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Clinical Chemistry > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

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1
Q

Clinically significant bacteria grow in what ph and temperature range?

A

6.5-7.5, 20-40 C (37 C)

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2
Q

What are microaerophilic bacteria?

A

Bacteria that prefer reduced oxygen tension

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3
Q

What are capnophilic bacteria?

A

Bacteria requiring high levels of CO2

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4
Q

What are fastidious microbes?

A

Bacteria with strict growth requirements

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5
Q

What are 4 bacteria shapes?

A

Coccus, Bacillus, Coccobacillus and pleomorphic

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6
Q

How many phases of growth does bacteria have?

A

4

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7
Q

Fungal organisms consist largely of what?

A

Tubes called hyphae which grow toward food sources

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8
Q

What can aid in the IDing of fungi?

A

Presence or absence of cross walls within the hyphae (growth tubes) underneath the microscope

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9
Q

The catalase test is used to ID which type of bacteria?

A

Gram positive Cocci and Bacilli

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10
Q

What are 3 methods of sample collection in microbiology?

A

Aspiration, swabbing, imprinting

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11
Q

Why are samples that are going to be gram stained, heat fixed?

A

To fix the sample to the slide, kills and makes the bacteria permeable and preserves cell morphology.

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12
Q

What is the reagent used for the catalase test?

A

3% hydrogen peroxide

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13
Q

What is alpha hemolysis?

A

Partial hemolysis that creates a narrow band of greenish or slimy discoloration around the bacterial colony

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14
Q

What is a culture medium?

A

Any material that can support the growth of microorganisms

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15
Q

What is enriched media?

A

Media with extra nutrients like egg, blood or serum, to meet the needs of fastidious pathogens. Ex, blood/chocolate agar

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16
Q

What is selective media?

A

Media containing bile salts or antimicrobials that inhibit or kill all but a few types of bacteria. Ex. MacConkey agar.

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17
Q

What is differential media?

A

Media that allows bacteria to be differentiated into groups based on their biochemical reaction in the medium. Ex. Simmons citrate.

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18
Q

What is enrichment media?

A

Media that favors the growth of certain types of pathogens. Ex. Tetrathionate or selenite broth.

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19
Q

What is transport media?

A

Media designed to keep microbes alive while discouraging growth and reproduction. Culturette contains this.

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20
Q

What is the most common blood agar used?

A

Trypticase soy agar with sheep blood

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21
Q

Blood agar acts as which 2 media?

A

Enrichment and differential

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22
Q

What is thioglycollate broth?

A

Liquid medium used to culture anaerobic bacteria to determine their oxygen tolerance. Obligate aerobes grow in the top layer, and obligate anaerobes grow in the bottom layer.

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23
Q

MacConkey agar is commonly used to grow what bacteria?

A

Gram negative, ex. Enterobacteriaceae

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24
Q

EMB agar is used to ID what organisms?

A

Lactose fermenting

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25
Q

Hairs infected with the species Microsporum (ringworm) grow what color under a Wood’s lamp?

A

Clear apple green

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26
Q

What is a reagent?

A

A substance or mixture for use in chemical analysis or other reaction

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27
Q

What reagent is used to prepare a solid tissue sample for fungal testing?

A

Potassium hydroxide

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28
Q

What is the MIC?

A

Minimum inhibitory concentration, the lowest concentration of an antibiotic that will inhibit the growth of bacteria

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29
Q

Acid fast and non-acid fast stains what colors?

A

Acid fast stains red, non acid fast stains blue

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30
Q

Giemsa stain is used to detect what?

A

Spirochetes and rickettsiae

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31
Q

What is exudate? What are the lab normals?

A

Fluids with increased cellularity and protein concentration. Turbid, white or slightly yellow.
SG > 1.025, TP > 3.0, TNCC > 3000Neut, mononuclear, rbc

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32
Q

Fluid samples in cytology should be collected in what chemical?

A

EDTA

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33
Q

A line smear in cytology is used for what?

A

Low cellularity fluid or a small volume

34
Q

Cytology slides should be in fixative for how long?

A

2-5 minutes

35
Q

What is the preferred fixative for cytology slides?

A

95% methanol

36
Q

What is the benefit of using new methylene blue in cytology?

A

Give excellent nuclear detail, used as an adjunct to Romanowsky. Does not stain RBC.

37
Q

What should be submitted in a cytology sample for cells and fluids?

A

2-3 air dried unstained smears, 2-3 romanowsky stained smears for cells. For fluids, direct and concentrated smears in EDTA/red top tube should be submitted.

38
Q

Peritoneal and pleural fluid is collected in what tube?

A

EDTA and RTT

39
Q

What do you observe and record in peritoneal/pleural fluid?

A

Color, turbidity and odor

40
Q

Total nucleated cell counts are performed the same as what other procedure?

A

CBC

41
Q

What is transudate? What are the lab normals?

A

Clear fluid that’s poor in protein with low cellularity. SG < 1.017, TP < 2.5, TNCC < 1000/mcl

42
Q

What is modified transudate? What are the lab normals?

A

Light yellow, clear fluid that’s protein rich with mononuclear cells and high cellularity.
SG 1.017 – 1.025, TP 2.5 – 5, TNCC 500 – 10,000Lymph, mono, meso, rbc, neut

43
Q

Transudate is seen in what diseases?

