Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Clinical Chemistry > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Clinically significant bacteria grow in what ph and temperature range?

A

6.5-7.5, 20-40 C (37 C)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are microaerophilic bacteria?

A

Bacteria that prefer reduced oxygen tension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are capnophilic bacteria?

A

Bacteria requiring high levels of CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are fastidious microbes?

A

Bacteria with strict growth requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are 4 bacteria shapes?

A

Coccus, Bacillus, Coccobacillus and pleomorphic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How many phases of growth does bacteria have?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Fungal organisms consist largely of what?

A

Tubes called hyphae which grow toward food sources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What can aid in the IDing of fungi?

A

Presence or absence of cross walls within the hyphae (growth tubes) underneath the microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The catalase test is used to ID which type of bacteria?

A

Gram positive Cocci and Bacilli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are 3 methods of sample collection in microbiology?

A

Aspiration, swabbing, imprinting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Why are samples that are going to be gram stained, heat fixed?

A

To fix the sample to the slide, kills and makes the bacteria permeable and preserves cell morphology.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the reagent used for the catalase test?

A

3% hydrogen peroxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is alpha hemolysis?

A

Partial hemolysis that creates a narrow band of greenish or slimy discoloration around the bacterial colony

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a culture medium?

A

Any material that can support the growth of microorganisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is enriched media?

A

Media with extra nutrients like egg, blood or serum, to meet the needs of fastidious pathogens. Ex, blood/chocolate agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is selective media?

A

Media containing bile salts or antimicrobials that inhibit or kill all but a few types of bacteria. Ex. MacConkey agar.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is differential media?

A

Media that allows bacteria to be differentiated into groups based on their biochemical reaction in the medium. Ex. Simmons citrate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is enrichment media?

A

Media that favors the growth of certain types of pathogens. Ex. Tetrathionate or selenite broth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is transport media?

A

Media designed to keep microbes alive while discouraging growth and reproduction. Culturette contains this.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the most common blood agar used?

A

Trypticase soy agar with sheep blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Blood agar acts as which 2 media?

A

Enrichment and differential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is thioglycollate broth?

A

Liquid medium used to culture anaerobic bacteria to determine their oxygen tolerance. Obligate aerobes grow in the top layer, and obligate anaerobes grow in the bottom layer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

MacConkey agar is commonly used to grow what bacteria?

A

Gram negative, ex. Enterobacteriaceae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

EMB agar is used to ID what organisms?

A

Lactose fermenting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Hairs infected with the species Microsporum (ringworm) grow what color under a Wood’s lamp?

A

Clear apple green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is a reagent?

A

A substance or mixture for use in chemical analysis or other reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What reagent is used to prepare a solid tissue sample for fungal testing?

A

Potassium hydroxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the MIC?

A

Minimum inhibitory concentration, the lowest concentration of an antibiotic that will inhibit the growth of bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Acid fast and non-acid fast stains what colors?

A

Acid fast stains red, non acid fast stains blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Giemsa stain is used to detect what?

A

Spirochetes and rickettsiae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is exudate? What are the lab normals?

A

Fluids with increased cellularity and protein concentration. Turbid, white or slightly yellow.
SG > 1.025, TP > 3.0, TNCC > 3000Neut, mononuclear, rbc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Fluid samples in cytology should be collected in what chemical?

A

EDTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

A line smear in cytology is used for what?

A

Low cellularity fluid or a small volume

34
Q

Cytology slides should be in fixative for how long?

A

2-5 minutes

35
Q

What is the preferred fixative for cytology slides?

A

95% methanol

36
Q

What is the benefit of using new methylene blue in cytology?

A

Give excellent nuclear detail, used as an adjunct to Romanowsky. Does not stain RBC.

37
Q

What should be submitted in a cytology sample for cells and fluids?

A

2-3 air dried unstained smears, 2-3 romanowsky stained smears for cells. For fluids, direct and concentrated smears in EDTA/red top tube should be submitted.

38
Q

Peritoneal and pleural fluid is collected in what tube?

A

EDTA and RTT

39
Q

What do you observe and record in peritoneal/pleural fluid?

A

Color, turbidity and odor

40
Q

Total nucleated cell counts are performed the same as what other procedure?

41
Q

What is transudate? What are the lab normals?

A

Clear fluid that’s poor in protein with low cellularity. SG < 1.017, TP < 2.5, TNCC < 1000/mcl

42
Q

What is modified transudate? What are the lab normals?

A

Light yellow, clear fluid that’s protein rich with mononuclear cells and high cellularity.
SG 1.017 – 1.025, TP 2.5 – 5, TNCC 500 – 10,000Lymph, mono, meso, rbc, neut

43
Q

Transudate is seen in what diseases?

A

Ascites, secondary to CHF and hypoalbunemia, cyst rupture

44
Q

Modified transudate is seen in what diseases?

A

Cardiac, lymphatic, PTE

45
Q

Exudates are seen in what diseases?

A

Infection, sepsis, neoplasia, inflammation

46
Q

Describe a mesothelial cell

A

CENTRAL ROUND NUCLEI WITH A MODERATE AMOUNT OF LIGHT PURPLE CYTOPLASM AND A “CORONA” OR “FRINGE” TO THE CYTOPLASMIC BORDERS

47
Q

Where are mesothelial cells found?

A

Line body cavities

48
Q

What is pleocytosis in CSF?

A

ELEVATED CSF NUCLEATED CELL COUNT, MOSTLY DUE TO NEUTROPHILS

49
Q

What are indications of normal CSF?

A

NO RBCS •<25 NUCLEATED CELLS/MILLILITER •95% TO 100% MONONUCLEAR CELLS (LYMPHOCYTES)

50
Q

What does Malassezia look like?

A

Boot print

51
Q

What are common abnormal findings in an ear cytology?

A

Yeast, malassazia, bacteria, parasites, mites

52
Q

What are the predominant cells during anestrus?

A

NONCORNIFIED SQUAMOUS EPITHELIAL CELLS

53
Q

What are the predominant cells during the stages of proestrus?

A

EARLY: PROESTRUSEARLY •HIGH NUMBERS OF RBCS ALONG WITH BASAL AND PARABASAL EPITHELIAL CELLS
LATER: RBCS DECREASE AND EPITHELIAL CELLS SHOW SIGNS OF CORNIFICATION
LATE: ALL EPITHELIAL CELLS ARE INTERMEDIATE

54
Q

What are the predominant cells during estrus?

A

SQUAMOUS EPITHELIAL CELLS ARE CORNIFIED AND USUALLY ANUCLEAR

55
Q

What are the predominant cells during met/diestrus?

A

NONCORNIFIED SQUAMOUS EPITHELIAL CELLS

56
Q

What characteristics should be noted in semen evaluation?

A

VOLUME OF EJACULATION•GROSS APPEARANCE•WAVE MOTION•MICROSCOPIC MOTILITY•SPERMATOZOAL CONCENTRATION•RATIO OF LIVE/DEAD SPERMATOZOA•PRESENCE OF FOREIGN CELLS OR MATERIAL

57
Q

What are the classifications of sperm motility?

A

Very good, good, fair, poor

58
Q

What do epithelial cell tumors look like?

A

Highly cellular, often exfoliate into clumps or sheets

59
Q

What do mesenchymal cell tumors look like?

A

AKA sarcoma, usually less cellular, tend to exfoliate singly or in wispy spindles

60
Q

What do discrete cell tumors look like?

A

Exfoliate very well but usually not in clumps/clusters

61
Q

When greater than 15% of a cytology sample contains macrophages, it’s classified as what?

A

Granulotomous

62
Q

What do karyolyis look like?

A

Nucleus that appears swollen/ragged without an intact nuclear membrane

63
Q

How long should prepared cytology slides remain in fixative?

A

2-5 minutes

64
Q

How is suppurative inflammation characterized?

A

Presence of >85% of TNCC

65
Q

Pyknosis is what?

A

Slow cell death, and refers to a small, condensed dark nucleus

66
Q

Epithelial cell tumors are also referred to as what?

A

Adeno/carcinomas

67
Q

What does a plasma cell tumor look like?

A

Has eccentrically located nucleus and prominent perinuclear clear zone

68
Q

What do cornified epithelial cells look like?

A

Angular, no nuclear or pyknotic nuclei

69
Q

What are mott cells?

A

Plasma cells containing secretory vesicles of Ig

70
Q

Normal peritoneal/pleural fluids have less than how many nucleated cells per mcl?

71
Q

What is the nuclear criteria of cell malignancy?

A

Anisokaryosis, pleomorphism, high/variable nucleus:cytoplasm ratio, increased mitotic activity, coarse chromatin pattern, nuclear molding, multinucleation

72
Q

What are evaluations performed on a semen sample?

A

Volume, gross appearance, wave motion, motility, sperm concentration, ration of dead: live sperm, morphology, presence of foreign cells or material

73
Q

The starfish smear is also called:

A

the needle spread technique

74
Q

A line smear should be used in what samples?

A

Low cellularity and small volumes

75
Q

What is a Tzanck preparation?

A

Making multiple imprints from different layers of an external lesion

76
Q

Dry tissue samples can be moistened with what?

A

0.9% saline

77
Q

What is the most common liquid medium and what does it grow?

A

Thioglycollate broth

Anaerobic bacteria

78
Q

BUTT detects what?

A

Glucose fermentation

79
Q

Triple sugar iron agar screens for what?

A

Gram negative enterobacteria which ferment glucose, become acidic and turn yellow, and alkalization turns red

80
Q

What bacteria ferments glucose?

A

Salmonella

81
Q

What color do acid fast staining bacteria turn and what bacteria are they?

A

Red

Gram positive

82
Q

Which agar is primarily used for the agar diffusion C&S test?

A

Muehler-Hinton

Clinical Chemistry (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions