Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

First Aid 2014 > IMMUNOLOGY > Flashcards

IMMUNOLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three main regions of a lymph node?

A

1) Follicle
2) Medulla
3) Paracortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where is the follicle of a lymph node located?

A

In the outer cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What type of cell is house in the follicle of the lymph node?

A

B-cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the difference between a primary follicle and secondary follicle?

A

Primary= houses dormant B-cells that haven’t been stimulated by antigen

Secondary= same follicle that is now ramping up its B-cell production in response to antigenic stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where are medullary cords located in a lymph node?

A

In the medulla of the lymph node

*Note that the medulla contains: a) medullary cords, b) medullary sinuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What cells are located in the medullary cords?

A

Plasma cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What cells are located in the medullary sinus?

A

Macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where is the paracortex located in the lymph node?

A

Between the outer cortex (contains follicles) and the inner medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What cell type is housed in the paracortex of the lymph node?

A

T-cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are HEVs and where are they located?

A

HEV= High Endothelial Venules

- Located in paracortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the function of HEVs?

A

This is how B and T-cells from lymph nodes enter the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What region of the body is drained by the cervical lymph nodes?

A

Head and neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What region of the body is drained by the hilar lymph nodes?

A

Lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What region of the body is drained by the mediastinal lymph nodes?

A

Trachea and esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What region of the body is drained by the axillary lymph nodes?

A
  • Upper limbs
  • Breast
  • Skin above the umbilicus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What region of the body is drained by the celiac lymph nodes?

A

Remember FOREGUT derivatives*

  • Liver
  • Stomach
  • Spleen
  • Pancreas
  • Upper duodenum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What region of the body is drained by the superior mesenteric lymph nodes?

A

Remember MIDGUT derivatives*

  • Lower duodenum
  • jejunum
  • ileum
  • colon to splenic flexure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What region of the body is drained by the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes?

A

Remember HINDGUT derivatives*

- Colon from splenic flexure to rectum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What region of the body is drained by the internal iliac lymph nodes?

A
  • Lower rectum to anal canal ABOVE the pectinate line
  • Bladder
  • Vagina
  • Prostate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What region of the body is drained by the para-aortic lymph nodes?

A
  • Testes
  • Ovaries
  • Kidneys
  • Uterus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What region of the body is drained by the superficial inguinal lymph nodes?

A
  • Anal canal BELOW the pectinate line

- Skin below the umbilicus, EXCEPT the popliteal area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What region of the body is drained by the popliteal lymph nodes?

A

Dorsolateral foot and posterior calf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What drains into the right lymphatic duct?

A

Right side of the body above the diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What drains into the left lymphatic duct i.e. the thoracic duct?

A

EVERYTHING, EXCEPT the right side of the body above the diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Outline the flow of blood into and out of the spleen.

A

1) Splenic artery
2) Trabecular artery
3) Central artery
4) Sinusoids
5) Red pulp veins
6) Trabecular vein
7) Splenic vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Describe the histologic architecture of the spleen.

A
  • Outer region is red pulp
  • Inside the red pulp is the white pulp
  • Between the red and white pulp is the marginal zone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What cell types are contained in the red pulp of the spleen?

A

RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What cell types are contained in the marginal zone of the spleen?

A

Macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the important function of splenic macrophages?

A

Removal of encapsulated bacteria i.e. SSHiN

  • Salmonella
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Haemphilus influenza
  • Niserria meningitidis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the type parts of the white pulp in the spleen?

A
  • Outer region with germinal centers

- Inner region or Periarterial Lymphatic Sheath (PALS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What cells are contained in the germinal centers of the while pulp?

A

B-cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What cells are contained in the PALS?

A

T-cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What loci encode for MHC I?

A

HLA-A, B, and C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What loci encode for MHC II?

A

HLA-DR, DP, and DQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the difference between the expression of MHC I and II?

A

MHC I= all nucleated cells (NOT RBCs)

MHC II= only on APCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What disease is the HLA Subtype, A3 associated with?

