MICROBIOLOGY- BACTERIA Flashcards
(273 cards)
1
Q
What is unusual about Mycoplasma bacteria?
A
Does NOT contain a cell wall i.e. does NOT Gram stain
- Contains cholesterol
2
Q
What is unusual about Mycobacteria?
A
Contains MYCOLIC ACID
3
Q
What culture media is used for the isolation of H. influenza?
A
Chocolate agar with factors V and X
4
Q
What culture media is used for the isolation of N. gonorrhea and N. meningititis?
A
Thayer-Martin
5
Q
What culture media is used for the isolation of B. pertussis?
A
Bordet-Gengou
6
Q
What culture media is used for the isolation of C. diptheria?
A
Tellurite agar
7
Q
What culture media is used for the isolation of M. tuberculosis?
A
Lowenstein-Jensen agar
8
Q
What culture media is used for the isolation of M. pneumonia?
A
Eaton agar
9
Q
What culture media is used for the isolation of Lactose-fermentering enterics?
A
MacConkey= pink colonies
10
Q
How does E. coli appear when grown of eosin-methylene blue agar (EMB)?
A
Green metallic
11
Q
What culture media is used for the isolation of Legionella?
A
Charcoal yeast extract buffered w/ cysteine and iron
12
Q
What bacteria expressed Protein A? What is the function?
A
S. aureus
- Prevent opsonization and phagocytosis
13
Q
What bacteria secrete IgA protease? What is the function?
A
SHiN= S. pneumonia, H. influenza, Neisseria
- Cleaves IgA to colonize respiratory mucosa
14
Q
What bacteria contains M protein? What is the function?
A
Group A Streptococci (S. pyogenes)
- Prevent phagocytosis
15
Q
What is “Endotoxin?” What bacteria is this virulence factor associated with?
A
LPS –associated with the Gram negatives
16
Q
What is Exotoxin?
A
This is a polypeptide toxin that is SECRETED from various Gram positive and negative bacteria
17
Q
What bacteria contain an exotoxin that inhibits protein synthesis?
A
1) Corynebacterium diptheria
2) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
3) Shigella
4) EHEC (O157:H7)
18
Q
What is the MOA of the Corynebacterium diptheria toxin?
A
Inactivation of EF-2
19
Q
What is the manifestation of the Diptheria toxin?
A
- Pharyngitis with pseudomembranes
- “Bull neck” lymphadenopathy
20
Q
What exotoxin is associated with Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A
Exotoxin A
21
Q
What is the MOA of Exotoxin A?
A
Inactivation of EF-2
22
Q
What is the manifestation of Exotoxin A?
A
Host cell death
23
Q
What toxin is associated with Shigella?
A
Shiga Toxin (ST)
24
Q
What is the MOA of the Shigella Toxin?
A
Inactivation of 60S ribosome by removing adenine from rRNA
25
What is the manifestation of the Shiga Toxin?
- GI mucosal damage--> dysentery (bloody diarrhea)
| - HUS
26
What toxin is associated with E. coli O157:H7?
Shiga-like Toxin (SLT)
27
What is the MOA of the STL toxin in E. coli O157:H7?
Inactivation of the 60S ribosome by removing adenine from rRNA
28
How does EHEC differ from Shigella?
Does NOT invade host cells but does cause HUS
29
What kind of diarrhea is seen with E. coli O157:H7?
Bloody
30
What bacterial exotoxins will increase fluid secretion?
1) ETEC
2) Bacillus anthracis
3) Vibrio cholerae
31
What toxins are associated with ETEC?
Enterotoxigenic E. Coli=
1) Heat-labile toxin (LT)
2) Heat-stable toxin (ST)
32
What is the MOA of ETEC's LT?
Heat-Labile Toxin:
- Activates cAMP
- cAMP increases Cl- secretion
- H20 efflux
*Think watery diarrhea is Labile in the Air (cAMP), and Stable on the Group (cGMP)*
33
What is the MOA of ETEC's ST?
Heat-Stabile Toxin:
- Activates cGMP
- cGMP decreases resorption of NaCl
- Increased H20 in gut
*Think watery diarrhea is Labile in the Air (cAMP), and Stable on the Group (cGMP)*
34
What toxin is associated with Bacillus anthracis that will increased fluid secretion? What clinical manifestation does this toxin cause?
Edema factor
*Causes the edematous borders of black eschars in Anthrax*
35
What is the MOA of edema factor (Bacillus anthracis)?
Mimics adenylate cyclase to increase cAMP
36
What toxin is associated with Vibrio cholerae?
Cholera Toxin
37
What is the MOA of the Cholera Toxin?
- Activation of cAMP via Gs activation
- Cl- secretion into the gut
- H20 follows
38
What is the manifestation of the Cholera Toxin?
Rice-water stool associated with Vibrio Cholera or Cholera
39
What bacteria has an exotoxin that inhibits phagocytosis?
Bordetella pertussis
40
What is the MOA of the pertussis toxin?
- Overactivation of adenylate cyclase via disabling Gi
| - Increased cAMP
41
What is the clinical manifestation of the pertussis toxin?
Whooping cough
42
What bacterial have exotoxins that inhibit neurotransmitter release?
Clostridium tetani
| Clostridium botulinum
43
What toxin is associated with C. tetnai?
Tetanospasmin
44
What is the MOA of Tetanospasmin?
- Tetanospasmin is a protease that cleaves SNARE proteins
- Prevents the release of inhibitory NT (GABA and Glycine)
*Specifically, this action occurs in RENSHAW cells of the spinal cord*
45
What is the clinical manifestation of the Tetanospasmin toxin?
- Spasticity
- Risus sardonicus
- Lock-jaw
46
What is the MOA of Botulinum toxin?
Protease that cleaves SNARE proteins
| - Prevents the release of ACh
47
What are the clinical manifestations of the Botulinum toxin?
- Flaccid paralysis
| - Floppy baby
48
What bacteria contain toxins that lyse cell membranes?
1) Clostridium perfringens
| 2) Streptococcus pyogens
49
What toxin is associated with Clostridium perfringens?
Alpha toxin
50
What is the MOA of Alpha Toxin?
This is a phospholipase or "lecithinase" that degrades the cell membrane
51
What are the clinical manifestations of the Alpha Toxin?
- Myonecrosis b/c of phospholipid degradation that causes "gas gangrene"
- Hemolysis
52
What toxin is associated with Streptococcus pyogenes?
Streptolysin O
53
What is the MOA of Streptolysin O?
This is a protein that degrades cell membranes
54
What is the clinical manifestation of Streptolysin O?
RBC lysis
55
How are antibodies to Streptolysin O measured?
ASO (Streptolysin O antibody) titer
56
What is the clinical utility of an ASO titer?
Diagnosis of Rheumatic Fever (S. pyogenes)
57
What superantigens cause shock?
1) S. aureus -- TSST-1
| 2) S. pyogenes -- Exotoxin A
58
What is the MOA of superantigens causing shock?
TSST-1 and Exotoxin A
- Bring MHC II and TCR in proximity-->antigen binding
- IFN-gamma and IL-2 are released
*Shock ensues*
59
Draw the Gram-positive lab algorithm.
p. 129
60
How do alpha-hemolytic bacteria appear on blood agar?
Green rings
61
How do beta-hemolytic bacteria appear on blood agar?
Clear rings
62
What inflammatory diseases are caused by S. aureus?
1) Skin infections
2) Organ abscesses
3) Pneumonia
4) Endocarditis
5) Osteomyelitis
63
What toxin mediated diseases are caused by S. aureus? What toxin are these diseases associated with?
1) Toxic Shock Syndrome--> TSST-1
2) Scalded Skin Syndrome--> "Exfoliative toxin"
3) Food poisoning--> "Enterotoxin"
64
What causes MRSA?
Resistance to Methicillin (Beta-Lactam) b/c of ALTERED PBP
65
What behavior is associated with S. aureus mediated Toxic Shock Syndrome?
Retained tampon
66
Where is S. epidermidis normally found?
- Normal flora of the skin
| - Frequently contaminates blood cultures
67
What infections are associated with S. epidermidis?
- Prosthetic devices
| - IV catheters
68
What is S. saprophyticus infection associated with?
This is the 2nd most common cause of UTI (E. coli is first)
69
What is the mnemonic to remember the infections caused by S. pneumonia?
MOPS
```
M= Meningitis
O= Otitis media
P= Pneumonia
S= Sinusitis
```
70
What color sputum is pathognomonic for S. pneumonia induced pneumonia?
Rust colored
71
Describe the shape of S. pneumonia.
Lancet-shaped diplococci
72
Where are viridans streptococci normally found in the body?
Part of the normal flora of the mouth
73
What species of viridans streptococci is associated with dental carries?
Streptococcus mutans
74
What species of viridans streptococci is associated with subacute bacterial endocarditis?
Streptococcus sanguinis
75
What are the three categories of disease caused by Streptococcus pyogenes?
1) Pyogenic= pus-producing
2) Toxigenic
3) Immunologic
76
What are the pyogenic diseases caused by S. pyogenes?
1) Pharyngitis
2) Cellulitis
3) Impetigo
77
What are the toxigenic diseases caused by S. pyogenes?
1) Scarlet fever
2) Toxic shock-like syndrome
3) Necrotizing fasciitis
78
What are the immunologic diseases caused by S. pyogenes?
1) Rheumatic fever
| 2) Acute glomerulonephritis
79
What is the mnemonic to remember the features of Rheumatic Fever?
JONES
```
J= Joints, polyarthritis
O= Heart, carditis
N= Nodules (subcutaneous)
E= Erythema miarginatum (pink rings on the chest)
S= Syndenham chorea (rapid purposeless movements of the face, feet, and hands)
```
80
What are the clinical features of scarlet fever?
1) Scarlet rash with sandpaper-like texture
2) Strawberry tongue
3) Circumolar pallor
81
What is an alternate name for Streptococcus agalacticae?
Group B Strep
82
What is the first thing that should come to mind when you hear Group B Strep (GBS)?
Group B is for babies
83
What diseases are caused by GBS?
1) Pneumonia
2) Meningitis
3) Sepsis
84
What is the screening protocol for GBS?
Screen pregnant women at 35-37 weeks
85
What is protocol for GBS positive pregnant women?
Intrapartum PCN prophylaxis
86
What is an alternate name for the Group D Strep?
Enterococci and Streptococcus bovis (both fall under the GDS heading)
87
What infections are caused by GDS or Enterococci?
1) UTI
2) Biliary tract infection
3) Subacute endocarditis following GI/GU procedures
88
What infections are caused by S. bovis?
1) Bacteremia
| 2) Subacute endocarditis in colon cancer patients
89
What organism causes Diptheria?
Corynebacterium diptheriae
90
What are the symptoms to diptheria?
- Pseudomembranous pharyngitis
- Lymphadenopathy
- Myocarditis
- Arrhythmia
91
How is Diptheria diagnosed?
1) Gram positive rods with metachromatic granules
| 2) Elek test for toxin
92
What lab test detects the presence of the diptheria toxin?
Elek
93
What type of vaccine is given to prevent diptheria?
Toxoid
94
What causes Botulinum in adults?
Ingestion of preformed toxin
95
What causes Botulinum in kids?
Ingestion of spores--often in honey
*Causes "Floppy Baby Syndrome"
96
What toxins are produced by Clostridium difficile?
Toxin A
| Toxin B
97
What is the MOA of the C. diff toxins?
Toxin A= enterotoxin, binds the brush border of the gut
Toxin B= cytotoxin, causes cytoskeletal disruption via actin depolymerization
98
How is C. diff diagnosed?
Detection of either Toxin A or B in the stool
99
What is unique about the composition of Bacillus anthracis?
Only bacterium with a polypeptide capsule
*Specifically, D-glutamate capsule
100
Describe the presentation of cutaneous anthrax.
Boil-like lesion that progresses to a black eschar
101
Describe the presentation of pulmonary anthrax.
Flu-like symptoms that rapidly progress to:
- Fever
- PULMONARY HEMORRHAGE
- Mediastinitis (inflammation of mid-chest structures)
- Shock
102
What is a colloquial term for pulmonary anthrax?
"Woolsorter's Disease" --historically caused by inhalation of spores from contaminated wool
103
What does Bacillus cereus cause?
"Reheated rice syndrome"
| - Food poisoning associated with bacteria that grow in warm rice
104
What are the two timeframes of disease presentation with Bacillus cereus infection?
1) Emetic-type= 1-5 hours post ingestion
| 2) Diarrheal= 8-18 hours post ingestion
105
How is Listeria monocytogenes commonly acquired?
- Ingestion of unpasteurized dairy products and deli meats
- Transplacental
- Transvaginal
106
What is the unique mechanism of pathogenesis associated with L. monocytogenes?
Actin rockets that allow for transmission from cell to cell while avoiding antibodies
107
What is unique about the composition of L. monocytogenes?
Only gram positive bacteria with LPS
108
What type of infection is seen with L. monocytogenes in a healthy adult?
Mild gastroenteritis
109
What can L. monocytogenes infection cause in a pregnant woman?
1) Amnionitis
2) Sepsis
3) Spontaneous abortion
110
What can L. monocytogenes cause in neonates?
1) Neonatal meningitis
| 2) Granulomatosis infantiseptica--pus-filled granuloma formation distributed throughout the whole body of the newborn
111
What infections are caused by Actinomyces?
Oral and facial abscess that drain through sinus tracts
112
How is the appearance of Actinomyces described?
Yellow sulfur granules
113
What infections are caused by Nocordia?
Immunocompromised= pulmonary infection
Immunocompetent= cutaneous infections post trauma
114
How are actinomycyes infections treated?
PCN
115
How are Nocordia infections treated?
Sulfonamides
116
What bacteria causes TB?
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
117
How is TB transmitted?
Inhalation of aerosolized TB
118
What is Primary TB?
This is the infection that a patient gets when they are FIRST exposed to TB
119
Describe the clinical manifestations of Primary TB.
- Focal caseating necrosis of the lower lung lobe
- AND focal caseating necrosis of the hilar lymph nodes
Hilar= mediastinal lymph nodes
120
What is a Ghon complex?
In Primary TB, necrotic areas in the lower lung lobe and hilar lymph nodes undergo:
- Fibrosis
- Calcification
*These fibrotic and calcified nodules are called Ghon complexes*
121
What symptoms are seen with Primary TB?
Primary TB is typically ASYMPTOMATIC, but it does lead to a POSITIVE PPD
122
What is Secondary TB?
This is when a Ghon complex is reactivated
123
What causes reactivation of TB?
1) AIDS
| 2) Aging
124
Where does reactivation of TB commonly occur?
Apex of the lung
| - Oxygen tension is highest here
125
What are the manifestations of the reactivation of TB?
1) Formation of cavitary foci of caseous necrosis
2) May cause miliary TB
3) May cause tuberculous bronchopneumonia
126
What are the symptoms associated with Secondary TB?
- Fever
- Night sweats
- Cough with hemoptysis
- Weight loss
127
What will biopsy reveal in Secondary TB?
Caseating granuloma
*Note, AFB stain will show red acid-fast bacilli, differentiating this from ASPERGILLUS
128
When a patient has secondary TB, what will often happen?
Systemic spread
129
Where will TB commonly go to with systemic spread?
1) Meninges
2) Cervical lymph nodes
3) Kidney
4) Lumbar vertebrae
130
What is the tell-tale sign of TB meningitis?
Caseating granulomas involving the meningies at the base of the skull
131
What is the result of systemic spread of TB to the kidney?
"Sterile pyuria"
132
What is the disease called when TB spreads to the lumbar vertebrae?
Pott's Disease
133
What is the presentation of M. kansaii infection?
Pulmonary TB-like symptoms
134
What kind of infection is seen with M. avium-intracellulare in AIDS patients?
Disseminated disease
135
How is M. avium intracellulare treated prophylactically?
Azithromycin
136
What is the reservoir for M. leprae in the US?
Armadillos
137
What are the two forms of Hansen Disease?
This is the disease caused by M. leprae:
1) Lepromatous
2) Tuberculoid
138
What are the distinguishing features of Lepromatous Hansen's Disease?
- Leonine facies
- Low cell mediated immunity
- Th2 response
139
What are the distinguishing features of Tuberculoid Hansen's Disease?
- Limited to hypopigmented and hairless skin plaques
- Robust cell mediated immunity
- Th1 response
140
What is the treatment for Lepromatous Disease?
1) Dapsone
2) Clofazimine
3) Rifampin
*For 2-5 years*
141
What is the treatment for Tuberculoid Disease?
1) Dapsone
2) Rifampin
*For 6 months*
142
Draw the gram negative lab algorithm.
p. 136
143
From a treatment perspective, what is unique about Gram negative bacteria?
Outer membrane inhibits the entry of:
- PCN G
- Vancomycin
144
What is the difference between N. meningitidis and N. gonorrhea in terms of fermented sugars?
- N. MeninGitidis ferments both maltose and glucose
| - N. Gonorrheae only ferments glucose
145
What is the difference between N. meningitidis and N. gonorrhea in terms a capsule?
- N. meningitidis has a polysaccharide capsule
| - N. gonorrheae does NOT have a capsule
146
What is the difference between N. meningitidis and N. gonorrhea in terms of vaccination?
- N. meningitidis= vaccine
| - N. gonorrheae= no vaccine
147
What diseases are caused by N. meningitidis?
1) Meningitis
| 2) Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome
148
What diseases are caused by N. gonorrheae?
1) Gonorrhea
2) Septic arthritis
3) Neonatal conjunctivitis
4) PID
5) Fitz Hugh Curtis Syndrome
149
What is the treatment for N. meningitidis?
Cetfriaxone or PCN G
150
What is the treatment for N. gonorrhaea?
Ceftriaxone + (azithromycin or doxycycline) for possible chlamydia infection
151
What is H. influenza transmitted?
Aerosol
152
What type of H. influenza causes the most invasive disease?
HiB i.e. H. influenza type B
153
What is the mnemonic to remember the diseases caused by H. influenza?
HaEMOPhilus
```
E= Epiglottitis
M= Meningitis
O= Otitis Media
P= Pneumonia
```
154
How are mucosal H. influenza infections treated?
Amoxacillin +/- clavulanate i.e. augmentin
155
How is H. influenza meningitis treated?
Ceftriaxone
156
What medication is used as prophylaxis for close contacts of individuals with H. influenza meningitis?
Rifampin
157
What is contained in the H. influenza vaccine?
Type B capsular polysaccharide conjugated to diptheria toxin
*Note that a child can still get an H. influenza disease s/p vaccination but it will be from a non-B strain*
158
How is Legionella pneumophila detected clinically?
Detection of the antigen in urine
159
How is Legionella penumophila transmitted?
Aerosol transmission from aqueous habitat
160
What two diseases are cased by Legionella pneumophila?
1) Legionnaires Disease
| 2) Pontiac fever
161
What is the difference between Legionnaires Disease and Pontiac Fever?
Legionnnaires= Sever pneumonia with GI and CNS symptoms
Pontiac Fever= mild-flu
162
What type of odor is associated with Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
Grape-like
163
What is the mnemonic to remember the diseases caused by P. aeruginosa?
PSEUDOmonas
```
P= Pneumona (esp. in CF)
S= Sepsis
E= External otitis
U= UTI
DO= Drug use and DM osteomyelitis
```
164
What skin infection is caused by P. aeruginosa?
Hot-tub folliculitis
*Also, think burn victims*
165
What is Ecthyma Gangrenosum?
- Rapidly progressive necrotic ulcer
- Seen in immunocompromised
- Caused by P. aeruginosa
166
How is P. aeruginosa infection treated?
Aminoglycoside + extended spectrum PCN
167
What infections are associated with the fimbriae of E. coli?
Cystitis and pyelonephritis
168
What infections are associated with the K capulse of E. coli?
Pneumonia and neonatal meningitis
169
What is associated with LPS endotoxin of E. coli?
Sepsis
170
How does EIEC present?
EnteroInvasive= dysentery
171
How does ETEC present?
EnteroToxigenic= Traveler's diarrhea
172
How does EPEC present?
Diarrhea usually in children i.e. Pediatrics
173
How does EHEC present?
Dysentery and HUS
174
How is EHEC differentiated from the other E.coli species?
Does NOT ferment sorbitol
175
Where is Klebsiella normally found?
Gut normal flora
176
How can you remember the diseases caused by Klebsiella?
Four A's
- Aspiration pneumonia
- Abscess in the lungs or liver
*Associated with Alcoholics and Di-A-betics
177
What is the pathognomonic feature of Klebsiella pneumonia?
Currant jelly sputum
178
Salmonella vs. Shigella: which is flagellated?
Salmonella
179
Salmonella vs. Shigella: undergoes cell-to-cell transmission.
Shigella
| Salmonella undergoes hematogenous spread
180
Salmonella vs. Shigella: only reservoir is humans and primates?
Shigella
| Salmonella has many animal reservoirs
181
Salmonella vs. Shigella: produces H2S.
Salmonella
182
Salmonella vs. Shigella: antibiotics are recommended?
Shigella
183
Salmonella vs. Shigella: invades intestinal mucosa and causes a monocytic response?
Salmonella
184
Salmonella vs. Shigella: invades intestinal mucosa and causes a PMN response?
Shigella
185
Salmonella vs. Shigella: often causes bloody diarrhea.
Shigella
186
What disease is caused by Salmonella typhi?
Typhoid fever
187
What are the symptoms of Typhoid Fever?
- Fever
- Headache
- Rose-spots on the abdomen
- Diarrhea
188
Where in the body can Salmonella typhi remain to cause a carrier state?
Gallbladder
189
How is C. jejuni transmitted?
Fecal-oral through foods including:
- Poultry
- Meat
- Unpasteurized milk
190
How does C. jejuni present?
Bloody diarrhea, esp. in kids
191
What temperature does C. jejuni grow in?
42 C
192
What are unique sequelae of C. jejuni infection?
- Gullian-Barre Syndrome
| - Reactive arthritis
193
What type of diarrhea is associated with Vibrio cholera?
Rice-water
194
How is Yersinia enterocoliticia transmitted?
- Pet feces
| - Contaminated milk or pork
195
How can Y. enterocolitica present?
Mesenteric adenitis that mimics Crohn's Disease or appendicitis
196
What is triple therapy for H. pylori?
1) PPI
2) Clarithromycin
3) Amoxicillin or metronidazole
197
What is the mnemonic to remember the three spirochetes?
BLT
```
B= Borrelia
L= Leptospira
T= Treponema
```
198
How is Treponema visualized in the lab?
Dark-field microscopy
199
Where is Leptospira interrrogans found?
Water contaminated with animal urine
200
What are the symptoms of Leptospirosis?
- Flu-like sx.
- Jaundice
- Photophobia
201
Where is Leptospirosis seen in the US?
Surfers in HI
202
What is Weil Disease?
Severe "incterohemorrhagic leptospirosis"
- Severe jaundice
- Azotemia (high level of nitrogen containing compounds)
- Hemorrhage
- Anemia
203
What is the vector for Borrelia burgdorferi?
Ixodes tick
*Same vector for Babesia*
204
What is the natural reservoir for Borrelia burgdorferi?
Mouse
205
What is the mnemonic to remember the symptoms of Lyme Disease?
FAKE a Key Lyme pie
```
F= Facial nerve palsy
A= Arthritis
K= Kardiac Block
E= Erythema migrans--bull's eye rash
```
206
How is Lyme Disease treated?
1) Doxycycline
| 2) Cetfriaxone
207
What causes Syphilis?
Treponema Pallidum
208
How is Syphilis treated?
PCN G
209
How does primary syphilis present?
Painless chancre
210
How is primary Syphilis diagnosed?
Serologic testing:
| - VDRL/RPR
211
What is secondary Syphilis?
Disseminated Syphilis
212
What are the sx. of secondary Syphilis?
1) Constitutional sx.
2) Maculopapular rash on palms and soles
3) Condylomata lata
213
What is tertiary Syphilis?
Spread of Syphilis to the heart and CNS causing:
1) Gummas
2) Aortitis
3) Neurosyphilis/ Argyll Robertson pupil
214
What are the signs of tertiary syphilis?
- Broad-based ataxia
- Positive Rhomberg
- Charcot joint
- Stroke without HTN
215
What are the signs of congenital syphilis?
- Saber shin
- Saddle nose
- CN VIII deafness
- Hutchinson teeth
- Mulberry molars
216
What is the mnemonic to remember what an Argyll Robertson pupil is?
Prostitute pupil i.e. accomodates but does not react
- Constricts with near-vision
- Does NOT react to light
217
What is the VRDL test used to detect Syphilis?
Detection of nonspecific antibody that reacts with cardiolipin
218
What is the mnemonic to remember the false positives seen with VDRL?
VDRL
```
V= viruses
D= drugs
R= rheumatic fever
L= lupus and leprosy
```
219
What disease is caused by Anaplasma?
Anaplasmosis
220
What is the vector for Anaplasma?
Ixodes tick
221
What disease is caused by Bartonella?
- Cat Scratch Disease
| - Bacillary angiomatosis
222
What disease is caused by Borrelia recurrentis?
Relapsing fever
223
What is the vector for Borelia recurrentis?
Louse
224
What disease is caused by Brucella?
Brucellosis/ undulant fever
225
What is Brucellosis associated with?
Unpasteurized dairy products
226
What disease is caused by Coxiella burnetii?
Q fever
227
What are the common sources for Coxiella burnetti?
- Aerosols of cattle
| - Sheep amniotic fluid
228
What disease is caused by Ehrlichia chaffeensis?
Ehrlichiosis
229
What is the vector for Ehrlichia chaffeensis?
Lone star tick
230
What disease is caused by Francisella tularensis?
Tularemia
231
What disease is caused by Pasteurella multocida?
Cellulitis and osteomyelitis
232
How is Pasteurella multocida transmitted?
Cat and dog bites (found on their salvia)
233
What disease is caused by Rickettsia prowazekii?
Epidemic typhus
234
What is the vector for Rickettsia prowazekii?
Louse
235
What disease is caused by Rickettsia rickettsii?
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
236
What is the vector for Rickettsia rickettsii?
Dermacentor ticks
237
What disease is caused by Rickettsia typhi?
Endemic typhus
238
What is the vector for Rickettsia typhi?
Fleas
239
What disease is caused by Gardnerella vaginalis?
Bacterial vaginosis
240
What type of discharge is seen with bacterial vaginosis?
Gray discharge with a fishy smell
241
On microscopy, what is pathognomonic for bacterial vaginosis?
Clue cells i.e. vaginal epithelial cells with Gardnerella bacteria
242
What is the treatment for Gardnerella vaginalis infection?
Metronidazole or Clindamycin
243
How are all the Rickettsial disease treated?
Doxycycline
244
Where is Rocky Mountain Spotter Fever commonly seen?
NOT in the Rockies; rather, South Atlantic states i.e. North Caroline
245
How is the rash seen in Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever described?
"Centripetal" or center seeking
- Starts on wrist and ankles
- Spreads to trunk palms and soles
246
What organism is responsible for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?
Rickettsia rickettsii
247
What type of rash is seen in Typhus?
"Centrifugal"
- Rash starts centrally and spreads out
- *Spares the palms and soles*
248
What is the mnemonic to remember the difference between Typhus and Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?
Rickettsii on the wRists, Typhus on the Trunk
249
What are the two types of Typhus?
Endemic and Epidemic
250
What is the difference between Endemic and Epidemic Typhus?
Endemic=
- Rickettsia typhi
- Fleas
Epidemic=
- Rickettsia prowazekii
251
What is Ehrlichiolsis?
Ehrlichiolsis is a vector borne disease that causes flu-like symptoms and a rare rash
252
What is the vector for Ehrlichiolsis?
Tick
253
How is Ehrlichiolsis diagnosed?
Monocytes with morula i.e. berry-like inclusions
254
How is Anaplasmosis diagnosed?
Granuylocytes with morulae in cytoplasm
255
What causes Q fever?
Coxiella brunetii
256
How is Q fever transmitted?
- Tick feces and cattle placenta that release spores
| - Spores are inhaled as aerosols
257
How does Q fever present?
Pneumonia
258
What is the mnemonic for Q fever?
Q fever is Queer b/c:
1) No rash
2) No vector
259
What are the two forms of Chlamydiae?
Elementary body= Enfectious/ Enters the cell and then transforms into:
Reticulate body= Replicates
260
What infections are caused by Chlamydiae trachomatis?
1) Nongonococcal urethritis
2) PID
3) Follicular conjunctivitis
4) Reactive arthritis
261
What diseases is caused by Chlamydiae pneumoniae and pisttaci?
Atypical pneumonia
262
How are Chlamydiae infections treated?
Azithromycin or Doxycycline
263
What is unique about the structure of the Chlamydiae species?
Lack muramic acid in cell wall
264
How is Chlamydiae diagnosed?
Cytoplasmic inclusions seen on Giemsa stain or flourescent antibody staining
265
What infection is predominantly caused by Chlamydiae trachomatic Types A, B, and C?
Chronic follicular conjunctivitis
266
What is the mnemonic to remember the important clinical features associated with Chlamydiae trachomatis Types A, B, and C?
ABC=
- Africa
- Blindness
- Chronic infection
267
What infections are predominantly caused by Chlamydiae trachomatic Types D-K?
- Urethritis/ PID
- Ectopic pregnancy
- Neonatal pneumonia
- Neonatal conjunctivitis
268
What infection is predominantly caused by Chlamydiae trachomatic Types L1, L2, and L3?
Lymphogranuloma venereum=
1) Painless ulcers on genitals that swell
2) Transition to painful inguinal LN that ulcerate (buboes)
269
How is Lymphgranuloma venereum treated?
Doxycycline
270
What is caused by Mycoplasma pneumonia?
Atypical "walking" pneumonia
271
What is Mycoplasma pneumonia associated with?
Military recruits and prisons
272
How is Mycoplasma pneumonia treated?
Macrolide, doxycycline or fluoroquinolone
273
What antibiotics should NOT be used to treat Mycoplasma pneumonia? Why?
PCNs b/c Mycoplasma has NO cell wall
