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Clinical Chemistry > ALL CHAPTERS > Flashcards

ALL CHAPTERS Flashcards

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1
Q

What is a band cell?

A

Horse shoe shaped nucleus with parallel sides, immature neutrophil

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2
Q

When do growing granulocytes differentiate?

A

At the myelocyte stage

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3
Q

Heparin is used for what kind of testing?

A

Chemistry

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4
Q

EDTA is used for what kind of testing?

A

Hemotology

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5
Q

Sodium Citrate (BTT) is used for what kind of testing?

A

Hemostasis

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6
Q

A rocker shouldn’t be used for which tube?

A

Blue top

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7
Q

Which portion of blood contains fibrinogen?

A

Plasma

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8
Q

What is proper order of draw?

A

BTT, RTT, Green, Lavender, Gray

or BTGLG

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9
Q

Relative polycythemia can be caused by what?

A

Splenic contraction or dehydration

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10
Q

Primary polycythemia can be caused by what?

A

myeloproliferative disorders

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11
Q

Secondary polycythemia can be caused by what?

A

renal and lung disorders

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12
Q

Exotic animal blood cells counts require what?

A

Leukopet system

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13
Q

CBC includes:

A

Automated RBC/WBC/PLT count, manual PCV/TP, Hgb, RBC indices, morphologies

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14
Q

What do erythrocyte indices help do?

A

Classify anemia

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15
Q

MCV measures what?

A

average size of RBC.

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16
Q

MCH measures what?

A

average weight of hgb

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17
Q

MCHC measures what?

A

concentration of hgb.

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18
Q

What’s the difference between Diff Quik (Romanowsky variant) and New Methylene blue stain?

A

New Methylene blue is for reticulocytes and Heinz bodies, Diff Quik is for morphology ID and blood disease ID

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19
Q

What does not indicate regenerative anemia?

A

Target cells

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20
Q

What are 3 things involved in a differential blood smear?

A

Count 100 WBCs, Estimate platelet count, morphology

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21
Q

A leukocyte that has a round or closely knit or clumpy nucleus and the cytoplasm is usually light blue

A

Lymphocyte

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22
Q

A leukocyte that has a segmented nucleus and small light brown or clear granules in the cytoplasm

A

Neutrophil

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23
Q

A leukocyte that has a lacey appearing nucleus that is usually sprawling all over the cell and commonly contains vacuoles

A

Monocyte

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24
Q

A leukocyte that has a segmented nucleus and large orange or red granules in the cytoplasm

A

Eosinophil

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25
Q

A leukocyte that has a segmented nucleus and large purplish granules in the cytoplasm

A

Basophil

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26
Q

What is the difference between poikilocytosis and anisocytosis?

A

Poikilocytosis is different shapes, anisocytosis is different sizes

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27
Q

How much of the total protein does albumin make up?

A

35-50%

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28
Q

What does albumin do?

A

Maintains osmotic pressure. Not even and contents of vessels will start to leak out.

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29
Q

What is the term for not having enough albumin?

A

Hypoproteinemia

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30
Q

What makes fibrinogen and albumin?

A

Hepatocytes

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31
Q

Fibrinogen is the precursor to what?

A

Fibrin

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32
Q

What are 3 protein assays? What do they not necessarily test?

A

Albumin, Fibrinogen, Globulins

Liver

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33
Q

What are 2 hepatobiliary assays?

A

ALT and AST

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34
Q

What are 2 Hepatocyte function tests?

A

Bilirubin and bile acid

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35
Q

What is bilirubin?

A

insoluble molecule from the breakdown of Hgb by macrophages in the spleen

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36
Q

Increased conjugated bilirubin indicates what?

A

Bile duct obstruction

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37
Q

Increased unconjugated bilirubin indicates what?

A

hepatic damage, problem with bile uptake

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38
Q

How is bilirubin conjugated (made water soluble)?

A

hepatocytes conjugate and metabolize the bilirubin

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39
Q

What are the 3 kidney assays?

A

BUN, creatinine, SDMA

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40
Q

What is BUN?

A

main end product of AA breakdown, based on ability of kidney to remove N waste from blood

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41
Q

What is azotemia?

A

Increased retention of urea in the blood

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42
Q

What is creatinine? How is it used in tests?

A

Formed by creatine found in skeletal muscle. Evaluated based on ability of glomeruli to filter creatinine from blood and eliminate into the urine

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43
Q

What is hemostasis?

A

The ability of the body to maintain the integrity of the blood and vessels

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44
Q

What does hemostasis involve?

A

Complex pathways, platelets and coagulation factors

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45
Q

What are the 3 phases of coagulation?

A

Mechanical or primary, chemical or secondary, final or tertiary

46
Q

What happens during primary hemostasis?

A

Initiated when blood vessels are torn, requires von Willebrand factor to stabilize platelet plug. Adhesions trigger chemical phase.

47
Q

What does secondary hemostasis involve?

A

13 factors, intrinsic/extrinsic pathways, and results in a fibrin mesh (clot)

48
Q

What does tertiary hemostasis involve?

A

Fibrinolysis caused by the breakdown of fibrin into fibrin degeneration products by tPA

49
Q

What are 2 tests to be done for the final coagulation stage?

A

D-Dimers and FDP’s, to test how well fibrin is collecting in the clot

50
Q

Which test can we do in the primary coagulation stage?

A

Platelet ct, bucco mucosal bleeding time (BMBT)

51
Q

Which test can we do in the secondary coagulation stage?

A

Blue top tube, test PT/PTT (tests extrinsic)

52
Q

What are 3 things you should minimize when collecting a blood sample for platelet testing?

A

Minimize tissue damage, minimize venous stasis (pooling), minimize excitation of patients

53
Q

What are the blood sample tools you should use for platelet testing, and which shouldn’t you use?

A

Use vacutainer or monovette, don’t use an indwelling catheter

54
Q

What is the ratio of citrate to plasma?

A

1:9

55
Q

What should I consider if a patient is anemic while pulling blood for a platelet test?

A

Anemic patients have more plasma, therefore more citrate may need to be added to keep the 1:9 ratio

56
Q

If unable to perform a platelet test within 2 hours of getting the blood, what do you do?

A

Separate plasma, then freeze it until it can be shipped on dry ice

57
Q

Coag DX Analyzer does what 2 tests?

A

Prothrombin time (PT) and Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

58
Q

When doing platelet estimation/evaluation, which tube is used?

A

LTT

59
Q

When doing platelet clotting tests, which color tube is used?

A

BTT

60
Q

What are the 3 platelet indices?

A

MPV, plateletcrit (PCT), and platelet distribution width

61
Q

What is the mean platelet volume?

A

Average size of platelets

62
Q

What is the plateletcrit?

A

Measures percentage of total blood volume comprised of platelets

63
Q

What is the platelet distribution width (PDW)?

A

Assesses variation in platelet size

64
Q

What are reticulated platelets?

A

Newly released platelets with high levels of RNA

65
Q

Prolonged bleeding in a BMBT test indicates what?

A

Deficiencies in von Willebrand factor or thrombocytopenia

66
Q

Activated clotting time can evaluate every significant clotting factor except what?

A

Factor 7

67
Q

aPTT test evaluates what?

A

Intrinsic and common coagulation pathways

68
Q

PT test evaluates what?

A

Extrinsic and common coagulation pathways

69
Q

D-Dimer and FDP are useful in IDing what?

A

DIC, liver failure, trauma, hemangiosarcoma

70
Q

D-Dimer and FDP evaluate what?

A

Tertiary hemostasis or fibrinolysis

71
Q

PIVKA proteins are induced by the absence of which vitamin? What does it test for?

A

Vitamin K

rodenticide poisoning

72
Q

How long is PIVKA prolonged after rodenticide ingestion?

A

6 hours

73
Q

How long is the PT prolonged after rodenticide ingestion? What about aPTT?

