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micro final > micro exam 2 ( done) > Flashcards

micro exam 2 ( done) Flashcards

1
Q

A 43-year-old female consults a telephone advice RN due to concern over

What is the most concerning possible cause of the patient’s persistent fever and other symptoms?

A

Cancer

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2
Q

A 43-year-old female consults a telephone advice RN due to concern over

Based upon the patient’s report, the RN infers that the tender, palpable lump under the right arm is most likely which of the following?

A

Lymph node

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3
Q

A 43-year-old female consults a telephone advice RN due to concern over

The RN anticipates the physician will order which of the following tests?

A

all of the choices are correct.

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4
Q

A 43-year-old female consults a telephone advice RN due to concern over

When does the RN advise the patient to see the physician?

A

In the next 24 hours

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5
Q

A 43-year-old female consults a telephone advice RN due to concern over

After a thorough medical work up, the patient is diagnosed with breast cancer. Which of the following is the source of the patient’s persistent fever?

A

Endogenous pyrogens

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6
Q

A 38-year-old patient presents to an emergency department with reported

Which of the following autoimmune diseases is the most likely diagnosis based upon the patient’s presentation?

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus

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7
Q

A 38-year-old patient presents to an emergency department with reported

What type of hypersensitivity do the patient’s symptoms demonstrate?

A

Type III: Immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity

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7
Q

A 38-year-old patient presents to an emergency department with reported

Which of the following organs may be affected in the patient’s disease?

A

All of these choices are correct.

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8
Q

A 38-year-old patient presents to an emergency department with reported

The RN may anticipate which of the following medications to be initiated for this patient?

A

All of these choices are correct.

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9
Q

A 38-year-old patient presents to an emergency department with reported

Which of the following statements by the patient demonstrates a proper understanding of autoimmune disease?

A

My body has formed antibodies against itself

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10
Q

The ________ of a test means the test can detect even very small concentrations of the antigen or antibody being analyzed, whereas the ________ of a test focuses on the ability of a test to only detect the desired antigen or antibody without reacting with other unrelated substances.

A

sensitivity; specificity

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10
Q

Superantigens are ________.

A

bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens

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11
Q

Helper T cells ________.

A

activate B cells and other T cells

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12
Q

Point- source epidemic

A

Epidemic in which the infectious agent came from a single source and all victims were exposed to that source, at approximately the same time

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12
Q

Propagated epidemic

A

An epidemic that is sustained over time by its spread from person to person

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12
Q

common - source epidemic

A

An outbreak resulting from common exposure to a single source of an infection that occured over a period of time

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13
Q

The public health department is following a 34-year-old male who has rep

A Western blot test will be performed. The nurse educates the patient that the Western blot test has high sensitivity and specificity. Which of the following statements by the patient demonstrates understanding of this teaching?

A

The Western blot test is unlikely to generate a false-positive result. This will be used to confirm or refute the ELISA test results.

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14
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes causes all of the following except ________.

A

scalded skin syndrome

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14
Q

The public health department is following a 34-year-old male who has rep

The patient reports that he had a negative HIV PCR test about a month ago. What is the most appropriate interpretation of this information by the nurse?

A

It is possible the ELISA was a false-positive, and the Western blot must be performed to confirm the results.

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14
Q

The public health department is following a 34-year-old male who has rep

An ELISA test sent for HIV screening came back with a positive result. The nurse educates the patient that this test is highly sensitive with low specificity. Which of the following statements by the patient demonstrates understanding of this teaching?

A

It is possible that this is a false-positive result since the test may have been positive for something other than HIV.

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15
Q

Which of the following is a special binding substance that enhances immunogenicity and prolongs antigen retention at the injection site?

A

Adjuvant

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16
Q

Select the correctly apply to PAMPS and PRRS

A

PRRs are present at all times on phagocytic cells and even lymphocytes, regardless of whether they have encountered their corresponding PAMP
PAMPS are molecules present only on microorganisms and they serve as signal molecules for pathogen recognition
Peptidoglycan, LPS, and double- stranded RNA and all PAMPS since they are not present in eukaryotic cells

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16
Q

Diapedesis is the ________.

A

migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues

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17
Q

Immune system cells differentiate between self and foreign cells by their ________.

A

markers

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18
Q

Pig picture

A
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18
Q

Gamma-delta T cells differ from other T cells in that ________.

A

they can be directly activated by PAMPs, whereas other T cells have to be presented with the antigen in conjunction with an MHC molecule on an antigen-presenting cell

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19
Q

Which is incorrect about the MMR immunization?

A

Contains toxoids

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19
Q

Chickenpox ________.

A

All of the choices are correct.

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20
Q

Titer is the amount of ________.

A

antibody in serum

21
Q

. This febrile disease with a rash has a pathogen that can cross the placenta and cause serious fetal damage.

A

Rubella

21
Q

Healthcare-associated infections involve all the following except _______.

A

they are only transmitted by medical personnel

22
Q

The virus that causes rabies, and the rhinovirus that causes the common cold are both considered true pathogens; the degree of pathogenicity is determined by their _______.

A

virulence

23
Q

What enzyme is not found in Staphylococcus epidermidis but is found in Staphylococcus aureus?

