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ACLAM > Mice and Rats > Flashcards

Mice and Rats Flashcards

1
Q

What is the family and subfamily of mice and rats?

A

Muridae (family), Murinae (subfamily)

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2
Q

What are mice families called?

A

demes

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3
Q

Pets rats are derived from what rat?

A

brown/Norway rat (Rattus norvegicus)

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4
Q

What does the Haerderian gland produce?

A

lipid and porphyrin containing secretions

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5
Q

What is another name for sensory whiskers?

A

Vibrissae

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6
Q

Mice dental formula

A

2 (I 1/1, C 0/0, M 3/3)

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7
Q

What is the name of the line that separates the aglandular forestomach from the glandular stomach

A

margot plicatus

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8
Q

Mice and rats can vomit. T or F

A

False

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9
Q

What is the Whitten effect?

A

Estrus is suppressed in females of large groups.

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10
Q

Length of gestation

A

~21 days (rats a little longer, mice a little shorter)

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11
Q

Age of maturation

A

6 weeks mice, 4-5 weeks rats

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12
Q

Chromosome number

A

40 mice, 42 rats

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13
Q

Male rodents have nipples? T or F

A

False

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14
Q

What bacteria multiplies more rapidly with higher ammonia levels (50-100ppm)?

A

Mycoplasma pulmonis

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15
Q

Protein requirements in rodents?

A

14-16%

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16
Q

Values of determining rectal temps in rodents is questionable. T or F

A

True due to circadium rhythms

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17
Q

Mouse pinworm

A

Syphacia obvelata (looks like a folded contact lens under microscope) and Aspircualrus tetraptera

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18
Q

Two most common causes of respiratory disease in mice

A

Sendai virus and M. pulmonis

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19
Q

Two protozoan parasites from GI tract in mice

A

Spironucleus muris and Giardia muris

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20
Q

What bacteria causes infections of the bulbourethral gland of mice?

A

Pasteurella pneumotropica

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21
Q

What bacteria causes infections of the preputial glands of mice?

A

Staph. aureus

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22
Q

What causes spontaneous nephropathy in mice?

A

mouse kidney parvovirus

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23
Q

Three common mites:

A

Myobia musculi, Myocoptes musculinus, and Radfordia affinis

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24
Q

Cause of ringworm in rodents

A

Trichophyton mentagrophytes

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25
Q

Name a well known disease of black lab mice on the C57Bl/6 strain background that affects throrax and head?

A

Idiopathic ulcerative dermatitis

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26
Q

Cause of idiopathic ulcerative dermatitis

A

vasculitis attributed to immune complex deposition on dermal vessels secondary to dietary factors and dysregulated fatty acid metabolism.

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27
Q

Treatment of idopathic ulcerative dermatitis

A

Vit E and modulated dietary fat

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28
Q

Most common mammary tumor in mice?

A

adenocarcinoma followed by fibrosarcoma

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29
Q

Primary respiratory tumors are uncommon in mice. T or F

A

False

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30
Q

Zoonotic disease that causes mild flu-like symptoms to meningitis, drowsiness, confusion, motor abnormalities, and death.

A

Lymphocytic choriomeningitis

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31
Q

Causes of three major respiratory pathogens in rats?

A

M pulmonis, S. pneumonia, Corynebacterium Kutsheri.

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32
Q

Major component of chronic respiratory dz (CRD) and bacterial pneumonia in rats?

A

M. pulmonis (murine respiratory mycoplasmosis)

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33
Q

CRD is acutely fatal in rats. T or F

A

False, rats may live 2-3 years with CRD.

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34
Q

Dx of choice for M pulmonis?

A

Serology, as cultures are difficult to grow. May take 4 mos to convert to seropositive.

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35
Q

Primary lesions of CRD?

A

subacute and chronic bronchitis

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36
Q

Primary treatment of CRD?

A 
bronchodilators (muscarinic antagonists e.g. ipratropium bromide and beta2 adrenergic agonists e.g. albuterol)
PLUS antibiotics (tetracycline/doxycycline
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37
Q

Bacterial pneumonia is almost always caused by:

A

S pneumoniae in combination with M. pulmonis, Sendai virus, or cilia-associated respiratory bacillus.

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38
Q

S. pnumoniae is acutely fatal in rats. T or F

A

True

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39
Q

What Gram + diplococci on Gram stain can cause pneumonia?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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40
Q

Primary treatment of S. pnuemoniae

A

Clavamox

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41
Q

What virus causes edema and inflammation of the cervical salivary glands?