A

24 hours

48 hours

74
Q

Von Willebrand factor is important for what?

A

To continue to the second phase of coagulation cascade, and required for platelet adhesion to collagen.

75
Q

What is the most common hereditary coagulation disease? How can it be acquired?

A

Von Willebrands Dz

Liver disease and rodenticide poisoning

76
Q

What is the most commonly inherited factor deficiency in dogs? Which factor is gone>

A

Hemophilia A

Factor 8

77
Q

Hemophilia B, aka Christmas disease, is deficient in which factor?

A

Factor 9

78
Q

Which types of von Willebrands disease are the most severe?

A

Type 2 & 3

79
Q

What is the most common acquired coagulation disorder seen in practice?

A

Thrombocytopenia

80
Q

Vitamin K is required for synthesis and activation of which factors? What can cause deficiency?

A

Factors 2,7,9,10

Rodenticide or moldy sweet clover ingestion

81
Q

DIC is secondary to many conditions such as:

A

Trauma, heat stroke, septicemia, pancreatitis, GDV, toxins, parasites, viruses

82
Q

What is the primary site for production and maturation of all blood cells and PLT?

A

Red bone marrow

83
Q

All cells arise from which cell?

A

Pluripotent Hematopoietic Stem Cell

84
Q

Thrombopoietin is produced primarily in what organ?

A

Liver

85
Q

T lymphocytes are made where?

A

Thymus

86
Q

B lymphocytes are made where and make what?

A

Bone marrow, make antibodies

87
Q

What is a left shift?

A

Increased numbers of immature neutrophils

88
Q

Which color tube is used for chemistry testing?

A

GTT

89
Q

Which color tube is used for hematology testing?

A

PTT

90
Q

Which color tube is used for hemostasis testing?

A

BTT

91
Q

What is the order of draw of blood tubes?

A

BTT, RTT, TT, GTT, LTT, Gray

92
Q

What does MCV measure?

A

Average size of RBC

93
Q

What does MCH measure?

A

weight of hemoglobin contained in the average RBC

94
Q

What does MCHC measure?

A

concentration of hemoglobin

95
Q

What is the formula for MCV, MCH and MCHC? Units?

A

MCV: PCV/TRBC10=fL
MCH: Hgb/TRBC10=pg
MCHC: Hgb/PCV*100=g/dL

96
Q

What does a differential include?

A

WBC differential count (100), WBC/RBC/Platelet morphology, Platelet estimation

97
Q

What does a CBC include?

A

Automated Hematology report, PCV/TP, Hgb, erythrocyte indices, differential

98
Q

What do high amounts of neutrophils indicate?

A

Inflammation or infection

99
Q

What do high amounts of eosinophils indicate? How long do they live?

A

Allergies, parasitic infections/infestations, lives 30 min

100
Q

What do high amounts of basophils indicate?

A

Inflammation or infectious conditions

101
Q

What do high amounts of lymphocytes indicate? What’s their major function?

A

Viral infection

Production of antibodies

102
Q

What do high amounts of monocytes indicate? What’s their major function?

A

Chronic infection

Phagocytosis

103
Q

Eosinate stain, stains what?

A

Basic components of the cell like hemoglobin and eosinophilic granules

104
Q

Polychromed Methylene Blue stains what?

A

Acidic components of the cell

105
Q

Under a Wright’s stain, reticulocytes like like:

A

Polychromatophils and macrocytes

106
Q

You can see reticulocytes clearly under which stain?

A

New Methylene Blue

107
Q

What are the 2 forms of reticulocytes in cats?

A

Punctate and aggregate

108
Q

Which large animal doesn’t produce reticulocytes?

A

Horses

109
Q

What is the predominance of blast cells in the bone marrow, disease called?

A

Leukemia

110
Q

What cells make thrombocytes?

A

Megakaryocytes

111
Q

Where in the body does extravascular hemolysis occur?

A

Spleen

112
Q

Increased intravascular hemolysis leads to what?

A

Jaundice

Clinical Chemistry (7 decks)

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