A

Coagulase

23
Q

A positive indirect ELISA result requires ________.

A

a known antigen, an unknown antibody, and a known antibody

24
Q

Similar to macrophages, ________ are products of the monocytic cell line that reside throughout the tissues and present antigen to lymphocytes.

A

dendritic cells

24
Q

Allergic reactions to penicillins are considered a(n) _____ hypersensitivity.

A

immediate

25
Q

MHC molecules are found on each of the following cells except ________.

A

red blood cells

25
Q

Main function is to serve as antigen receptor on B- cell surface

A

IgD

25
Q

The DiGeorge syndrome is the result of ________.

A

congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland

26
Q

Which of the following is not a property of B cells?

A

Require antigen presented with MHC proteins

27
Q

Antibody made at the beginning of initial response to antigen

A

IgM

27
Q

Dimer that is a significant component of mucus and secretion

A

IgA

28
Q

Most prevalent in circulation

A

IgG

29
Q

Mediates allergic response

A

Ige

29
Q

MRSAs are Staphylococcus aureus strains that are ________.

A

resistant to penicillin derivatives

30
Q

An RN is caring for a 32-year-old male patient with acquired immunodefic

Which of the following lymphocytes are affected by HIV?

A

Helper T cells

30
Q

An RN is caring for a 32-year-old male patient with acquired immunodefic

What statement by the patient best demonstrates understanding of the role of helper T cells?

A

Helper T cells regulate immune reactions through both B cells and T cells

31
Q

An RN in an oncology unit is caring for a 70-year-old patient recovering

In order to prevent the spread of disease to other patients, the RN observes all of the following precautions, except _______.

A

disinfection of needles following injections

31
Q

An RN is caring for a 32-year-old male patient with acquired immunodefic

Which of the following signs is most indicative of the development of AIDS from HIV?

A

Recurrent diseases

32
Q

An RN is caring for a 32-year-old male patient with acquired immunodefic

Which of the following presents the greatest risk for infection for this patient?

A

Exposure to individuals with contagious acute illness

32
Q

Hematopoiesis is the ________

A

production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets

33
Q

An RN in an oncology unit is caring for a 70-year-old patient recovering

All of the following factors increase the patient’s risk for Clostridioides difficile infection, except _______.

A

genetic defect

33
Q

Which of the following is incorrect about circulating blood cells?

A

Include Kupffer cells

34
Q

An RN in an oncology unit is caring for a 70-year-old patient recovering

The patient developed the infection since hospitalization. Which of the following terms best describes this type of infection?

A

Healthcare-associated infection

35
Q

If an infectious disease emerged that was highly contagious and virulent, resulting in certain death with no known cure, epidemiological data would show _______.

A

a high incidence and low prevalence

35
Q

An RN in an oncology unit is caring for a 70-year-old patient recovering

The patient is experiencing severe diarrhea every 6 hours. Which phase of infection is she most likely experiencing?

A

Period of invasion

36
Q

A female who is Rh– ________.

A

is at risk for a pregnancy resulting in hemolytic disease of the newborn

37
Q

Choose the statement that best describes the PCR’s usefulness in infectious disease diagnosis.

A

Results in amplification of sample DNA

37
Q

As an RN with the infectious disease team, you are providing an educatio

Which of the following statements by a new nurse demonstrates understanding of the cause of infectious disease?

A

“Host resistance and organism pathogenicity determine the type and severity of infection an individual will experience.”

38
Q

As an RN with the infectious disease team, you are providing an educatio

As the RN, you educate the new nurses about the prevalence of healthcare-associated infections. All of the following are frequent sources of patient infection, except ________.

A

hospital beds

39
Q

As an RN with the infectious disease team, you are providing an educatio

The infectious disease RN discusses scenarios that require hand washing with germicidal soap and water instead of alcohol-based hand cleanser. Which of the following statements by a new nurse is most accurate regarding when hands should be washed with soap and water?

A

“I should wash my hands when they are visibly contaminated, but also before and after using gloves.”

39
Q

High titers of specific antibodies are components of ________.

A

specific immune globulin (SIG)

40
Q

Corticosteroids will ________.

A

Inhibit the activity of lymphocytes

40
Q

Leukopenia is the ______ in the level of white blood cells in a patient.

A

Decrease

41
Q

The most significant cells in graft rejection are ________.

A

cytotoxic T cells

41
Q

What involves determination of donor HLA antigens compared to those of the recipient’s tissue?

A

Both skin graft and organ transplantation

42
Q

Which event occurs with the sensitizing dose of allergen?

A

Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils

43
Q

All of the following pertain to interferon except it ________.

A

increases capillary permeability and vasodilation

44
Q

A 21-year-old male college student reports to the school health clinic w

The causative organism for measles is a ________.

A

virus

45
Q

A 21-year-old male college student reports to the school health clinic w

Which of the following interactions is most likely to transmit the disease?

A

Sneezing

46
Q

A 21-year-old male college student reports to the school health clinic w

Which of the following is the most effective method of measles prevention?

A

Vaccination

47
Q

The major category(ies) of hypersensitivity that typically involve a B-cell immunoglobulin response is (are) ________.

A

type I, type II, and type III

micro final (7 decks)

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