Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

2nd Year Adrenergic Blockers > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Serotyping by slide agglutination to which strains of E.Coli

A

EPEC & EHEC

jj

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what causes infection when leave the intestine

A

Proteus

jj

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

in EHEC we detect the vero toxin by …… and detect the organism by …….

A

ELISA
Immunoflourescence in stools

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

indicators of fecal pollution of water

A

E.Coli, Enterococcus faecalis and
Cl. perfringens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

klebsiella are normal inhabitants in

A

intestine and respiratory tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

causes inclusion conjunctivitis and which serotypes

A

C. trachomatis and serotypes D-K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Klebsiella are in soil and water as

A

Saprophytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

meaning of nosocomial?

A

orginating in hospital

Hospital acuired diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Klebsiella causing nosocomial diseases in man due to

A

multi-drug resistant strains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how many serotypes of klebsiella

A

77 based on the capsular polysaccharide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

the non lactose fermenters

A

Slamonella, shigella, proteus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

why collonies of Klebsiella are mucoid

A

due to production of abundant extracellular slime by the capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

biochemical activities of klebsiella

A
  1. the ferment glucose maltose sucrose luctose, mannite, and salicin
  2. they are indole negative/ VP positive/MR negative/ citrate positive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what diseases caused by K.penumonia

A

lopar pneumonia
neonatal meningitis
septicemia
urinary track infection
hospital acquired infection
kill mice in 24-48 hours when injected intra-peritoneal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

causes Rhinoscleroma

A

k. rhinoscleromatis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

causes atrophic rhinitis

A

K. ozaenae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

K. causes hospital acuired infection

A

K. oxytoca

oxygen in hospital, oxytoca in hospital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

enterobacter, citrobacter, serratia

A
  1. they are in soil, water, stool
  2. causes urinary tract, wound, and blood streams infections to hospitalized patients, immunocomromised especially those under invasive procedure such as respiratory intuubation, intravenous and urinary catheters
  3. gram negative bacilli, motile, and differentiated by thier biochemical activities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Proteus are found in ……….. and are inhabitants of ……….

A

soil and water
intestine in man

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. oxidase positive
  2. don’t ferment any sugar
  3. Acid is produced from glucose by oxidation only
A

Pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

when proteus cause infection

A

when they leave intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

the two important species of proteus

A

P. vulgaris
P. mirabilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Diseases caused by proteus

A
  1. Urinary tract infection caused by proteus mirabilis
  2. wound infection
  3. pneumonia
  4. meningitis
  5. otitis media
  6. bacteremia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what require antibiotic sensitivity test

A

proteus
morganella morgani
providencia rettgeri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

why we make urease test in proteus

A

to differentiate between salmonella and shigella
Urease positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is phenylalanine deaminase positive?

A

Proteus
morganella morgani
providencia rettgeri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what cause hospital acquired infections

A

E.coli
Klebsiella
Proteus
Morganella morgani
Providencia rettgeri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Produce H2S

A

Proteus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Causes reiter’s syndrome

A

C. trachomatis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is Reiter’s syndrome

A

UAU (Urethritis, Arthritis, Uveitis)
It is an autoimmune disease caused by antibodies formed against C. trachomatis cross - reacting with antigens on the cells of urethra, joint, uveal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

??

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

??

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Urease positive

A

Klebsiella
Proteus
Morganella Morganii
Providencia Rettgeri
Ureaplasma urealyticum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Non-lactose fermenters

A

Salmonella
Shigella
Proteus
Morganella Morganii
Providencia rettgeri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

lactose fermenters

A

Escherichia
Klebsiella
Enterobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

late lactose fermenters

A

Sh. sonnei, Citrobacter, Provedentia
Enteroinvasive E.Coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

the virulence factors of E.coli

A
  1. pili or colonization factor
  2. Capsule
  3. Endotoxin
  4. Exotoxin
  5. Verotoxin or shigatoxin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

the virulence factors that genetically carried on plasmids

A

Pili
Enterotoxins (Exotoxins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

has exotoxin A: that is similar to diphetria toxin anf causes tissue necrosis

A

pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

pili of e.coli

A
  1. enables the organism to adhere to mucosal cells
  2. it is genetically carried in plasmids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Capsule of E.coli

Function

A

enterferes with phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Endotoxic of E coli

A

It is a lipopolysaccharide that causes endotoxic manifestation (shock, hypotension, fever)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Verotoxin or Shiga toxin produced by

A

by enterohaemorrgic E Coli strains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

has a sweet grape like odour

A

Pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what are the virulence factors of Uropathogenic E coli

A

Pili with adhesive proteins
K antigens
exotoxins(haemolysins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

has capsular antigen K1

A

E.coli strains that causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Causes infantile diarrhea

A

Enterotoxigenic
Enteropathogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

require pyocin typing in diagnosis for epidimiologic purposes

A

pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

are obligate intracellular parasites?

A

Chlamydiae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

??

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Serotypes D-K causes

A

inclusion conjunctivitis
Genital infections
1. NGU and epididymitis in males
2. cervicitis, salpingitis, pelvic inflammatory disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

bacteria that can not synthesize ATP

A

Chlamydiae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

causing travellers diarrhea

A

Enterotoxigenic E.coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Has LT and ST exotoxins

A

Enterotoxigenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

causes dysentry like diarrhea

A

Enteroinvasive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

has serotypes O26, Om, O55

A

Enteropathogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Causes acute and persistent diarrhea in children and HIV patients

A

Enteroaggregative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Causes

  1. traveler’s diarrhea
  2. causes neonatal diarrhea(infantile diarrhea)
  3. dysentry like diarrhea
  4. Bloddy diarrhea
  5. Acute and persistent diarrhea in children and HIV
A
  1. Enterotoxigenic
  2. Enterotoxiegenic and Enteropathogenic
  3. Enteroinvasive
  4. Enterohaemorragic
  5. Enteroaggregative
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

E.col strain

Like shigella, non-lactose and non motile

A

Enteroinvasive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q
  1. adheres to intestinal epi. by pili
  2. adheres to intestinal epi. and loss of micro vill and cupping of cells around bacteria
  3. invasion of epithelium
  4. haemorrhagic colitis
  5. aggregative adherence to mucosa in patches
A
  1. enterotoxigenic
  2. enteropathogenic
  3. entero invasive
  4. Enterohaemorrhagic
  5. Enteroaggregative
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

E.coli strain

identified by DNA probes and He-p2 cell cultures

A

Enteroaggregative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Has serotype 0157:H7

A

Enterohemorrhagic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

has greenish coloration of culture due to its diffusible exopigments

A

pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

the commonest pathogen of pseudomonas

A

P. aeruginosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

infections caused by pseudomonas

A
  1. Urinary tract inf
  2. wound inf
  3. otitis externa
  4. corneal ulcer in contact lens users
  5. pneumonia
  6. sepsis with ecthyma gangrenosum
  7. osteomyelitis and endocarditis in IV drug users
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Morphology pf pseudomonas

A

Gram negative motile bacili

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Virulence factors of pseudomonas

A
  1. Pili
  2. Endotoxin
  3. Enzymes (elastase and protease), that facilitate
    invasion.
  4. Exotoxin A: very similar to diphtheria toxin in its
    action and causes tissue necrosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Caused by serotypes A, B, C of Chlamydiae trachomatis

A

Trachoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

??

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

??

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

From chlamydiae: Causes atherosclerotic coronary artery and cardiovascular disease

A

Chlamydiae pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Causes Neonatal pneumonia acquired from birth canal from infected mother

A

C. Trachomatis

causes also pneumonitis in immunocompromised patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Which strain can live in a biofilm away from antibodies and phagocytosis

A

pseudomonas strains isolated from cystic fibrosis

because it has exopolysachride (glycocalyx)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

the three species of chlamydiae

A

1) chlamydiae trachomatis
2) chlamydiae psittaci
3) Chl. pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Causes psittacosis that may be transmitted to man

A

Chl. psittaci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

causes atypical pneumonia

A

Chl. pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis

A

ocular, genital and respiratory infection

Trachomatous (تراكم نظري عملي تنفسي)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what is called the infectious form of Chlamydiae and the growing form of it

A

Elementary body
Initial or reticulate body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what staining and culture of Chlamydiae

A
  1. they are stained with Giemsa or Macchiavello stain
  2. they grow in tissue culture and in yolk sac oif chick embryo
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Diseases caused by C. trachomatis

A

I- Ocular infections:
1- Trachoma
2- Inclusion conjunctivitis
II- Genital infections: non-gonococcal urethritis
III- Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)
IV- Respiratory infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Diseases caused by C. trachomatis

A

I- Ocular infections:
1- Trachoma
2- Inclusion conjunctivitis
II- Genital infections: non-gonococcal urethritis
III- Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)
IV- Respiratory infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Diseases caused by C. trachomatis

A

I- Ocular infections:
1- Trachoma
2- Inclusion conjunctivitis
II- Genital infections: non-gonococcal urethritis
III- Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)
IV- Respiratory infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

what is trachoma?

A

It is a keratoconjunkitvits that start with acute infection of the conjunctiva and cornea that causes scarring and blindness
it is transmitted from eye to eye by fingers, fomites, flies
caused by serotypes ABC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

??

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

??

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Genital infections of C. trachomatis

A
  • C. trachomatis serotypes D-K is a prominent cause of nongonococcal urethritis and rarely epididymitis in males.
  • In females it causes cervicitis, salpingitis and pelvic
    inflammatory disease.
  • It can lead to sterility and predispose to ectopic
    pregnancy.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

which disease and which bacteria we used Frie test

A

LGV in C. trachomatis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is Frie test?