A

Hemochromatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What disease is the HLA Subtype, B27 associated with?

A

PAIR

P= psoriatic arthritis 
A= Ankylosing spondylitis 
I= IBD 
R= Reactive arthritis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What disease is the HLA Subtype, DQ2/DQ8 associated with?

A

Celiac Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What disease is the HLA Subtype, DR2 associated with?

A
  • MS
  • Hay fever
  • SLE
  • Goodpasture Syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What disease is the HLA Subtype, DR3 associated with?

A
  • DM-I
  • SLE
  • Grave’s Disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What disease is the HLA Subtype, DR4 associated with?

A
  • Rheumatoid arthritis

- DM-I

42
Q

What disease is the HLA Subtype, DR5 associated with?

A

Pernicious anemia

43
Q

What type of T-cell is produced in the bone marrow?

A

T-cell precursor

44
Q

What happens to T-cell precursors in the thymus?

A

Differentiation to CD4 or 8+ T-cells

45
Q

What type of selection do T-cells undergo in the thymus?

A

1) Positive selection

2) Negative selection

46
Q

What is positive selection? Where does it happen?

A
  • T-cells expressing TCRs that can bind MHC survive

- Thymic cortex

47
Q

What is negative selection? Where does it happen?

A
  • T-cells with TCRs that bind self-antigen undergo apoptosis

- Medulla of the thymus

48
Q

What are the four different fates of CD4+ T-cells?

A

1) Th1 cell
2) Th2 cell
3) Th17 cell
4) T-reg cell

49
Q

What cytokine drives a CD4+ helper T-cell toward becoming a Th1 cell?

A

IL-12

50
Q

What cytokine drives a CD4+ helper T-cell toward becoming a Th2 cell?

A

IL-4

51
Q

What cytokines drive a CD4+ helper T-cell toward becoming a Th17 cell?

A
  • TGF-B

- IL-6

52
Q

What cytokine drives a CD4+ helper T-cell toward becoming a Treg cell?

A
  • TGF-B
53
Q

What is the “second signal/ costimulatory signal” required for T-cell activation?

A

B7 and CD28

  • CD28= on the naive T-cell
  • B7= on the dendritic cell i.e. APC
54
Q

What is the “second signal” required for B-cell activation and class switching?

A

CD40 and CD40L

  • CD40= on the B-cell
  • CD40L= on the CD4+ T-cell
55
Q

What is the function of Th1 cells?

A

Activation of MACROPHAGES and CD8+ T-cells

56
Q

What is the function of Th2 cells?

A
  • Recruitment of eosinophils (parasitic defense)

- Promotion of IgE production by B-cells

57
Q

What cytokine is produced by Th1 cells?

A

IFN-gamma

58
Q

What cytokines are produced by Th2 cells?

A

IL-4. 5, 6 and 13

59
Q

Describe the relationship between Th1 cells and macrophages.

A
  • Macrophages produce IL-12 that stimulates CD4+ T-cells to become Th1 cells
  • Th1 cells produce IFN-gamma that further activates macrophages
60
Q

What cytokines are produced by Tregs?

A

IL-10
TFG-B

These are ANTI-INFLAMMATORY cytokines and will DAMPEN the immune response

61
Q

What are the cell surface markers that identify Tregs?

A

CD3
CD4
CD25
FOXP3–transcription factor

62
Q

What generates antibody diversity?

A

1) VJ (light chain) and VDJ (heavy chain) recombination
2) Random combination of heavy chains and light chains
3) Somatic hypermutation
4) Addition of nucleotides to DNA by terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase

63
Q

What antibody is produced in the immediate response to an antigen?

A

IgM

64
Q

What antibody is produced in the secondary or delayed response to an antigen?

A

IgG

65
Q

What is the most abundant antibody isotype in the serum?

A

IgG

66
Q

What antibody is responsible for mucosal defense?

A

IgA

67
Q

What form is IgA in when it is in circulation? What about when it is secreted?

A 
Circulation= monomer 
Secreted= dimer
68
Q

List the four primary places where IgA is found.

A

1) Tears
2) Saliva
3) Mucous
4) Colostrum

69
Q

What form is IgM in when it is on B-cells? Secreted?

A 
B-cell= monomer 
Secreted= pentamer
70
Q

What antibody type normally has the lowest concentration in serum?

A

IgE

71
Q

What antibody type is responsible for parasite defense and mediates allergic reactions?

A

IgE

72
Q

What are “thymus independent antigens?”

A

Antigens lacking peptide= weak immune response

73
Q

What are “thymus dependent antigens?”

A

Antigens WITH a peptide component

74
Q

What cytokines induce production of the acute phase reactants?

A

IL-6
IL-1
TNF-a
IFN-y

75
Q

What are the positive acute phase reactants?

A

Factors produced by the liver in response to inflammation:

  • Serum amyloid A
  • CRP
  • Ferritin
  • Fibrinogen
  • Hepcidin
76
Q

What can chronic inflammation and upregulated Serum Amyloid A cause?

A

Amyloidosis

77
Q

What the function of CRP as an acute phase reactant?

A

Opsonization

78
Q

What is the function of ferritin as an acute phase reactant?

A
  • Binds and sequesters iron

- Limits microbacterial access to iron (necessary for growth)

79
Q

What is the function of Fibrinogen as an acute phase reactant?

A

Coagulation factor that promotes endothelial repair

80
Q

What is the function of Hepcidin as an acute phase reactant?

A

Prevents release of iron bound by ferritin

81
Q

What are the negative acute phase reactants?

A

Factors that are downregulated in response to inflammation

  • Albumin
  • Transferrin
82
Q

Why is Albumin downregulated in response to inflammation?

A

To converse amino acids for production of the positive acute phase reactants

83
Q

What are the three complement pathways?

A

1) Classic (IgM and IgG)
2) Alternative i.e activated by microbial surfaces
3) Lectin i.e. binding mannose or sugars on microbial surface

84
Q

What is the function of complement C3b?

A

Opsonization

85
Q

What pathologic process are C3a, C4a, and C5a implicated in?

A

Remember that “a” is for ANAPHYLAXIS

86
Q

What is the role of C5a?

A

Neutrophil chemotaxis

87
Q

What complement factors form MAC?

A

C5b-C9

88
Q

What are the two primary opsonins of complement?

A

C3b and IgG

89
Q

What are the two main inhibitors of complement?

A

1) DAF i.e. “Decay-accelerating factor”

2) C1 esterase inhibitor

90
Q

What cell differentiation marker identifies DAF?

A

CD55

91
Q

What is the clinical manifestation of C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency?

A

Hereditary angioedema

92
Q

What is the clinical manifestation of a C3 deficiency?

A
  • Increased pyogenic sinus and respiratory tract infections

- Increased risk of Type III hypersensitivity reactions

93
Q

What is the clinical manifestation of a C5-C9 deficiency?

A

Susceptibility to Neisseria infections

94
Q

What is the clinical manifestation of a DAF deficiency?

A

Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria

95
Q

List the major cytokines secreted by macrophages.

A 
IL-1 
IL-6 
IL-8 
IL-12 
TNF-a
96
Q

What is the function of IL-1?

A
  • Endogenous pyrogen–>fever and acute inflammation
  • Activates endothelium to produce adhesion molecules
  • Induces chemokine secretion
97
Q

What is the function of IL-6?

A

Endogenous pyrogen–> fever and production of acute phase reactants

98
Q

What is the function of IL-8?

A

Neutrophil chemotaxis

99
Q

What is the function of IL-12?

A
  • Induces CD4+ cell differentiation into Th1

- Activates NK cells

100
Q

What is the function of TNF-a?

A
  • Mediates SEPTIC SHOCK
  • Activates endothelium
  • Leukocyte recruitment
  • Vascular leak

First Aid 2014 (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions