPV

199
Q

nickel and dime rash on palms

A

seocndary T pallidum

200
Q

flat shiny areas on tongue

A

secondary T pallidum

201
Q

tabes dorsalis demylination

A

neurosyphillis

202
Q

gummas

A

destructive granulamtous lesion tertiary syphillis

203
Q

mucopurulent rhinitis

A

T palidum (congenital syphillis)

204
Q

hutchinson teeth

A

congenital syphillis

205
Q

rasberry molears

A

congenital syphillis

206
Q

saber shins

A

congenital syphillis

207
Q

saddle nose

A

congenital syphillis

208
Q

VDRL

A

venereal disease research laboratory

209
Q

what are nontreponemal tests

A

measure IgG and IgM, not specific, Ag test is cardiolipid from beef heart

210
Q

found in africa, asia, and australia and causes oral lesions followed by gummas ; contaminated utensils

A

bejel

211
Q

present in S america, africa, and asia and causes granulmatous disease

A

Yaws (trep pertenue

212
Q

Pinta is caused by

A

T carateum

213
Q

where is T carateum found

A

present in central and south america

214
Q

hypopigmented lesions that results in scarring and disfigurement, found in central and south america

A

pinta T carateum

215
Q

what is the causative agent of lyme disease

A

borrelia burgdorferi

216
Q

what does borrelia recurrentis cause

A

relapsing fever

217
Q

significant of borrelila molecular structure

A

outer envelope surrounding periplasmic flagella

218
Q

how is lyme disease transmitted

A

black legged tick

219
Q

what are the reservoirs of lyme disease

A

rodents and deers

220
Q

most common vector borne disease in the united states

A

lyme disease

221
Q

bull eyes rash

A

lyme diseasee

222
Q

generally what are the three stages lf lyme disease

A

localized, disseminated and persistent

223
Q

stage 1 of limes

A

bulls eye rash

224
Q

stage 2 of lymes

A

intermittent arthirits, severe malise, and fatigue

225
Q

stage 3 of lymes

A

prolonged arthritis, chronic encephalitis, myelitis,

226
Q

to be clinically diagnosed with lyme

A

erythema migrams or at least 1 late manifestation and positive isolation, diagnostic levels of IgM or IgG and a significant increase between acute and convalenscent Ab titers

227
Q

what type of tick causes borrelia recurrentis

A

louse borne relapsing fever (pediculus humanus)

228
Q

TBRF endemic to US most prevalently caused by

A

B hermsi

229
Q

rustic cabins

A

B hermsi

230
Q

for relapsing fever when are the spirochets isolateable

A

during the febrile period

231
Q

leptospirosis

A

caused by leptospira interrogans

232
Q

tightly coild body with hooked ends

A

leptospirosis

233
Q

what is the reservoir host for leptospira interrogans

A

rodents

234
Q

associated with weil disease

A

leptospirosis (renal failure hepatic symptoms with jaundice)

235
Q

what family of bacteria does not contain Peptidoglycan

A

chlamydiciase

236
Q

general characteristics of chlamydiciae

A

obligate intracellular parasite
no PPG
can’t synthesize ATP or reoxidize reduced NADP
contain ribosomes and can synthesize proteins

237
Q

elementary body

A

smal. hardy, and is the infectious form of the organisms of chalmydiciae

238
Q

reticulate body

A

large, fragile and intracellular form of organism

239
Q

which stage of life cycle does it chlamydiciae replicate

A

reticulate body

240
Q

inclusion bodies

A

chlamydia

241
Q

what causes parrot fever

A

chlaymydophila psittaci

242
Q

what is the cause of walking pneumoniase

A

chlamydophila pneumoniae

243
Q

parrots parakeets,

A

C. psittaci

244
Q

characteritics of parrot fever

A

acute infection of the lower respiratory tract presenting with acute onset of fever, chills, headhace, bilaterla interstital pneumonia, enlarged spleen and liver

245
Q

what age group is associated with walking pneumoniae

A

adults

246
Q

what has been linked to atheroscloerosis

A

walking pneumonia

247
Q

why does C pnuemoniae cause dry cough

A

damages the cillia

248
Q

what is the major diagnostic test used for for C pneuoniae

A

microimmunoflourescne

249
Q

what are the two biovars of C trachomatis

A

trachoma and LGV

250
Q

inclusoin conjunctivitis and nongonnococcal urethritis

A

D-K

251
Q

lymphogranuloma venerum

A

LGV

252
Q

Trachoma

A

ABBaC

253
Q

where does the LGV biovar replciate

A

in macrophages

254
Q

clinical manifestions of C trachamatis results from

A

destruction of host cells and inflammatory response

255
Q

trachoma causes

A

chronic keratoconjunctivitis

256
Q

inclusion conjunctivitis

A

caused by serotypes D-kK,

257
Q

what serotypes cause trachoma

A

A,B,Ba and C

258
Q

most common STD in us

A

NGU

259
Q

lymphogranuloma venereum casued by what serotypes

A

L1-3

260
Q

how os LGV acquired

A

abrasions

261
Q

what species lack a cell wall

A

mycoplasma and ureaplasma

262
Q

how does M pneumoniae grow

A

strict aerobe

263
Q

fried egg appearce

A

mycoplasma

264
Q

mulberry appearance

A

M pneumoniae

265
Q

what is the major virulence factor of M pneumoniae

A

P1 adhesion

266
Q

function of P1 Adhesion

A

interacts to glycoprotein receptor at base of cilia, causes ciliostasis, loss of ciliated epitheila cells interferes with airway clearance

267
Q

presence of nonpurulent otitis media and lower respiraotyr tract ilness in a teenageer should indicate infection by

A

M pneumoniae

268
Q

presence of mononuclear cells

A

M pneumoniae

269
Q

dry hacking cough fever and presnce of gold agglutinins

A

mycoplasma!

270
Q

mycoplasma that are common inhibatants of genitourinary tract

A

M hominis

M genitalium

271
Q

what are the two causes of NGU

A

mycoplasma genitalium and chalymdia

272
Q

associated with post abortal or pospartum fever

A

M hominis

273
Q

asscoiated with PID

A

M hominis

274
Q

metabolizes arginine

A

mycoplasma

275
Q

small circular colonies that frow downward into agar

A

ureaplasma urealyticum

276
Q

what are the bacteria in the rickettciase family

A

rickettsia, ehrlichia, anaplasma, and coxiella

277
Q

gram stain of rickettciae

A

gram neg aerobic coccobacilli, obigate intracellular bacteria

278
Q

rickettsiae are transmitted by

A

arthropod vectors excpt coxiella

279
Q

what causes rocky mountain spotted fever

A

R rickettsii

280
Q

what causes epidemic tyhpus

A

R prowazekii

281
Q

what causes ehrlichiosos

A

E chaffeesis and E ewingi

282
Q

what causes anaplasmosis

A

A phagocytophilum

283
Q

function of phospholipase A in Rickettsia life cycle

A

degrades the phagosome

284
Q

how is rock mountaed spotted fever tramsitted

A

rocky mountain wood tick or dog tick

285
Q

what are the secondar reservoir to R rickettsii

A

willd rodents

286
Q

rash that begins on hands and feet and spreads inward to trunk

A

rocky mountain spotted fever

287
Q

early macular rash to late petechial rash

A

RMSF

288
Q

severe complications of RMSF occur most frequently in infections

A

without rash

289
Q

giemsa gimenez

A

RMSF

290
Q

agglutination of pts serum with proteus vulgaris Ag

A

RMSF

291
Q

IFA specific sensitivity

A

RMS

292
Q

Weil Felix serology

A

RMSF R prozekki

293
Q

rickettsialpox caused by

A

rickettsia akari

294
Q

northeast US cities

A

rickettsia akari

295
Q

ricketssia akari vector is

A

mouse mite

296
Q

profuse sweating/ flu like illness photophobia, generalized papulovesicular rash

A

ricketsialpox

297
Q

how is epidemic typhus transmitted

A

human body louse

298
Q

reservoirs for Epidemic typhs

A

flying squirrels and their fleas

299
Q

maculopapular rash on trunk and spreads to extremities

A

epidemic typhus

300
Q

asscoiated with BrillZinsser disease

A

epidemic typhus

301
Q

causes peidemic typhus

A

R prowazekki

302
Q

endemic murine typhus caused by

A

r typhi

303
Q

r typhi tramsitted by

A

rat flea

304
Q

what causes scrub typhus

A

orientia tsutsugamushi

305
Q

how is orienta tsugamushi tramsitted

A

chiggers (mite larvae)

