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micro Flashcards

1
Q

transpeptidase

A

peptidoglycan synthesis

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2
Q

methicilin

A

effective against pen G resistant staph aureus

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3
Q

glycopeptides mech of action

A

binds to terminal D-ala D-ala and prevents cell wall synthesis

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4
Q

eg of a glycopeptide

A

vancomycin

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5
Q

aminoglycosides mech of action

A

bind to ribosome and distort reading frame, abnormal protein production, cell wall weakens, increased entry and total ribosome blockade

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6
Q

eg of an aminoglycoside

A

gentamicin

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7
Q

metronidazole

A

to kill anaerobes - need nitroreductase to activate

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8
Q

3 things resistant to vancomycin

A

gram neg
resistant enterococci
vancomycin intermediate SA

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9
Q

mech of action vancomycin intermediate SA

A

produces extra peptidoglycan

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10
Q

resistnat enterococci mech of action

A

replaces D-ala with D-lac

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11
Q

mech of action methicillin resistant SA

A

produces altered penicillin binding proteins/transpeptidases

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12
Q

what do you use doxyclcine for

A

mycoplasma

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13
Q

what is bacterial lag phase

A

when grow before binary fission

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14
Q

facultative anaerobes

A

grow w or w/out O

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15
Q

how does yersinia enter cells

A

binds to integrins on M cell surface and induces phagocytosis

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16
Q

pyogenic pathogen

A

pathogen that evades phagocytosis

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17
Q

facultative intracellular pathogen

A

pathogen that resists killing inside clel

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18
Q

where does TB live

A

inside macs

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19
Q

strategies to evade phagocytosis

A

produce leukocidins - kill WBCs
surface anti-phagocytic structures
interfere with opsonins

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20
Q

what is a capsule made out of

A

polysaccharide

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21
Q

what is adult and child pneumococcal vaccine

A

adult - 23 valent polysaccharide vaccine

children - 13 valent conjugated

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22
Q

why do capsules enhance virulence

A

either

  1. resemble host components - strep pyogenes
  2. mask underlying structures e.g. LPS - so complement cant bind via alt pathway
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23
Q

how does IgM and IgG cause phagocytosis

A

IgM fixes complement C3b - phagocytes have C3bRs

IgG R for heavy chain on phagocytes

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24
Q

difference between endo and exotoxin

A

endotoxin - LPS - released as cell dying, heat resistant, causes fever, non-specific

exotoxin - active secretion of protein from multiplying bacteria, high antigenicity, highly specific

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25
Q

eg of a cytotoxic exotoxin

A

shiga toxin, diptheria

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26
Q

eg of a cytotonic endotoxin

A

cholera, hs enterotoxin

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27
Q

structure of shiga toxin, what type of toxin is it

A

B (binding) and A (enzymatically active) subunits

intracellular cytotoxic exotoxin

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28
Q

what can you make toxoid out of

A

exotoxin (NOT ENDOTOXIN)

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29
Q

what are super antigens

A

bind directly to MHCII and recognised by lots of T cells

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30
Q

what does binding of PAMP to PRR on DC cause

A

increased MHCI and II
increased CD80/86
decreased adhesion molecules
migrate to lymph node

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31
Q

what do Th1 cells produce

A

IFNgamma and TNF

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32
Q

what is ab dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity

A

IgG binds, NK cell has FceRs recognises Fc portion of Abs, binds releases IFNgamma and perforin and causes lysis

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33
Q

structure of tetracyclins

A

4 membered ring structure

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34
Q

penicillin V

A

oral :)

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35
Q

ampicillin

A

kills cocci and rods

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36
Q

methicillin

A

to treat penicillin resistant staph aureus

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37
Q

amoxycillin

A

basically = ampicillin

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38
Q

what is vancomycin

A

glycopeptide - works on cell wall

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39
Q

what is e.g. of aminoglycoside

A

gentamicin

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40
Q

mech of action of vancomycin

A

glycopeptide - binds to terminal D-ala D-ala so can’t cross-link - terminates wall synthesis

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41
Q

how is enterococci resistant to vancomycin

A

replaces terminal D-ala with D-lac, has new transpeptidases that can use D-lac as precursor

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42
Q

VISA

A

vancomycin intermediate staph aureus

produces extra peptidoglycan acts as sink to soak up vanco, and can’t administer more bc vanco toxic

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43
Q

how do B-lactams work

A

AB looks like D-ala D-ala so transpeptidases bind penicillin instead and disrupts cell wall synthesis

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44
Q

MRSA

A

methicillin resistant staph aureus - makes low affinity penicillin binding proteins

45
Q

what is intrinsically resistant to vancomycin

A

all GN

46
Q

what makes pseudomonas aeruginosa scary

A

intrinsically produces B-lactamase

47
Q

what does pathogen need to be killed by metronidazole

A

nitroreductase - strict anaerobes

48
Q

how is enterococci resistant to sulfonamides

A

doesn’t synthesis folic acid

49
Q

why we worried about enterococci

A

bc resistant to things and likes passing around its genes

50
Q

requirements for gene transfer via transformation

A

methylated in particular way so not cut by restriction enzymes
similar enough for homologous recombination into DNA

51
Q

what is MIC test of

A

bacteriostatic capacity

52
Q

what is a B-lactamase inhibitor

A

clavulanate

53
Q

cause of pharyngitis w/out nose

A

strep pyogenes

54
Q

cause of pharyngitis w nose

A

adenovirus

55
Q

cuase of cold

A

rhinovirus

56
Q

cause of ottitis media

A

pneumococci

57
Q

cause of epiglottitis

A

H influenzae type B

58
Q

cause of croup/LTB

A

parainfluenza

59
Q

when would you treat an URTI

A

otitis media if <2yrs old, epiglottitis MUST

60
Q

cause of acute bronchitis

A

viral

61
Q

cause of acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis

A

pneumococci

62
Q

cause of bronchiolotis

A

RSV

63
Q

cause of empyma

A

staph aureus

64
Q

what is empyma

A

pus in pleural cavity

65
Q

what are some reasons for getting pneumonia

A
  1. defect in host defences
  2. highly virulent microbe
  3. infective dose large
66
Q

how do you treat pneumonia

A

penG/amoxycillin and doxycycline

67
Q

agents of UTI

A

Ecoli, staph saprophyticus, proteus species

68
Q

virulence factor that allows infection of bladder and pathogen

A

type 1 pilli (Ecoli)

69
Q

virulence factor that allows infection in kidney and pathogen

A

PAP (pylonephritis associated pilli (Ecoli)

70
Q

virulence factor that promotes kidney stone production adn pathogen

A

urease - proteus species

71
Q

virulence factor that promotes upper UTI

A

flagella

72
Q

what do you test for in urine dipstick test

A

nitrites - if high lots of bacteria

WBCs

73
Q

treatment for uncomplicated UTI

A

trimethoprim, alkalinise urine

74
Q

treatment for pyeloneophritis

A

trimethoprim

75
Q

what classifies as recurrent UIT

A

> 2 in 6 months

76
Q

what causes dysentry

A

shigella, EIEC

77
Q

what causes travellers diarrhoea

A

ETEC

78
Q

what causes haemorrhagic colitis

A

EHEC

79
Q

what causes enteric fever

A

salmonella typhi and paratyphi a and b

80
Q

virulence factors of EPEC

A

intimin, Bfp, T3S effectors

81
Q

adhesive enterotoxigenic

A

ETEC, cholera

82
Q

adhesive with brush border damage

A

EPEC

83
Q

invasion restricted to mucosa

A

shigella/EIEC

84
Q

invasion of submucosa

A

campylobacter, salmonella

85
Q

two stages of EPEC adherence

A
  1. plasmid mediated initial attachment with Bfp on intact microvilli
  2. chromosomal mediated attachment effacement - type 3 secretion system, Tir (R for intimin), intimin, effector proteins
86
Q

e.g of cytotonic exotoxin

A

cholera, LT, ST

87
Q

e.g. of cytotoxin exotoxin

A

shiga toxin

88
Q

two enterotoxins of ETEC

A

ST and LT

89
Q

mech of action of enterotoxins of ETEC

A

ST - resembles guanylin - cGMP
LT - resembles cholera toxin, cAMP
–> disruption of Na uptake and secretion of Cl - inhibition of absorption

90
Q

when should you treat diarrhoea

A 
cholera
typhoid fever
immunocompromised
severe shigella
giardia, pseudomembranou colitis - metramidazole
91
Q

when SHOULDNT you treat diarrhoea

A

EHECT - bc ABs cause increased shiga toxin production

92
Q

4 phyla of microbiota

A

firmicutes
bacteroidetes
actinobacteria
proteobacteria

93
Q

antigen access from GIT

A

M cells

DCs in mucosa

94
Q

what are normal T cells in GIT

A

Treg (TGFbeta) and Th2 (IgA)

95
Q

problem with kwashiorkor

A

severe undernutrition - microbiome produced chemical products resulting in inhibition of TCA cycle - decreased energy metabolism

96
Q

definitive host

A

development occurs and parasite reaches sexual maturity

97
Q

resevoir host

A

animal that normally infected with parasite that also infects humans

98
Q

paratenic host

A

infection occurs but cannot replicate/develop

99
Q

intermediate host

A

development occurs but cannot react sexual maturity

100
Q

difference between helminths and protozoa

A

helminths are multicellular, protozoa and unicellular

101
Q

anal worm in children

A

enterobius

102
Q

huge worm

A

ascaris lumbricoides

103
Q

skin penetration and autoinfection

A

strongyloides

104
Q

fresh water snails

A

schistoma

105
Q

haditid cysts

A

echinococcus

106
Q

cyst formation in brain

A

taeniasis solium

107
Q

2 tapeworms

A

echinococcus granulosus

taeniasis saginata and solium

108
Q

1 fluke/trematode

A

schisoma

109
Q

3 roundworms/nematodes

A

pinworm - enterobius
ascaris
strongyloides

exam revision (15 decks)

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