A

Ascites, secondary to CHF and hypoalbunemia, cyst rupture

44
Q

Modified transudate is seen in what diseases?

A

Cardiac, lymphatic, PTE

45
Q

Exudates are seen in what diseases?

A

Infection, sepsis, neoplasia, inflammation

46
Q

Describe a mesothelial cell

A

CENTRAL ROUND NUCLEI WITH A MODERATE AMOUNT OF LIGHT PURPLE CYTOPLASM AND A “CORONA” OR “FRINGE” TO THE CYTOPLASMIC BORDERS

47
Q

Where are mesothelial cells found?

A

Line body cavities

48
Q

What is pleocytosis in CSF?

A

ELEVATED CSF NUCLEATED CELL COUNT, MOSTLY DUE TO NEUTROPHILS

49
Q

What are indications of normal CSF?

A

NO RBCS •<25 NUCLEATED CELLS/MILLILITER •95% TO 100% MONONUCLEAR CELLS (LYMPHOCYTES)

50
Q

What does Malassezia look like?

A

Boot print

51
Q

What are common abnormal findings in an ear cytology?

A

Yeast, malassazia, bacteria, parasites, mites

52
Q

What are the predominant cells during anestrus?

A

NONCORNIFIED SQUAMOUS EPITHELIAL CELLS

53
Q

What are the predominant cells during the stages of proestrus?

A

EARLY: PROESTRUSEARLY •HIGH NUMBERS OF RBCS ALONG WITH BASAL AND PARABASAL EPITHELIAL CELLS
LATER: RBCS DECREASE AND EPITHELIAL CELLS SHOW SIGNS OF CORNIFICATION
LATE: ALL EPITHELIAL CELLS ARE INTERMEDIATE

54
Q

What are the predominant cells during estrus?

A

SQUAMOUS EPITHELIAL CELLS ARE CORNIFIED AND USUALLY ANUCLEAR

55
Q

What are the predominant cells during met/diestrus?

A

NONCORNIFIED SQUAMOUS EPITHELIAL CELLS

56
Q

What characteristics should be noted in semen evaluation?

A

VOLUME OF EJACULATION•GROSS APPEARANCE•WAVE MOTION•MICROSCOPIC MOTILITY•SPERMATOZOAL CONCENTRATION•RATIO OF LIVE/DEAD SPERMATOZOA•PRESENCE OF FOREIGN CELLS OR MATERIAL

57
Q

What are the classifications of sperm motility?

A

Very good, good, fair, poor

58
Q

What do epithelial cell tumors look like?

A

Highly cellular, often exfoliate into clumps or sheets

59
Q

What do mesenchymal cell tumors look like?

A

AKA sarcoma, usually less cellular, tend to exfoliate singly or in wispy spindles

60
Q

What do discrete cell tumors look like?

A

Exfoliate very well but usually not in clumps/clusters

61
Q

When greater than 15% of a cytology sample contains macrophages, it’s classified as what?

A

Granulotomous

62
Q

What do karyolyis look like?

A

Nucleus that appears swollen/ragged without an intact nuclear membrane

63
Q

How long should prepared cytology slides remain in fixative?

A

2-5 minutes

64
Q

How is suppurative inflammation characterized?

A

Presence of >85% of TNCC

65
Q

Pyknosis is what?

A

Slow cell death, and refers to a small, condensed dark nucleus

66
Q

Epithelial cell tumors are also referred to as what?

A

Adeno/carcinomas

67
Q

What does a plasma cell tumor look like?

A

Has eccentrically located nucleus and prominent perinuclear clear zone

68
Q

What do cornified epithelial cells look like?

A

Angular, no nuclear or pyknotic nuclei

69
Q

What are mott cells?

A

Plasma cells containing secretory vesicles of Ig

70
Q

Normal peritoneal/pleural fluids have less than how many nucleated cells per mcl?

A

10,000

71
Q

What is the nuclear criteria of cell malignancy?

A

Anisokaryosis, pleomorphism, high/variable nucleus:cytoplasm ratio, increased mitotic activity, coarse chromatin pattern, nuclear molding, multinucleation

72
Q

What are evaluations performed on a semen sample?

A

Volume, gross appearance, wave motion, motility, sperm concentration, ration of dead: live sperm, morphology, presence of foreign cells or material

73
Q

The starfish smear is also called:

A

the needle spread technique

74
Q

A line smear should be used in what samples?

A

Low cellularity and small volumes

75
Q

What is a Tzanck preparation?

A

Making multiple imprints from different layers of an external lesion

76
Q

Dry tissue samples can be moistened with what?

A

0.9% saline

77
Q

What is the most common liquid medium and what does it grow?

A

Thioglycollate broth

Anaerobic bacteria

78
Q

BUTT detects what?

A

Glucose fermentation

79
Q

Triple sugar iron agar screens for what?

A

Gram negative enterobacteria which ferment glucose, become acidic and turn yellow, and alkalization turns red

80
Q

What bacteria ferments glucose?

A

Salmonella

81
Q

What color do acid fast staining bacteria turn and what bacteria are they?

A

Red

Gram positive

82
Q

Which agar is primarily used for the agar diffusion C&S test?

A

Muehler-Hinton

Clinical Chemistry (7 decks)

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