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repro Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 5 Ps

A 
partners
protection from STIs
pregnancy prevention 
practices 
past STI history
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2
Q

which STIs would cause discharge

A

chlamydia, gonorrhoea, trichomonas, vaginosis, candida, mycoplasma genitalium

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3
Q

gonorrhea bacterial shape

A

GN diplococci

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4
Q

elementary bodies

A

infectious bodies of chlamydia, non-replicating, hardy

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5
Q

reticulate bodies

A

metabolically replicating bodies of chlamydia

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6
Q

LGV

A

chlamydia causing invasive lymphatic infection

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7
Q

what do you treat gonorrhoea with

A

ceftriaxone or azithromycin

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8
Q

what do you treat chlamydia with

A

azithromycin or doxycycline

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9
Q

if have trichomonas vaginalis, what is it an indicator of

A

high risk sexual activity, higher risk of HIV acquisition

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10
Q

treatment for trichomonas vaginalis

A

metromidazole, tinidazole, clindamycin cream

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11
Q

what is treponema pallidium

A

syphilis

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12
Q

what is non-treponemal test

A

RPR, indication of active untreated syphilis infection

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13
Q

what is terponemal test

A

EIA, indication of current or past syphilis infection - remains positive for life if ever infected with syphilis

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14
Q

what tests would you carry out for syphilis investigation

A

first EIA (treponemal test) then if this positive, do RPR (non-treponemal test) - to see if current infection

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15
Q

treatment for mycoplasma genitalium

A

azithromycin

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16
Q

prenatal infection

A

infection in utero

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17
Q

perinatal infection

A

infection acquired during delivery

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18
Q

what are ascending organisms in relation to pregnancy

A

vaginal organisms causing foetal infection

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19
Q

purpura fulminans

A

invasive grp a strep through VZV skin lesions

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20
Q

congenital varicella syndrome

A

infection in 1st trimester

limb hypoplasia, dermatomal skin scarring, microcephaly, cataracts, mental retardation

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21
Q

prophylactic VZIG, and who do you give it to

A

post exposure VZIG

give to pregnant mothers, babies who’s mothers develop VZV <7days prior to delivery, immunocompromised, prem babies

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22
Q

what type of virus is CMV

A

herpes virus

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23
Q

congenital CMV

A

microceophaly, behavioural problems, learning difficulties

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24
Q

more worried about primary or reactivation in pregnancy

A

primary - bc higher risk of foetal infeciton

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25
Q

neonatal CMV more often symptomatic or asymptomatic

A

asymptomatic - 90% of time

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26
Q

more concerned about symptomatic or asymptomatic neonatal CMV

A

symptomatic bc 90-100% will develop long term sequ

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27
Q

what’s significance of positive IgM in CMV

A

not normal - doesn’t indicate active infection - IgM remains positive for years after infection

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28
Q

IgG avidity

A

how strongly binding IgG is - stronger binding indicates longer infection

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29
Q

complications of foetal CMV

A

sensorineural deafness
blindness
microcephaly
(pneumonitis rare)

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30
Q

treatment of foetal CMV infection

A

only treat if symptomatic at birth - treat with ganciclovir

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31
Q

characteristic feature of rubella infection

A

usually pretty asymptomatic, but lymphadenopathy down back of neck

32
Q

congenital rubella syndrome

A

opthalmonogical - cataracts, glaucoma, retinopathy
cardiac damage
sensorineural deafness
neurological dysfunction

33
Q

can you give rubella vaccine to pregnant woman

A

no bc live attenuated

34
Q

treatment of pregnant women with HSV

A

acyclovir

35
Q

perinatal HSV

A

skin-eye-mouth
encephalitis
dissemination

36
Q

congenital syphilis signs

A

hepatosplenomegaly, snuffles, rash

37
Q

trachoma

A

chlamydia that infects eyes

38
Q

neonatal chlamydia

A

conjunctivitis (haemorrhagic), pneumonia

39
Q

congenital toxoplasmosis

A

rash, LN, hydrocephalus, chorioretinitis

40
Q

treatment for congenitally HBV infected baby

A

infant vaccine

BIG - HBV immunoglobulin

41
Q

interventions for congenital HCV infection

A

nothing

42
Q

grp b strep infection - how many babies colonised, how many invasive disease

A

40-70% babies colonised, 1% invasive disease

via ascending infection or at birth

43
Q

what can grp B strep cause in baby

A

pneumonia, meningitis, sepsis

44
Q

chorioamniocentisis

A

infection in uterine cavity

45
Q

prevention of grp B strep infection baby

A

intrapartum chemoprophylaxis - screen for carriage, if carrier give IV antibiotics prior to delivery to reduce risk of transmission

46
Q

treatment grp b strep baby

A

gentamicin penicillin

47
Q

anti-natal screening for infections

A 
rubella 
HBV
HCV
syphilis
HIV

VZV
CMV
toxoplasma gondii

48
Q

ala

A

superior aspect of sacral lateral masses

49
Q

plane of least dimensions

A

S4 through ischial spine to base of pubis

50
Q

interosseous sacral ligaments

A

in the joint - strongest in body, prevent rotation

51
Q

accessory ligaments of SIJ

A

iliosacral
sacrospinous
sacrotuberous

52
Q

arcuate lig of pubic symphysis

A

inferior lig

53
Q

pubic symphysis reinforced by

A

superior and arcuate ligs

criss-crossing fibres from rectus sheath, oblique abdo muscles and adductor longus

54
Q

retropubic space

A

between pubis and bladder - nothing goes through here

55
Q

ant internal iliac artery gives branches to

A

visceral

walls of pelvis, lower limb

56
Q

post internal iliac artery gives branches to

A

walls of pelvis, lower limb

57
Q

pelvic fascia lies between

A

sacral plexus and vessels

58
Q

where is pelvic fascia dense vs loose

A

dense on pelvic walls (overlying piriformis and obturator internus) lose over viscera and pelvic floor

59
Q

fundus of uterus

A

above where tubes enter

60
Q

isthmus of uterus

A

where becomes continuous with cervix

61
Q

ovarian ligament

A

connects ovary to shoulder of uterus

62
Q

round ligament

A

from shoulder of uterus, through inguinal canal to labia

63
Q

ampulla of rectum

A

dilated portion of rectum where faces stored until defecation

64
Q

branches to pelvis from above

A

ovarian arteries - from aorta

superior rectal - direct continuation of inferior mesenteric

65
Q

branches from ant internal iliac

A

male:
- superior vesical
- inferior vesical
- inferior rectal

female
- superior vesical 
- uterine - gives of vaginal branch or 
(- often separate vaginal - often gives of inferior vesical)
- inferior rectal
66
Q

prenatal screening tests - what do they do

A

identify subset of women who are at risk of having baby with birth defect

67
Q

prenatal screening tests carried out

A

1st trimester - blood tests and ultrasound - for T21 and T18
NIPT/S - new test, non-invasive
2nd trimester - blood test - T21, T18, neural tube

68
Q

what is NIPT/S

A

acquire foetal DNA from maternal blood - so dont have to invade foetus space - foetal DNA testing

69
Q

what do you do if screening tests show increased risk of foetal abnormality

A

nothing
foetal anomaly ultrasound
invasive diagnostic tests - amniocentesis, CVS
(both 2nd ones or either)

70
Q

who is invasive diagnostic tests offered to

A
  • increased risk determined from screeing
  • advanced maternal age
  • known carrier couples
71
Q

what tests do you do on samples obtained via invasive diagnostic tests

A

FISH

karoytoype/chromosomal array

72
Q

what is FISH

A

fluorescence in situ hybridisation

73
Q

gold standard DNA testing

A

karyotyping

74
Q

reciprocal translocation

A

balanced translocation btw two chromosomes

75
Q

robertsonian translocation

A

translocation btw two acrocentric chromosomes

exam revision (15 decks)

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