A

Sialodacryoadenitis virus (coronavirus)

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42
Q

What condition is highly contagious and starts as rhinitis followed by epithelial necrosis and swelling of salivary and lacrimal glands, and cervical LNs?

A

Sialodacryoadenitis virus (coronavirus)

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43
Q

What condition can cause chronic keratitis and megaglobus of the eyes?

A

Sialodacryoadenitis virus (coronavirus)

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44
Q

Only rats are susceptible to pin worms. T or F

A

False

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45
Q

Rats are susceptible to mice pin worms. T or F

A

True

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46
Q

Name the pinworms rats are susceptible to.

A

Syphacia muris (rat), S. obvelata (mice), A. tetrapetra (mice)

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47
Q

Treatment of pinworms in rodents

A

fenbendazaole, ivermectin
Topical selamectin is INEFFECTIVE
Must decontaminate environment

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48
Q

What causes enlarged, pale, pitted/mottle kidneys with pinpoint cysts?

A

CPN (chronic progressive nephrosis)

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49
Q

CPN (chronic progressive nephrosis) causes what microscopic findings?

A

Progressive glomerulosclerosis and myriad tubulointersitial disease of the convoluted proximal tubule?

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50
Q

CPN occurs equally in male and female rats. T or F

A

False. Male > Female

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51
Q

Uroliths in rats are rare, but those that occur are what composite?

A

Struvite.

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52
Q

Posterior paresis is caused by what condition?

A

Spinal nerve root degeneration (radiculoneuropathy, polyradiculoneropathy, degenerative mylopathy)

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53
Q

Legg-Calve-Perthes dz (avascular necrosis of femoral head) can be caused by what?

A

Allowing young rats to stand on hind legs frequently

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54
Q

Rats and mice both commonly get ectoparasites. T or F

A

False. Rats > Mice

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55
Q

Most common fur mites in rats

A

Radfordia ensifera.

Although R affinis and M musculi (mice) can be found.

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56
Q

Lab rats rarely get Demodex. T or F

A

True

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57
Q

Common opportunistic ectoparasite in pet mice and rats

A

Tropical rat mite (Ornithonyssus bacoti).

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58
Q

What mite is red-orange in color and can affect humans?

A

Tropical rat mite (Ornithonyssus bacoti).

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59
Q

What causes ringtail?

A

low humidity often in hanging cages in preweaning rats (aged 2-19 days)

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60
Q

Most common subcutaneous tumor in rats

A

Fibroadenoma of mammary glands

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61
Q

Treatment of ringtail

A

Add unsaturated fatty acids to diet or topical application of lanolin. Amputate if avascular necrosis.

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62
Q

What common tumor of rats secretes prolactin causing spontaneous lactation?

A

Pituitary adenoma. May also cause neurologic sings such as hind limb paresis or paralysis, changes in vision.

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63
Q

Carcinoma that occurs in specialized (auditory) sebaceous glands of rats.

A

Zymbal’s gland tumor

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64
Q

Where do Zymbal’s gland tumors lie?

A

Ventral to the orifice of the external ear, and produce abundant keratin and papillary projections of epithelial cells (often mistaken with squamous cell carcinomas)

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65
Q

What causes zoonotic “rat bite fever”?

A

Streptobacillus moniliformis (gram negative)

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66
Q

Symptoms of rat bite fever in humans?

A

fever, malaise, headache, sore throat, lymphadenitis, myalgia, petechial rash, septic arthritis.

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67
Q

How is S. moniliformis detected in rats?

A

PCR

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68
Q

Where is S. moniliformis harbored in rats?

A

nasopharyngeal cavity and can cause otitis media.

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69
Q

O. bacati (tropical fur mite) can transmit what zoonotic disease?

A

Hantavirus

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70
Q

What type of retinas do mice and rats have?

A

Holangiotic- entire neurosensory receives blood supply that radiates out like spokes.

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71
Q

The Royal College of Surgeons (RCS) rat strain has what naturally occurring ophthalmic condition?

A

retinal degeneration

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72
Q

Sialodacroadenitis virus causes what conditions in rodents?

A

rhinotracheitis, bronchitis, alveolitis, inflammation of harderian gland

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73
Q

What drug can cause a reversible cataract after use?

A

Xylazine secondary to transforneal water loss and altered aqueous humor composition caused by corneal exposure.

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74
Q

Gnotobiotic mice reproduce poorly because of the elongation of what stage of their estrus cycle?

A

Diestrus

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75
Q

According to the 8th Edition of the Guide for the Care and Use of Laboratory Animals what level of intracage ammonia necessitates a change in bedding to prevent irritation of mucous membranes in mice?

A

No limit is specified. Human exposure limit is 50ppm.

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76
Q

The spontaneous recessive mutation in the ____ gene in ____ mice makes them a good model for limb girdle muscular dystrophy 2B.

A

Dysferlin; SJL

SJL/J mice develop spontaneous myopathy from splice-site mutations in Dysferlin genes resultin gin decreased dysferlin protein . Good model for limb girdle muscular dystrophy.

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77
Q

In which mouse strain was Helicobacter hepaticus linked for the first time to chronic active hepatitis and hepatic tumors?

A

A/JCr

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78
Q 
Which one of the following IS NOT characteristic of Rag-1 mice?
A.Decreased complement
B.Defective recombinase enzyme
C.Hypoplastic lymphoid tissue
D.No functional B cells
E.No functional T cells
A

A. Decreased complement

Defective recombinase enzymes, preventing formation of function B a(Ig) and T (TcR) receptors.
Hypoplastic lymphoid tissues. No Ig or T-cell responses
V(D) J recombination studies Tumor and xenograft transplantation Lymphocyte subset transfer studies

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79
Q

Which immunodeficient mouse strain has a defective transcription factor gene controlling thymic epithelial cell differentiation?

A

Nude mouse

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80
Q

Which immunodeficient mouse strain has a defective DNA-dependent kinase that recombines gene segments coding for T (TcR) and B (Ig) cell receptors?

A

SCID mouse

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81
Q

Which immunodeficient mouse strain has a defective recombinase enzyme, preventing formation of functional B a (Ig) and T (TcR) cell receptors?

A

RAG-1

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82
Q

Which immunodeficient mouse strain has a defect in Bruton’s tyrosine kinase gene affecting signal transduction in B cells?

A

XID mouse

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83
Q

Which immunodeficient mouse strain has a defective phosphatase, impairing signal transduction from cell receptors?

A

Mouth-eaten mouse

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84
Q

Which immunodeficient mouse strain has a mutation on chromosome 13 that affects pigment granules (coat, retina) and lysosomal granules of type II pneumocytes, mast cells, and NK cells?

A

Beige mouse

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85
Q

Which immunodeficient mouse strain has an impaired apoptosis from Fas defect?

A

1pr mouse

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86
Q

Which immunodeficient mouse strain has an impaired Fas LIGAND defect

A

Gld mouse

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87
Q

Which immunodeficient mouse strain has a genetically engineered disruption of Cytokine gene?

A

Cytokine KO mice

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88
Q

Which immunodeficient mouse strain has a genetically engineered disruption of Receptor gene?

A

Receptor KO mice

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89
Q

What is one of the major uses of the moth-eaten mouse strain?

A

Apoptosis studies

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90
Q

What strains are derived from crossing two inbred strains, and then developed by single pair random matings of sibling mice from F2 generation thereby creating a separate breeding line and propagated by sibling matings for >20 generations?

A

Recombinant imbred strains

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91
Q

What strains are developed from inbred strains in which a particular allele or mutation is maintained in a heterozygous state? Developed by inbreeding (brother x sister) with heterozygosity selected at each generation. Coat color is not included in strain naim due to being part of normal phenotype.

A

Segregating inbred strains

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92
Q

Which of the following organisms is most likely to be a contaminant from a donor mouse via hysterectomy during the process of creating gnotobiotic mice?

A

Pasteurella pneumotropica

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93
Q

The athymic nude mouse differs from the athymic nude rat in which of the following ways?
A. Athymic nude mouse is a result of a mutation of a forkhead transcription factor domain while athymic nude rat is the result of a Crry gene mutation

B. Athymic nude mouse is a result of a mutation found on chromosome 11 while athymic nude rat is the result of a mutation on chromosome 10.

C. Athymic nude mouse is a result of a mutation to a forkhead transcription factor domain while athymic nude rat is a result of a mutation to a winged helix transcription factor domain

D. Athymic nude mice have normal to increased NK cell activity while athymic nude rats have decreased NK activity.

E. Athymic nude mice are used extensively in tumor research while athymic nude rats are used exclusively in toxicology research.

A

B. Athymic nude mouse is a result of a mutation found on chromosome 11 while athymic nude rat is the result of a mutation on chromosome 10.

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94
Q

What inbred mouse strain is noted for a retinal degeneration mutation causing blindness by weaning age?

A

C3H

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95
Q

A PI wants to bring a new strain of mice B6D2F1/J. What do you know about this particular strain just from the nomenclature?

A

It’s an F1 hybrid of C57BL/6J female and a DBA/2J male generated at The Jackson Laboratory.

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96
Q

How much do adult mice eat/drink per day?

A

3-5gm/6-7mL

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97
Q

What is the earliest a mouse can be removed from mother and survive without a foster mom?

A

17 days.

Wean at 21-28 days.

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98
Q

Which of the following is true?

a. The thymus involutes about day 80
b. Mice have 5 digits on all feet and females have 5 pairs of nipples
c. Rectum is 3-4mm
d. Mice have large palatine tonsils

A

b. Mice have 5 digits on all feet and females have 5 pairs of nipples.

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99
Q

What defect does Pde5b(rdl) cause?

A

retinal degeneration

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100
Q

What species does not have a defect in Pde5b(rdl)?

a. C3H
b. AKR
c. FVB
d. CBA
e. SJL

A

AKR

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101
Q

T or F. Mice have epitheliochorial placentation?

A

False. Hemochorial

102
Q

Which strain gets diabetes insipidus?

a. NON
b. NOD
c. NZB
d. SWR

A

SWR

103
Q

Which chromosome has the major histocompatibility complex?

A

17

104
Q

How many kcal/m2 per 24hr must a mouse generate to maintain body temp for each 1C drop in ambient room temp below thermoneutral zone?

A

46kcal/m2 per 24hr

105
Q

T or F. There are 4.8 x as many glomeruli in mouse and the filtering surface per gram of tissue is 2x that of rat.

A

True

106
Q

T or F. High concentration of urine is made possible by long loops of Henle and vasa recta associated with the loops.

A

True

107
Q

T or F. Protein and creatinine, but not taurine, are excreted in urine of mouse.

A

False. Taurine is excreted.

108
Q

Which mouse has a T cell deficiency?

a. Nude
b. SCID
c. Beige

A

a. Nude

109
Q

Which mouse has a B and T cell deficiency?

a. Nude
b. SCID
c. Beige

A

b. SCID

110
Q

Which mouse has an NK cell deficiency?

a. Nude
b. SCID
c. Beige

A

c. Beige

111
Q

Which strain of mouse develops a high prevalence and early onset of amyloidosis?

A

SJL

112
Q

Reye’s like syndrome is associated with natural disease in which mouse strain?

A

Balb/cByJ

113
Q

Which bacteria causes necrosis of mesenteric lymph nodes, and white spots on liver and heart?

A

Clostridium piliforme

114
Q

What bacterial infections are B6 mice resistant to?

A

Helicobacter hepatitis

115
Q

What clinical manifestation occurs in immunosuppresed C58 and AKR mice inoculated with LDV? What is LVD?

A

Poliomyelitis

Lactate Dehydrogenase Elevating Virus

116
Q

What virus produces a mosaic pattern in the spleen causing scarring of red and white pulp?

A

Ectromelia virus

117
Q

What is EDIM?

A

Epizootic Diarrhea of Infant Mice

118
Q

What virus group is EDIM a part of?

A

Group A rotavirus.

Nonenveloped RNA virus.

119
Q

T or F. Cultivation of EDIM requires the presence of proteolytic enzymes to cleave an outer capsid polypeptide?

A

True

120
Q

T or F. Maternal immunity protects infants to EDIM.

A

True

121
Q

What strain of mice are susceptible to EDIM?

A

SCID (severe combined immunodeficiency)

122
Q

Watery yellow diarrhea in 14-17 day old mice, constipation, and stunted growth are signs of what disease?

A

EDIM

123
Q

How is EDIM transmitted?

A

Fecal-oral, direct contact, aerosol, and liner shedding from adults to young.

124
Q

What disease causes vacuolar degeneration of infected enterocytes at villous tip, degenerative virus-induced vacuoles and enterocyte nuclear pyknosis?
Not to be confused with normal lipoprotein vacuoles in suckling mice that are uniform and have a pink proteinaceous droplet with unremarkable nuclei.

A

EDIM

125
Q

What virus causes dyspnea, chattering, and crusting of the eyes?

A

Paramyxovirus

126
Q

What bacteria causes colonies of gram positive organisms seen within caseous lesions?

A

Corynebacterium kutsheri

127
Q

What part of the GI tract does Citrobacter rodentium affect?

A

Descending colon, eliciting an intense mucosal hyperplasia

128
Q

How long after infection with Citrobacter rodentium does the mucosa appear normal? (unless they die)

A

By 2 months

129
Q

What bacteria promotes the evolution of pre-neoplastic and neoplastic changes during chemical carcinogenesis? And what strain of mice is this done in?

A

Citrobacter rodentiaum, APC(min) mice

130
Q

What species of mice are susceptible to Corynebacterium bovis?

A

Haired SCID mice

131
Q

What bacteria causes a pattern of disease associated with the hair growth cycle?

A

Corynebacterium bovis

132
Q

How long should cultures be held for growing Corynebacterium bovis?

A

7 days. It is slow growing

133
Q

What bacteria is ring-shaped found attached to erythrocytes, as well as free in plasma of peripheral blood?

A

Hemotropic mycoplasma infections

134
Q

What stains should be used to detect hemotropic mycoplasma infections in blood smears?

A

Giemsa or Romanowsky

135
Q

Splenectomy is the most sensitive way to detect what type of infection?

A

Hemostropic mycoplasma infections

136
Q

Who is in charge of maintaining the registry of lab codes used for nomenclature?

A

ILAR

137
Q

C57Bl/6J-mt(BALB/c) is an example of what? And what does mt stand for?

A

Conplastic

mt should be the affected gene metallothionein.

138
Q

Administration of what to substances can induce colitis?

A

Trinitrobenzene sulphonic acid (TNSB) and Dextran sulfate sodium (DSS)
TNSB + DSS

139
Q

Fur mites (myobia musculi and Radfordia affinis) affect hair shafts and skin surfaces on what part of the body?

A

Intrascpular and dorsal cervical regions

140
Q

Fur mite (Myocoptes musculinus) found on hair shafts and skin surface on what part of the body?

A

Flanks and rump (low numbers) and dorsum (high numbers)

141
Q

Fur mites can cause the elevations of what immunoglobulins?

A

IgE and inflammatory cytokines

142
Q 
Which of the following are DNA viruses?
ECTV,
LCMV,
LDV,
MHV,
MPtV,
MPyV,
MTV
A

DNA: ECTV (ectromelia virus; aka mousepox) - Poxiviridae orthopox virus

MPtV (mouse pneumotropic polyoma virus)

MPvY (mouse polyomavirus) small 5.3kb used for tumorigenesis, cell cycle signaling, and transformation models. Highly oncogenic

143
Q 
Which of the following are RNA viruses?
ECTV,
LCMV,
LDV,
MHV,
MPtV,
MPyV,
MTV
A

RNA: LCMV (lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus) Arenaviridae that triggers a vigours cytotoxic T lymphocyte response

LDV (lactate dehydrogenase-elevating virus) Arteriviridae. Increased serum enzyme LDH

MHV (mouse hepatitis virus) (ssRNA) Coronavirus

MTV (mouse mammary tumor virus) Betaretrovirus (milk virus) in BALB/c females (MTV RNA, MTV DNA, and MTV proteins). Like other milk viruses HTL (human T-lymphotropic virus), HI (HIV), and BLV (bovine leukemia virus).

144
Q

Mouse virus that causes enterotropic or polytropic infection in suckling mice with nearly 100% mortality.

A

MHV

145
Q

Hemenolepis diminuta and Rodentolepis are what type of parasite? What part of the intestine do they affect?

A

Tapeworms in rats
Lower 1/3 small intestine
Prepatent period 10-20 days.
Caused by ingestion of infected eggs

146
Q

What is MNV, is it DNA or RNA, and what family?

Most prevalent viral infection in mice

A

Murine norovirus (MNV), nonenveloped RNA, Caliciviridae

147
Q

What virus causes enteric infections, and can leave gut to replicate in macrophages and dendritic cells in multiple organs, MLNs and liver?

A

MNV

148
Q

What is MHV, is it DNA or RNA?

A

Mouse hepatitis virus, enveloped RNA coronavirus with enterotropic and polytropic (respiratory) strains.
Causes white spots on liver of older mice, gas distended intestines suckling mice. Liver may have hobnail, nodular appearance.

149
Q

What is TMEV, is it DNA or RNA?

A

Mouse encephalomyelitis virus (Theilovirus), picornaviridae, non-enveloped, ss + RNA

150
Q

What strain of TMEV does not persist in immune competent mice?
What strain causes chronic demyelinating disease?

A

GDVII (acute encephalitis)

DA (usually a persistent infection)

151
Q

What is EDIM, is it DNA or RNA?

A

Epizootic diarrhea of infant mice; nonenveloped RNA virus of rotavirus group A

152
Q

What is MVM and MPV?

A

Minute virus of mice and Mouse parvovirus; nonenveloped ssDNA

Last in environment for long time.
MPV persists in lymphoid tissue (especially MLNs)
Parvovirus does not cause lesions in mice.

153
Q

What strains of mice appear resistant to MVM and MPV?

A

DBA and C57BL/6 compared to ICR and BALB/c mice

154
Q

What is MCMV, is it DNA or RNA?

A

Murine cytomegalovirus; herpesvirus of betaherpesviridae, enveloped dsDNA
Asymptomatic but salivary glands persistently infected

155
Q

What is MAV, is it DNA or RNA?

A

Mouse adenovirus, nonenveloped DNA
Contact with urine
MAdV-1 infects macrophage, renal tubular cells and vascular endotheial cells.
No clinical signs with MAdV-2

156
Q

What strains of mice are susceptible and resistant to MAV?

A

C57BL/6 and SJL/J- neurologic signs compared to resistant BLAB/c strain

157
Q

What is ECTV, DNA or RNA?

A

Ectromelia virus (mousepox), enveloped DNA poxvirus

158
Q

What strains of mice are susceptible and resistant to ECTV?

A

susceptible: Strains A, C3H and BALB/c
resistant: C57BL/6
Causes hunched posture, conjunctivitis, facial swelling, vesicular rash on skin

159
Q

What is LCMV and what are the two types of infection?

A

Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus, enveloped RNA arenavirus
In utero produces persistent, subclinical, viremia shedding infection, at 7-10 months of age immune complex glomerulonephritis can occur.
Acute form exposed after 1wk life. Viremia with no shedding. Die or recover with elimination of virus.
Zoonotic

160
Q

What is PVM, DNA or RNA?

A

Pneumonia virus of mice, paramyxoviridae, enveloped ssRNA
Not stable in environment
Nude mice: progressive bronchointerstitial pneumonia

161
Q

What is the sendai virus?

A

paramyxovirus of the parainfluenza type 1 group, enveloped RNA
Spread by fomites
Causes chattering, mild respiratory distress or death.

162
Q

The sendai virus can be fatal to what strains of mice?

A

DBA/2 and immunodeficient

C57BL/6 are resistant

163
Q

What is MTV, DNA or RNA?

A

Moust thymic virus, enveloped DNA virus of herpesviridae
Asymptomatic.
Infection <10d causes immunosuppression
Causes intranuclear inclusions in thymocytes, and thymic necrosis

164
Q

What can cause a proliferative, inflammatory typhlitis or colitis that may result in rectal prolapse?

A

Helicobacter (lower intestinal tract)

165
Q

CAR bacillus causes what major clinical signs?

A

Bronchiectasis, bronchopneumonia

166
Q

Cibrobacter rodentium causes what major clinical signs?

A

Colitis in weanling

167
Q

Corynebacterium kutchseri causes what major clinical signs?

A

Disseminated abscesses

168
Q

Mycoplasma pulmonis causes what major clinical signs?

A

Chronic suppurative inflammation of lung (with bronciectasis), middle ear, oviduct, and uterus

169
Q

Salmonella causes what major clinical signs?

A

Septicemia, typhlocolitis, lympadenopathy

170
Q

Streptobacillus moniliformis causes what major clinical signs?

A

Disseminated abscess, arthritis

171
Q

Corynebacterium bovis causes what major clinical signs?

A

yellow-white flakes of keratin adherent to the epidermis, hyperkeratosis (scaly skin disease)
Prkdc(scid) mice also get acanthosis

172
Q

Staph. aureus causes what major clinical signs? What mice are highly susceptible?

A

Abscessation of preputial gland, preputial adenitis

C57BL/6

173
Q

Staph. xylosus causes what major clinical signs? What mice are highly susceptible?

A

Ulcerative lesions of the tail
SJL mice.
Nude mice develop fatal dermatitis.

174
Q

Streptococci have been reported to cause septicaemia and suppurative inflammation in what mice?

A

DBA/2

F1 hybrids

175
Q

Pasteurella pnuemotropica causes what major clinical signs?

A

Necrotizing and suppurative infection of the Harderian gland

176
Q

Klebsiella pneumonia causes what major clinical signs in mice?

A

Suppurative inflammation of the reproductive tract of ageing B6C3F1 mice.

177
Q

C3H/HeJ mice defective in TLR4 renders the strain hyporesponsive to what type of bacteria?
If chronically infected, what will eventually develop?

A

Gram-negative

Otitis media

178
Q

Bordetella hinzii causes what major clinical sign in mice?

A

tracheobronchitis

179
Q

What strain of mice develop caecum and colon inflammation when infected with Helicobacter hepaticus?

A

A/JCr and other immunocompetent mice (females worse intestinal inflammation; males liver neoplasia)

180
Q

What bacteria commonly causes rectal prolapse?

A

Helicobacter hepticus

181
Q

Outbred swiss-webster mice may develop chronic hepatitis, rectal prolapse, or proliferativetyphlocolitis from this bacteria.

A

Helicobacter bilis

182
Q

What bacteria causes pyogranulomatous arthritis in immunodeficient mice?

A

Mycoplasma arginini

183
Q

Ts

A

trisomy

184
Q

Del

A

deletion

185
Q

Dp

A

duplication

186
Q

NOD

A

non-obese diabetic

187
Q

BPH/J

A

high blood pressure

188
Q

BPN/J

A

normal blood pressure

189
Q

BPL/J

A

low blood pressure

190
Q

C57BL BL =?

A

Black

191
Q

C57BR BR = ?

A

Brown

192
Q

DBA

A

dilute brown non-agouti

193
Q

Myo5ad/Myo5ad

A

Dilute (DBA)

194
Q

Tryp1b/Tryp1b

A

Brown (DBA)

195
Q

a/a

A

non-agouti (DBA)

196
Q

CD+1 females develop this condition when given cyclophosphamide.

A

Neutropenia

197
Q

Ar on Chr X has what allele/gene name and human disorder?

A

Testicular feminization/androgen receptor. Androgen insensitivity syndrome

198
Q

Galc on Chr 12 has what allele/gene name and human disorder?

A

Twitcher/Galactosylcer amidase. Krabbe’s disease

199
Q

Ghrhr on Chr 6 has what allele/gene name and human disorder?

A

Little/Growth hormone releasing hormone receptor. Growth hormone deficiency, isolated

200
Q

Gus on Chr 5 has what allele/gene name and human disorder?

A

Mucopolysaccharidosis VII/Beta-glucoronidase. Mucopolysaccharidosis type VI

201
Q

Hps4 on Chr 5 has what allele/gene name and human disorder?

A

Light ear/Hermansky-Pudiak syndrome 4 homoglog. Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome (HPS)

202
Q

Lep on Chr 6 has what allele/gene name and human disorder?

A

Obese/Leptin. Obesity leptin deficiency, hypogonadism

203
Q

Lepr on Chr 4 has what allele/gene name and human disorder?

A

Diabetes/leptin recpetor. Obesity, morbid with hypogonadism

204
Q

Pit1 on Chr 16 has what allele/gene name and human disorder?

A

Dwarf/pituitary specific transcription factor 1. Pituitary hormone deficiency (CPHD)

205
Q

Pou4f3 on Chr 18 has what allele/gene name and human disorder?

A

Dreidel/Pou domain. Deafness, autosomal dominant non-syndromic sensoineural 15

206
Q

Rab27a on Chr 8 has what allele/gene name and human disorder?

A

Ashen/RAB27A. Griscelli syndrome

207
Q

Tgn on Chr 15 has what allele/gene name and human disorder?

A

Congenital goiter/Thyroglobulin. Goitre familial, with hypothyroidism AR

208
Q

Tnfs6 on Chr 1 has what allele/gene name and human disorder?

A

generalized lymphoproliferative disease/tumor necrosis ligand factor. Autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome (ALPS)

209
Q

What is the size of hte mouse genome?

A

~2700 Mb

210
Q

What is the most potent mutagen in the mouse?

A

ENU (alkylating agent) which produces base-pair (point) mutations. Adenine, and to a lesser extent thymine are mostly targeted.