A

it is a hypersensitivity skin test similar to tuberculin test used in diagnosis of LGV caused by C. trachomatis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

which is used to diagnose chlamydial sexual transmitted diseases

A

Nucleic acids in specimens by DNA probes or PCR, which can be used on urine to diagnose chlamydial sexually transmitted diseases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

??

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

are useful in diagnosis of C. pneumoniae and C. psittaci and are not useful for genital tract c. trachomatis infections

becuase trachomatis has many serotypes

A

serologic tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

They have corkscrew like motility

A

treponema pallidum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Causes Weil’s disease

A

Leptospira (spirochaetes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Can be inoculated in the testicles of rabbits

A

Treponema Pallidum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Has a hyaluronidase

search for others has hyaluronidase

A

Treponema pallidum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Causes congentital syphilis?

A

T. pallidum (Spirochaetes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

they are pathologically occur intracellulary and extracellulary

A

Neisseriae Gonorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

ZZ

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

ZZ

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

ZZ

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Respiratory infections of C. Trachomatis

A
  1. inclusion conjunctivitis may go otitis, pharyngitis, nasal obstruction through nasolacrimal duct
  2. pneumonitis in immunocompromised patients
  3. Neonatal pneumonia result in detection of IgM antibody titre treated by erythromycin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Respiratory infections of C. Trachomatis

A
  1. inclusion conjunctivitis may go otitis, pharyngitis, nasal obstruction through nasolacrimal duct
  2. pneumonitis in immunocompromised patients
  3. Neonatal pneumonia result in detection of IgM antibody titre treated by erythromycin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Diagnosis of Chlamydial infections

A

Specimens include; conjunctival and urethral discharge, cervical scrapings, sputum, urine, pus .. .etc. They are examined as follows:
1- Direct detection in the specimens of:
a- Intracytoplasmic inclusions
b- Chlamydial antigens
c- Nucleic acids in specimens by DNA probes or PCR, which can be used on urine to diagnose chlamydial sexually transmitted diseases.
2- Isolation on tissue culture
3- Serologic diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q
  1. intracytoplasmic inclusions by
  2. chlamydial antigens by
  3. nucliec acids by
A
  1. Giemsa or immunoflourescent staining
  2. ELISA or flouresecent antibody staining
  3. DNA probes or PCR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Serologic diagnosis of Chlamydia

A
  • Detection of IgM or rising titre of IgG using CF test or ELISA
  • Serologic tests are useful for C. pneumonia and C. psittaci
  • are not useful for diagnosis of genital tract Chlamydial infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

the three genera of Spirochetes

A

Treponema, Borrelia, Leptospira

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

what diseases caused by the three genera of spirichaetes

A

Treponema pallidum causes syphilis
Borrelia causes relapsing fever and lyme disease
leptospira causes leptospirosis or Weill’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

the two antibodies to diagnose syphilis

A

Treponema antibody against treponemal antigen
Second antibody (reagin) against cardiolipin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

virulence factors of T. pallidum

A
  • outer membrane protein for adherence to the surface of host cells
  • Hyaluronidase which may facilitate perivascular infiltration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

primary lesion of T. palidum

Syphilis

A

hard painless chancre 2-10 weeks after exposure
papula which ulcerates
regional lymph nodes are enlarged

large numbers of bacteria is present in this stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Secondary stage

Syphilis

A

Generalized manifestations
* chonylomata of anus and vulva
* mucous patches in the mouth
Systemic manifestations
* fever
* weight and hair loss
* joint pains

large numbers of bacteria is present in this stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Tertiary Syphilis

A

Granulomas (gumma) in skin and bones
CNS: paresis and tabes dorsalis
Cardiovascular: aortitis, aneurysm of aorta

Treponemas are rarely seen in the lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Congenital syphilis

A
    1. A pregnant syphilitic woman can transmit T. pallidum to the foetus through the placenta.
  • this may lead to abortion or still birth, oe a living baby will develop congenital syphilis in childhood manifested as interstitial keratitis, hutchinson’s teeth, saddle nose, and CNS anomalies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

in congenital infection, the child make which antibody

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Causes cupping of cells around bacteria

A

Enterpathogenic e.coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Gram negative Diplococci arranged in pairs with adjacent flattened cells

A

Neisseriae Gonorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

culture on enriched media with heated blood like chocolate or MTM

A

N Gonorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

describe the colony of N.Gonorhea

A

convex
glistening
elevated
mucoid
transparent or opaque
non pigmented
non-hemolytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

all oxidase positive

A

N. Gonorrhea
Pseudomonas

continue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Virulence factors of N. Gonorrhea

A

Pili
outer membrane proteins 123
IgA protease
Por proteins
Lipooligosacchride LOS

122
Q

virulence factors of N Gono that have antigenic variations

A

pili
outer membrane proteins 123
Por protein

123
Q

Virulence factors of N. Gono for attachment

A

pili
outer membrane proteins
IgA protease

124
Q

Virulence factos of N Gono characters

  1. in the cell wall and responsible for endotoxic effects
  2. hydrolyses IgA 1, a major mucosal immunoglobulin
  3. antiphagocytic
  4. prevent intracellular killing of gonococci within neutrophils by preventing phagosome-lysosome fusion
  5. inactivates C3b making these strains resistant to killing by antibody and complement leading to disseminated infections
  6. 100 serotypes based on
A
  1. LOS
  2. IgA protease
  3. Pili
  4. Por proteins
  5. Por proteins
  6. pili antigenic variation
125
Q

Diseased caused by Gonococci

A

Gonorrhea (male G, female G, Anorectal and throat infection, Disseminated infection)
Ophthalmia Neonatorum
Vulvovaginitis

126
Q

Male gonorhea

  1. acute
  2. chronic
  3. complicated
A
  1. urethritis with purulent discharge
  2. discharge morning drop
  3. urethral stricture, prostatitis and epididymitis
127
Q

Female Gonorhea cause?

A
  1. Cervicitis and urethritis
  2. salpingitis and pelvic inflammatory disease leading to fibrosis, ectobic pergnance and infertliity
  3. Vagina not involved due to acidity
128
Q

occurs in persons deficient in complement component C6-C9

A

Dissemenated gonococcal infections
septic arthrites, tenosynvitis, skin pustules and endo carditis

129
Q

occur to heterosexual women and homosexual men and which bacteria?

A

anorectal and throat infection of N.Gonorrhea

130
Q

Repeated gonoccocal infection due to

A
  1. antigenic variation based on pili and outer membrane proteins
  2. less IgG little protective action
  3. secretory IgA protease
131
Q

acute male gonorrhea diagnosed by

A

Direct smear by presence of gram negative diplococci intra and extracellulary in pus cells in urethral discharge

132
Q

Used in diagnosis of DGI ( disseminated gonococcal infections)

A

Blood cultures

133
Q

the smallest free living organism

A

Mycoplasma

134
Q

they lack cell walland resistant to cell wall inhibitors

A

Mycoplasma

135
Q

the only bacteria that contain cholesterol

A

Mycoplasma

136
Q

Causes atypical pneumonia

A
  1. M. pneumonia

continue

137
Q

ureaplasma urealyticum causes

A

urease positive
causes NGU and neonatal sepsis in premature infants

138
Q

M. hominis causes

A

post partum fever and pelvic inflammatory disease (salpingitis)

139
Q

M. genitalium

A

causes non- gonococcal urethritis

140
Q

Causes non- gonococcal urethritis

A
  1. Chlamydiae trachomatis
  2. Ureaplasma Urealyticum
  3. M. genitalium
141
Q

Mycoplasma stained by

A

Giemsa

142
Q

ghffdsfs

A
143
Q

are gram variable cocco bacilli

A

Gardenrella vaginalis

144
Q

Gram stain?

  1. C. albicans
A
  1. positive
145
Q

C. albicans are located in

A
  1. upper respiratory tract
  2. GIT
  3. Female Genital tract
    It cause superinfection in these sites
146
Q

Predisposing factors of C. albicans

A

Diabetes
general Debility
Immunodeficiency
urinary catheters
intravenous drugs
prolonged treatment of broad spectrum antibiotics
corticosteroids

147
Q

What is paronychia and what causes paronychia

A

infection around the nail caused by C.albicans

148
Q

clinical affections of candida

A
  • In mouth: white patches (oral thrush-moniliasis)
  • Vulvovaginitis with itching and discharge
  • skin invasion in warm moist areas as axilla and folds
  • Nails: painful redness and swelling in in nails folds and thickning and loss of nail as Paronychia
  • systemic candidiasis and chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis to which have deficient CMI and ineffective ThI7 response to candida

mouth vagina skin hand systemic

149
Q

Morphology of Candida

A

Large oval gram positive budding yeast cells with pseudohyphea

150
Q

associated with germ tube formation in serum

A

Candida albicans

151
Q

what uses corn meal agar in culture and what is formed on it

A

candida form chlamydospores on this agar

152
Q

culture of Candida

A

nutrient agar
corn meal agar
SDA

153
Q

the three properties that differentiate c.albicans from candida

A

Germ tube formation
chlamydospore
ferment glucose and maltose

154
Q

react with Lancifield group D antisera?

A

Enteroccoci (facealis and faecium)

155
Q

is positive pyrazine amidase test

A

Enterococci

156
Q

They can grow in presence of bile and hydrolyze the
polysaccharide esculin (bile- esculin-positive)

A

Enterococci

157
Q

bile esculin positive

A

enterococci

158
Q

enterococci causes

A
  • nosocomial infections in intensive care units
  • urinary tract infections due to catheters
  • can be trasmitted by hands
  • endocarditis to patients has GIT or UT surgery
  • pelvic and intra-peritoneal infections with anaaerobes as peritonitis, choleycystitis, prostatis and wound infection
  • meningitis and bacteremia in neonates
159
Q

treatment of Enterococci

A
  • combined penicillin and aminglycosides
  • Vancomycin for treatment of penicillin resistant strains
    *
160
Q

strains of enterococci is the important cause of nosocomial infections

A

vancomycin resistant enterococci

161
Q

the most important anaerobic pathogen and its inhabitant and the commonest strain and causes what?

A
  • Bacteroids
  • intestinal tract and female geneital tract
  • B. fragilis
  • Abscess formation in the lesions and all lesions below the diphragm associated with bacteremia
162
Q

what you see in case of actinomycosis

A

sulfur granules by naked eye examination of pus

163
Q

what you see in case of prevotella infection

A

red fluoresence under UV light

164
Q

Vincent angina are caused by ?

A

Fusobacteria and spirochetes

165
Q

what is example of anaerobic culture

A

Gaspak system

166
Q

Causes bacterial vaginosis

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

with association of anaerobic bcateria (Mobilluncus)

167
Q

Detection of “clue cells” which are epithelial cells coated with gram variable cocco-bacilli in vaginal or cervical swabs in?

A

Gardnerella Vaginalis

168
Q

whiff test positive in

A

Gradnerella Vaginalis

169
Q

amsels criteria are used to diagnose

A

bacterial vaginosis caused by Gardnerella Vaginalis
1. foul smelling of discharge
2. detection of clue cells which are epithelial cells coated by gram variable cocco-bacilli
3. whiff test positive
4. vaginal pH is moe than 4.5

170
Q

Morphology

lactobacilli are

A

obligate anaerobic gram positive bacilli

171
Q

Lactobacilli are normal microbiota of

A

mouth, colon, vagina

172
Q

in mouth causes dental caries

A

Lactobacilli

173
Q

in vagina, has a beneficial protective effect by production of lactic acid making pH of vagina low and inhibits colonization of the vagina

A

Lactobacilli

174
Q

supression of lactobacilli by antibiotics leads to

A

superinfection with candida. albicans resulting in candida vaginitis

175
Q

causes outbreaks of gastroentritis in school, ships, camps etc

A

Norwalk virus

176
Q

it is member of caliciviridae family

A

Norwalk virus

177
Q

causes in mouth white patches and identify this condition

A

candida
oral thrush or moniliasis

178
Q

causes gastroentritis

A

Norwalk virus

179
Q

considered from yeast cells

A

candida

Large oval gram positive budding yeast cells with pseudohyphae

180
Q

identify

  1. phenylalanine deaminase positive
  2. pyrazine amidase test
A
  1. Proteus/M.Morgani/P.rettgeri
  2. Enterococci
181
Q

the family that has the ability to establish latent infections

A

Herpes Virus family

182
Q

susceptible to antiviral chemotherapy

A

herpes virus family

182
Q

susceptible to antiviral chemotherapy

A

herpes virus family

182
Q

susceptible to antiviral chemotherapy

A

herpes virus family

183
Q

susceptible to antiviral chemotherapy

A

herpes virus family

184
Q

susceptible to antiviral chemotherapy

A

herpes virus family

185
Q

herpes family virus are

A
  1. herpes simplex virus
  2. varicela zoster virus
  3. cytomegalovirus
  4. Epstein Barr virus
  5. HH6
  6. HH7
  7. HH8
186
Q

causes kaposi sarcoma virus

A

HH8

187
Q

what is kaposi sarcoma

A

is a vasocutaneous multifocal tumor

188
Q

how kaposi sarcoma virus is diagnosed?

A

The viral DNA is found in tumour cells and can be detected in biopsy specimens by PCR

189
Q

how HH8 caues kaposi sarcoma

A

It causes malignant transformation by
inactivation of the Rb (retinoblastoma) tumour suppressor gene.

190
Q

inactivates retinoblastoma tumor suppressor gene

A

Human Herpes 8

191
Q

how HH8 is transmitted?

A

is transmitted sexually or in transplanted organ

192
Q

what caused by HH6?

A

Childhood rash
roseola infantum associated with lymphadenoopathy, sore throat and fever

193
Q

causes roseola infantum

A

HH6

194
Q

infects T lymphocytes

A

HH6
HH7

195
Q

infects CD4 lymphocytes

A

HH7

196
Q

the herpes virus has

A
  1. nucleocapsid is surrounded by envelope , which is derived from the nuclear membrane of the infected cells
  2. glycoprotein spikes
197
Q

mode of infection

HSV 1
HSV 2

A

HSV 1: by contact or droplets of infected saliva
HSV 2: sexually or new born baby during birth

198
Q

Clinicall picture of herpes simplex virus

A

primary infection
latent infection
reactivation

199
Q

Primary infections of HSV

A

*It is commonly occurs in children 2-4 years of age or
newborn infants can contract the infection from the birth canal or in utero.

*HSV multiplies locally in the mucous membrane or
abraded skin causing cytolysis, necrosis, ballooning,
multinucleated giant cell formation and intranuclear
inclusion bodies in infected cells

Cell fusion provides cell-to-cell spread of HSV, even in the presence of neutralizing antibodiesClinical manifestations are vesicular lesions, which may change to shallow ulcers

*Scabs form and lesions heal without scarring

*Most primary infections are asymptomatic

*Those due to HSV-1 occur during childhood, while
HSV-2 infections occur mainly at the age of sexual
activity

200
Q

Primary infections of HSV

A

It is commonly occurs in children 2-4 years of age or
newborn infants can contract the infection from the birth canal or in utero.

HSV multiplies locally in the mucous membrane or
abraded skin causing cytolysis, necrosis, ballooning,
multinucleated giant cell formation and intranuclear
inclusion bodies in infected cells

Cell fusion provides cell-to-cell spread of HSV, even in the presence of neutralizing antibodiesClinical manifestations are vesicular lesions, which may change to shallow ulcers

Scabs form and lesions heal without scarring

Most primary infections are asymptomatic

Those due to HSV-1 occur during childhood, while
HSV-2 infections occur mainly at the age of sexual
activity**

201
Q

HSV migrates to the neurons in which phase

A

latent infection

202
Q

in latent infection the HSV 1 and 2 and VZV migrate to

A

HSV-1 to tigmeminal ganglia
HSV-2 to sacral ganglia
VZV to dorsal root ganglia

203
Q

clinical syndromes of reactivation HSV

A

1- Gingivostomatitis
2- Herpes labialis (fever
blisters)
3- Keratoconjunctivitis
4- Encephalitis
5- Meningitis
6- Disseminated
infections
7-Herpetic whitlow
8- Genital herpes
9- Neonatal herpes

204
Q

1- Gingivostomatitis

A

*It is due to HSV-1
*Primary infection occurs in children and is characterized by vesicular lesions in the mouth accompanied by fever, malaise and myalgia
*In adults it causes pharyngotonsillitis

205
Q

2- Herpes labialis (fever blisters)

A

*It is caused by HSV-1, characterized by crops of
vesicles at the mucocutaneous junction of the lips or
nose
*Recurrences occur at the same site

206
Q

crops of vesicles at the mucocutaneous junction of the lips of nose

A

Herpes labialis caused by HSV-1

207
Q

causes phrayngotonsilitis

A

gingivostomatitis caused by HSV-1

208
Q

Causes keratoconjunctivitisa and can lead to

A

HSV-1
corneal ulcer and blindness

209
Q

which type

1- Gingivostomatitis
2- Herpes labialis (fever
blisters)
3- Keratoconjunctivitis
4- Encephalitis
5- Meningitis
6- Disseminated
infections
7-Herpetic whitlow
8- Genital herpes
9- Neonatal herpes

A
  1. HSV 1
  2. HSV 1
  3. HSV 1
  4. HSV 1
  5. HSV 1 & 2
  6. HSV 1 & 2
  7. pustular lesion on fingers 1&2//eczema herpetic 1
  8. HSV 2
  9. HSV 1 & 2
210
Q

pustulator lesion on the fingers of medical staff

A

Herpetic whitlow
caused by HSV 1&2

211
Q

Eczema herpeticum caused by

A

HSV 1

212
Q

from herpes diseases associated with lymphadenopathy?

A

genital herpes
HH6 also causes lymphadenopathy

213
Q

what to make to avoid neonatal herpes

A

Cesarean section

214
Q

lesions

Genital herpes

A

Vesiculo. ulcerative lesions

215
Q

complications of neonatal herpes

A

The most serious infection is disseminated disease of the newborn including meningitis or encephalitis

216
Q

Diagnosis of HSV

A

1- Tzanck smear
2- Detection of viral antigens or viral DNA
3- A rapid diagnosis of encephalitis can be made by detecting HSV DNA in CSF by PCR.
4- Isolation of the virus from herpetic lesions.
5- Serologic diagnosis

217
Q

Diagnosed by using Tzank smear

A

HSV

218
Q

what is tzanck smear

A

used in diagnosis of HSV
scarping from base of skin stained by giemsa
detection of multinucleated giant cells (Tzanck cells)

219
Q

rapid diagnosis in HSV is used to

A

diagnose encephalitis by detecting HSV DNA in CSF by PCR

220
Q

VZV infection is transmitted by

A

respiratory droplets or contact
incubation period 10-21 days

221
Q

pathogenesis of VZV

A

multiplies in the mucosa of the respiratory tract then
it spreads via the blood to the skin causing the typical
rash, which evolves from papules to vesicles, pustules,
and finally crusts

222
Q

a sporadic incapacitating disease

A

Zoster (shingles)

223
Q

the immunity reduced in the reactivation of the latent VZV

A

cell mediated immunity

224
Q

active immunization of VZV and given as?

A

Varivax and Zostervax
subcutaneous injection

225
Q

the live attenuated vaccine that prevents varicella but not zoster

A

Varivax

226
Q

live attenuated vaccine that is given to 60 year or older to reduce getting zoster

A

Zostavax

227
Q

The virus affects the sensory nerves and ganglia leading to severe pain in the area of skin supplied by these nerves, and then crops of vesicles appear over the skin supplied by the affected nerves

A

Zoster virus

228
Q

the virus that caused the infected cells to enlarged

A

Cytomegalovirus

229
Q

transmitted in breast milk

A

Cytomegalovirus

230
Q

cytomegalovirus is transmitted and excreted in

A

urine, saliva, semen, breast milk, and cervical secretions, transplacentally, sexually, blood transfusion, and organ transplant

231
Q

heterophile antibodies positive

A

Epstein Barr Virus

232
Q

causes restenosis to coronary artery angioplasty

A

CMV

cause proliferation of cells of the smooth muscles leading to restenosis

233
Q

causes infectious mononucleosis like syndrome

A

CMV in normal host

234
Q

Clinical forms of CMV in normal host

A
  1. asymptomatic latent infection persisting in leukocytes and kidneys and intermittent virus shedding in saliva and urine may occur
  2. Infectious mononucleosis like syndrome
  3. Restenosis of coronary anioplasty
235
Q

Congenital infections of Cytomegalovirus

A
  1. causes abortion, still birth, or cytomegalic inclusion disease
  2. congenital anomalies if infected in the first trimeter as blindness, deafness, mental retardation, and microcephaly , hepatospleenomegaly, purpura
  3. subclinical infection if infected perianal from birth canal or from breast milk
236
Q

Diagnosis of Cytomegalovirus

A

1- Detection of intranuclear cytomegalic inclusions, which are oval “owl’s-eye” shape in tissues or in desquamated cells in the urine
2- Detection of CMV nucleic acids in tissues or body fluids e.g. blood, CSF and amniotic fluid by PCR, which is also used to determine the viral load.
3- Isolation of virus from throat washings and urine.
4- Detection of IgM or rising titre of IgG in congenitally
infected infants is diagnostic

237
Q

owl eye shape in tissues indicate diagnosis of?

A

Cytomegalovirus

238
Q

the causative agent of infectious mononucleosis

A

EB virus

239
Q

infects B cells

A

Epstien Barr virus

240
Q

causes infectious mononucleosis

A

EBV

241
Q

causes Paul Bunnel test kits

A

EBV

242
Q

hetophiles antibodies of EBV agglutinate on

A

Sheep RBCs

243
Q

causes ophthalmia neonaturum

A

N. Gonorrhea

244
Q

morphology of E. coli

A

gram negative bacilli

245
Q

E.coli strain prodyce hemolysis in blood agar

A

strains causing urinary tract infection

246
Q

Serotype 0157:H7 cause

A

haemorrhagic colitis

247
Q

strains usually possess capsular antigen Kl

A

strains the causes neonatal meningitis

248
Q

produce hyaluronidase

A

Treponemma P

249
Q

Diagnosis of T. pallidum

A

I- Detection of spirochaetes in the lesion:
a- Dark-ground microscope
b-Direct immunofluorescence
c- PCR
Il-Serologic diagnosis:
a - Non-treponemal antigen tests:
1- Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test
2- Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR)
3- Toluidine red unhealed serum test (TRUST)
b- Treponemal antigen tests:
1- Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA- ABS) test:
2- Treponema pallidum haemagglutination (TP-HA) test:
3- Treponema pallidum-particle agglutination (TP-PA) test:
4- Enzyme immunoassays (EIA)

250
Q

Detection of spirochaetes in the lesion

A

serous exudate collected from the chancre in primary stages or from the skin eruptions and mucous patches in secondary stages

251
Q

Non-treponemal antigen tests:

A

1- Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test
2- Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR)
3- Toluidine red unhealed serum test (TRUST)

252
Q

Treponemal antigen tests:

A

1- Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA- ABS) test:
2- Treponema pallidum haemagglutination (TP-HA) test:
3- Treponema pallidum-particle agglutination (TP-PA) test:
4- Enzy me immunoassays (EIA)

253
Q

It is a flocculation test in which particles of cardiolipin
form visible clumps when combined with reagin
antibodies in serum, or in CSF in neurosyphilis

A

Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test

It is read by the microscope

254
Q

It is as VDLR another flocculation test performed on plasma but is read by the naked eye.

A

Rapid plasma Reagin RPR

255
Q

test used for
screening and for epidemiologic purposes

A

The non-treponemal antigen tests

256
Q

test used to evaluate the effect of treatment

A

non-treponemal antigen tests

257
Q

tests remain positive for life even after effective treatment

A

Treponemal antigen tests

258
Q

test

ability of antibodies in syphilitic patients’
sera to bring about agglutination of sheep red blood cells

A

Treponema pallidum haemagglutination (TP-HA) test

259
Q

test

indirect immunofluorescence test in which the
patient’s serum is layered on killed treponema fixed to a slide.

A

Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA- ABS) test

260
Q

test

Gelatin particles are coated with T. pallidum antigens then agglutinated with serum to give a mat of agglutinated particles

A

TP particle agglutination

261
Q

causes neonatal sepsis in premature infants

A

Ureaplasma urealyticum

262
Q

They grow on special media enriched with serum and other ingredients that provide sterols and nucleic acid precursors

A

M. PNEUMONIAE

263
Q

has fried egg appearance

A

M. PNEUMONIAE

264
Q

detect IgM or a rising titre of IgG by
ELISA or complement fixation in

A

Chlamydiae pneumonia
Mycoplasma pneumonia
Congenital syphilis
Ophthalmia neonaturum by N. Gono
Neonatal herpes
Congenital varicella
Cytomegalovirus
Parvo transplacentally

265
Q

Detection of cold agglutinin

A

M. pneumonia

266
Q

diagnose by using autoantibodies against type
O red cells that agglutinate these cells

A

M. pneumonia

267
Q

C, albican cause in mouth??

A

produce white patches
oral thrush
moniliasis

268
Q

c. albicans cause in nails?

A

painful redness, and swelling of nails foldings, thickness, and loss of nail
paronychia

269
Q

cause paronychia?

A

C. albicans

270
Q

cause oral thrush?

A

C. albicans

271
Q

cause moniliasis?

A

C. albicans

272
Q

Cultures of C. albicans

A

nutrient agar, corn meal agar and SDA

273
Q

enterococci transmitted by ?

A

by hands from patient to patient

274
Q

cause 10% of cases of endocarditis in patients who have undergone GIT or urinary tract surgery or instrumentation

A

enterococci

275
Q

Lactobacillus cause in mouth

A

dental caries

276
Q

the only parvovirus that causes human disease

A

Parvovirus B19

277
Q

parvovirus B19 is transmitted by?

A

respiratory route, transplacental or by blood transfusion.

278
Q

diseases caused by parvovirus B19

A
  1. Erythema infectiosum in children
  2. arthritis in adults
    Deposition of immune complexes contributes to the pathogenesis of the rash in children and
    arthritis in adults.
  3. aplastic crisis in sickle anemia patients
  4. chronic anemia in immunosuppresed patients
    B19 virus preferentially infects and kills the immature red blood cell precursors in the bone marrow.
  5. fetal death due to heart falure from severe anemia
279
Q

causes erythema infectiosum

A

Parvovirus B19

280
Q

causes aplastic crisis in sickle cell anemia patients

A

Parvovirus B19

281
Q

causes hydrops foetalis

A

Parvovirus B19

282
Q

causes chronic anemia in AIDs patients

A

parvovirus B19

283
Q

causes fifth disease
causes sixth disease

A

parvovirus B19
HH6

284
Q

morphology of herpes virus

A

double stranded DNA, icosahedral

285
Q

causes multinucleated giant cell formation and intranuclear inclusion bodies in infected cells

A

HSV
Varicella

286
Q

Epstein Barr virus is transmitted by

A

infected saliva

287
Q

pathogenesis of EBV

A
  • EBV is transmitted by infected saliva, and blood tranfusion
  • Infection starts in the oropharynx then spreads to the blood where the virus infects B lymphocytes
  • Cytotoxic T lymphocytes react against infected B cells, change in morphology and appear as atypical T
    lymphocytes in the peripheral blood
288
Q

cause T lymphocyte to apear as atypical T lymphocytes

A

EBV

289
Q

Xlinked lymphoprohferative syndrome

A

EBV

290
Q

has a fishy odour
has grape like smell

A

proteus
pseudomonas

291
Q

causes corneal ulcer in contacct lens users

A

pseudomonas

292
Q

antigens of the Epstein Barr Virus

A
  1. viral capsid antigen
  2. membrane antigen
  3. nuclear antigen
  4. early antigen
293
Q

antigen of EBV which neutralizing
protective antibodies are formed

A

viral membrance antigen

294
Q

serologic diagnosis of HSV: detection rise of antibodies titre may be useful in?

A

Primary infection

295
Q

Clinical forms of CMV in immunocompromised host

A

CMV causes pneumonia, retinitis, graft rejection or disseminated disease

296
Q

causes graft rejection

A

CMV

297
Q

causes retinitis

A

CMV

298
Q

causes ecthyma gangrenosum

A

pseudomonas

299
Q

test uses fluorescein labelled antihuman gamma globulin

A

FTA ABS

300
Q

blacken the triple sugar iron

A

proteus

2nd Year Adrenergic Blockers (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions