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Immunology/Microbiology > Antibiotics TBL Quiz > Flashcards

Antibiotics TBL Quiz Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

MOA of penicillins

A

disruption of cell wall synthesis by binding PBPs and enzymes responsible for peptidoglycan synthesis

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2
Q

cephalosporin and cephamycins MOA

A

disruption of cell wall synthesis by binding PBPs and enzymes responsible for peptidoglycan synthesis

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3
Q

MOA of carbapenems

A

disruption of cell wall synthesis by binding PBPs and enzymes responsible for peptidoglycan synthesis

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4
Q

MOA of monobactams

A

bind PBPs and enzymes responsible for peptidoglycan synthesis

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5
Q

MOA of beta lactams

A

disruption of cell wall by beta lactamases and prevents the enzymatic inactivation of beta lactam

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6
Q

MOA of vancomycin

A

disruption of cell wall via inhibiting cross linkage of peptidoglycan layers

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7
Q

daptomycin MOA

A

causes depolarization of cytoplasmid membrane resulting in disruption of ion concentration gradients

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8
Q

bacitracin MOA

A

inhibits bacterial cytoplasmic membrane and movement of peptidolycan precursos

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9
Q

polymixins MOA

A

inhibits bacterial membrane synthesis

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10
Q

isoniazid MOA

A

inhibits mycolic aicd synthesis

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11
Q

ethionamide MOA

A

inhibits mycolic acid synthesis

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12
Q

ethambutol MOA

A

inhibits arabinogalactan synthesis

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13
Q

cycloserine MOA

A

inhibits cross linkage of peptidoglycan layers

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14
Q

what are the beta lactam antibiotics

A

penicillins, cephalosporins, cephamycins, carbapenems monobactams and beta lactamase inhibitors

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15
Q

Resistance mechanisms of beta lactam antibiotics

A

prevention of interaction between antibiotic and the target PBP
modification of the binding of the antibiotic to the PBP
hydrolysis of the antibiotic by bacterial enzymes (beta lactamases)

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16
Q

MOA of aminoglycosides

A

produces premature release of peptide chain from 30S ribosome

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17
Q

MOA of tetracyclines

A

prevents polypeptide elongation at the 30S ribosome

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18
Q

glycyclines MOA

A

binds the 30S ribosome and prevents initiation of protein synthesis

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19
Q

oxazolidonone MOA

A

prevents initiation of protein synthesis at the 50S riboosome

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20
Q

Macrolides MOA

A

prevent polypeptide elongation at the 50S ribosome

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21
Q

ketolides MOA

A

prevents polypeptide elongation at the 50S ribosome

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22
Q

clindamycin MOA

A

prevents polypeptide elongation at the 50S ribosome

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23
Q

streptogramins MOA

A

prevents polypeptide elongation at the 50S ribosome

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24
Q

quinolones MOA

A

binds with the alpha subunit of DNA gyrase

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25
Q

MAO of rifampin and rifabutin

A

prevents transcription by byinding DNA dependent RNA polymerase

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26
Q

_______disrupts bacterial DNA

A

metronidazole

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27
Q

______-inhibits dihydropteroate synthase and disurpts folic acid synthesis

A

sulfonamides, dapsone and trimethoprim

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28
Q

the carbapenems include

A

imipenem, meropenem, ertapenem, and doripenem

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29
Q

monobactans include

A

aztreonam

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30
Q

monobactams are active against

A

aerobic, gram negative bacteria

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31
Q

______and _____are resistant to monobactans

A

anaerobes and gram positive bacteria

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32
Q

_____interacts with teh D alanine D alanine termini of the pentapeptide side chains

A

vancymycin

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33
Q

vancomycin is inactive against

A

gram neg.

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34
Q

_______has potent activity against gram positive bacteria but gram neg are resistant and disrupts the ionic gradients of the bacteria

A

daptomycin

35
Q

_________is used for treatment of skin infections caused by gram positive bacteria

A

bacitracin

36
Q

____________inhibits with dephosphorylation and the recycling of the lipid carrier responsible for moving the peptidoglycan precuorses through the cytoplasmic membrane

A

bacitrcin

37
Q

_______insert into the bacterial membranes like detergents

A

polymyxins

38
Q

___________, __________, _______- and _______are cell wall active antibiotics used for the treatment of mycobacterial infections

A

isoniazid, ethionamide, ethambutol and cycloserine

39
Q

__________interferes with the synthesis of arabinogalactan in the cell wall

A

ethambutol

40
Q

_______-inhibits D ala D ala synthetase and alanine racemase

A

cycloserine

41
Q

resistance to isoniaxid, ethionamide, ethambutol and cycloserine results mainly from

A

reduced drug uptake into the bacterial cell or alteration of the target sites `

42
Q

what are the two effects of binding to the 30 S ribosomal protein

A

production of aberrant proteins and interruption of protein synthesis causing the premature release of the ribosome from mRNA

43
Q

_________is also known as spectinomycin and is active against what

A

aminocyclitol, Neisseria gonorrhoae

44
Q

_________are used to treat infections with gram-negative rods

A

aminoglycosides

45
Q

__________is the most active aminoglycoside

A

amikacin

46
Q

_______and _________are used to treat enterococcal infections

A

streptomycin and gentamicin combined with cell wall active antibiotic

47
Q

what type of aminoglycoside is active versus mycobacteria and selected gram neg rods

A

streptomycin

48
Q

_____are broad spectrum antibiotics against gram pos bacteria and some gram negative , mycoplasmas, chlamydia, and richettsiae

A

tetracyclines (tetracycline, doxycycline, and minocycline)

49
Q

aminoglycosides include

A

streptomycin, kanamycin, gentamycin, tobramycin and amikacin)

50
Q

__________are more active against gram negative bacteria and rapidly growing mycobacteria

A

glycylcyclines (tigecycline)

51
Q

_____________are active against staphylococcus, enterococcus, streptococcus, gram positive rods, and clostridium and anaerobic cocci; not active against gram neg bacteria

A

oxazolidinone

52
Q

linezolid is an example of

A

oxazolidone

53
Q

_______are broad spectrum antibiotics active against gram positive and some gram negative bacteria

A

macrolides (erthrymycin, azithromycin, clarithrymycin and roxithrymycin)

54
Q

_________are broad spectrum antibiotic similar to macrolides that are active against macrolide resistant staphylcocci and enterococci

A

ketolides (telithromycin)

55
Q

________are broad spectrum against aerobic gram positive cocci and anaerobes

A

lincoasmide (clindamycin)

56
Q

__________-are active against gram positive bacteria, good activity against methicillin-susceptible and resistant staphylococci, streptoccci, vancomycin susceptible and resistant E. faecium, haemophilus, moraxella and anaerobes not active against enterobacteriacae or gram neg rods

A

streptogramins (quinopristin-dalfopristin)

57
Q

aminoglycosides are considered

A

bactericidal

58
Q

___are considered to be resistant to

A

aminolycosides

59
Q

_________is considered to best for treatment of systemic infections caused by susceptible gram neg. bacteria that are resistant gentamicin and tobramycin

A

amikacin

60
Q

what are the four ways resistance can develop for aminoglycosides

A

mutation of ribosomal binding site
decreased uptake of antibiotic
increased expulsion of antibiotic
enzymatic modification of the antibiotic

61
Q

most common cause of tetracycline resistance is

A

active efflux of tetracyclines from the cell

62
Q

what species are generally resistant to tigecycline

A

proteus
morganella
providencia
p aeruginosa

63
Q

______blocks initiation of protein synthesis by interfering with formation of the initiation complex consisting of tRNA, mRNA and ribosome by binding to 50S ribosomal subunit

A

linezolid (oxazolidones)

64
Q

_____has activity against ALL staph, strep, and enterococci

A

linezolid

65
Q

___________has a broad antibacterial spectrum similar to that of tetracycline but is not commonly used in the US because it disrupts protein synthesis in human bone marrow and can produce blood dyscrasias such as aplastic anema

A

chloraamphenicol

66
Q

____________bind to the 23 and 50S ribosomal subunit which blocks polypeptide elongation

A

macrolides

67
Q

resistance to macrolides is from

A

methylation of the 23s rRNA, inactivation of the macrolides by enzymes or mutations in 23s rRNA ribosomal proteins

68
Q

what type of bacteria are commonly resistant to macrolides

A

gram neg bacteria

69
Q

examples of macrolides

A

erythromycin
azithromycin
clarithrymycin
roxithrymycin

70
Q

what is the name of the ketolide that is currently available in the US

A

telithromycin

71
Q

_________binds to 50s ribosomal subunit and blocks protein synthesis

A

telithromycin

72
Q

_________is a ketolide that has good resistance against staphylococci, s pneumoniae and other respiratory pathogens, gram pos rods and some anaerobes

A

telithrymycin

73
Q

________-inhibits peptidyl transferse by interfering with the binding of amino acid acyl tRNA complex

A

clindamycin

74
Q

_______binds to DNA dependent RNA polymerase and inhibits the initiation of RNA synthesis

A

rifampin

75
Q

rifampin resistance results from

A

mutation in chromosomal gene that codes for the beta subunit of RNA polymerase

76
Q

Rifabutin binds

A

DNA dependent RNA polymerase

77
Q

produces cytotoxic compounds that disrupts the host DNA

A

metronidazole

78
Q

_________compete with p aminobenzoic acid and prevent synthesis of folic acid

A

sulfonamides

79
Q

_____-inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

A

trimethoprim

80
Q

________ and ____________are antifolates that have proved to be useful for treating mycobacterial infections

A

dapsone and p-aminosalicylic acid

81
Q

bacteria that use exogenous thymidine are

A

intrisically resistant to antimetabolites

82
Q

__________is a lipophilic antibiotic that binds mycobacterial DNA

A

clofaziimine

83
Q

___________is active against M tuberculosis at a low pH and mechanism is unkown

A

PZA

Immunology/Microbiology (10 decks)

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