306
Q

_________is an obligate intracytoplasmic bacteria

A

ehrlichia species

307
Q

ehrlichiosis infects

A

monocytes and granulocytes

308
Q

human monocytic ehrlichiosis caused by

A

E chaffeesis

309
Q

human granulocytic ehrlichosis caused by

A

e ewinggi

310
Q

human granulocytic anaplasmosos caused by

A

anaplasma phagocytophilm

311
Q

what bacteira in the richestiaea family associated with lyme infection

A

anaplasma phagocytophilum

312
Q

what is a morula

A

inclusion body contianing organisms

313
Q

morula associated with

A

anaplasia erlychia

314
Q

wright stained blood smears

A

ehrlichiosis

315
Q

Q fever is caused by

A

coxiella burnetti

316
Q

gram stain of coxiella burnetti

A

small gram neg

317
Q

where does coxiella burnetti live

A

acidic lysosomes

318
Q

acute Q fever

A

ab against phase II antigen only

319
Q

chronic q fever

A

high ab titers against phase 1 and II antigens

320
Q

subacute endocarditis with negative cultures

A

chronic Q fever

321
Q

toxic metabolites of fungi cause

A

mycotoxicoses

322
Q

fungal diseases are called

A

mycoses

323
Q

how are fungal diseases classified

A

by site on body where they occur

324
Q

live on dead or decaying matter

A

saprobes

325
Q

mutual advantage with host

A

symbioints

326
Q

fungi benefit host does not benefit but is not harmed

A

commensal

327
Q

fungi benefit host is harmed

A

parasite

328
Q

fungi are classified as

A

eukaryotes

329
Q

the cell wall of fungi are composed of

A

chitin (polymer of NAG)

330
Q

cell membrane of fungi contains

A

ergosterol

331
Q

yeast are

A

unicellualr which reproduc by budding or fission

332
Q

mold

A

multicellular filaments consist of hypahe

333
Q

______is always a yeast

A

cryptococcus neoformans

334
Q

_______is always a mold

A

aspergillus species

335
Q

type of colonies on agar for yeast

A

round mucoid colonies

336
Q

2 shape characterisitss of yeast

A

pseudo hypae

round mcoid colonies

337
Q

2 shape characteristicss of mold

A

septate/ aseptate, hypae

338
Q

filamentos hairy colonies on agar

A

mold

339
Q

grown on or beneath the agar surface

A

vegetative hypae

340
Q

project above the agar surface

A

aerial hyphae

341
Q

whats the phrase for fungal dimorphism

A

yeast in the beast, mold in the cold

342
Q

sabouraud dextrose agar

A

fungi

343
Q

tinea versicolor caused by

A

malazzezia furfur (lipophilic yeasrt)

344
Q

oval scaly macules, papules

A

pityriasis tinea versicolor

345
Q

tinea capitis

A

head scalp

346
Q

tinea barbae

A

beard

347
Q

tinea corporis

A

mooth skin (hairless trunk)

348
Q

tinea cruris

A

groin

349
Q

tinea pedis

A

foot

350
Q

tinea unguium

A

nails

351
Q

floureces under UV light (wood lamp)

A

tinea captis

352
Q

protozoa are

A

single celled

353
Q

metazoa

A

are multicellular

354
Q

how do protozoa reproduce

A

binary fission

355
Q

flagellate protozoa

A

trichomonas aginalis, giardia lambila

356
Q

amoeba

A

enatamoeba

357
Q

plasmodia

A

causes malaria

358
Q

helmiths

A

metaxoa worms

359
Q

nematodes

A

intestinal roundworms

360
Q

causes pin worm

A

enterobius vermicularis

361
Q

causes whip worm

A

trichuris trichiura

362
Q

flat leaf shaped worms

A

flukes

363
Q

claims or snails

A

flukes

364
Q

operculated egs

A

flukes

365
Q

lung fluke

A

paragonimus westermani

366
Q

cestodes

A

tapeworms

367
Q

scolex

A

cestodes

368
Q

pork tapework

A

taenia solium

369
Q

taenia saginata

A

beef tapeworm

370
Q

diphyllobothrium latum

A

fish tapeworkm

Immunology/Microbiology (10 decks)

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