211
Q

What is positional cloning or forward genetics?

A

A bottom-up approach from phenotype to genotype to identify the gene(s) responsible for a particular phenotype or biological process.

212
Q

Pronuclear DNA injection is a method for what?

A

Additive transgenesis by random integration (inject transgenes into pronucleus of a zygote ~24 hours after fertilization). Each line is not reproducible, so multi lines must be made.

213
Q

Both pronuclear DNA injection and vector-mediated techniques have unpredictable integration sites. T or F

A

True

214
Q

Which transgenesis technique is the trasngenic sequence protected against cellular nucleases?

A

vector-mediated

215
Q

What is a common genetic marker for phenotypic analysis of transgenic mice?

A

bacterial lacZ gene (encoding beta-galactosidase), but can’t be used in living tissues due to requirement of fixation of the tissue.

216
Q

What was the first fluorescent marker?

A

GFP (green fluorescent protein) (toxic at high doses)

217
Q

Difference between RFP (DsRed) and fluorescent fusion proteins

A

obligate tetramer vs monomeric active marker

218
Q

Mouse or Rat? In adrenal gland, subcapsular fusiform cells proliferate spontaneously. Cortical zona reticularis not recognizable. X zone prior to weaning at junction of cortex and medulla.

A

Mouse.

Rats do not have subcapuslar fusiform cells, they have a cortical zona reticularis. No X zone.

219
Q

Mouse or Rat? In bone, haversian systems are present.

A

Rat.

Mice do not have distinct haversian systems and the growth of long bones is complete by 26 weeks.

220
Q

Mouse or Rat? Gall bladder present.

A

Mouse.

221
Q

Mouse or Rat? In the kidney, parietal epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsule are cuboidal in males and flattened in females.

A

Mouse.

Rats have no sexual dimorphism to the kidneys.

222
Q

Mouse or Rat? In the liver, anisocytosis and anisokaryosis are regular features.

A

Mouse.

223
Q

Mouse or Rat? BALT is commonly seen in the lungs of healthy animals.

A

Rat.

Mice rarely have BALT (lymphoid tissue) in the lungs.

224
Q

Mouse or Rat? In the spinal cord, motor nerve fibres are partially located in teh deep portion of dorsal columns.

A

Rat

225
Q

Mouse or Rat? In the spinal cord, motor nerve fibres are located in the ventral and lateral columns.

A

Mouse

226
Q

Mouse or Rat? Spermatogonia to develop into spermatozoa is 35 days and 12 stages of the cycle of the seminiferous epithelium are recognized.

A

Mouse

227
Q

Mouse or Rat? Spermatogenesis takes 56 days and the cycle is divided into 14 stages.

A

Rat

228
Q

Mouse or Rat? In urinary bladder, in the lamina propria aggregates of lymphoid tissue occurs, especially in aging animals.

A

Mouse.

Rats have no aggregates of lymphoid tissues.

229
Q

What are Zymbal’s glands in the mouse?

A

Paired, auditory sebaceous glands.

230
Q

Most common non-neoplastic lesions in aged NMRI mice?

Most common neoplastic lesion?

A

liver cell necrosis, Kupffer cell proliferation, dermatitis

pulmonary adenoma, harderian gland adenoma, systemic haemoproliferative neoplasia

231
Q

Most common non-neoplastic lesions in Cd-1 mice

A

Amyloidosis, periarteritis, chornic progressive nephropathy, glomerulosclerosis, diffuse hyperplasia of glandualr stomach mucosa, cardiomyopathy, dermatitis, dilation of preputial/clitoral gland, granulooiesis in bone marros, esoinophilic substance in nasal cavities

232
Q

Most common non-neoplastic lesions in B6C3F1 mice

Most common neoplastic?

A

Uterine cystic endometiral hyperplasia, fibro-osseous lesion of sternum and foci of mineralization of brainstem (thalamus)

Hepatocellular alterations/neoplasms

233
Q

What vessel if occluded in the mouse to study myocardial ischemic injury?

A

LAD (left anterior descending coronary artery)

234
Q

Transaortic banding in mice is used to induce what condition?

A

Pressure overload hypertrophy

235
Q

What is used to create abdominal aortic aneurysms in mice?

A

Calcium chloride and elastase perfusion

236
Q

Elastase induced aneurysmal degeneration was suppressed by treatment with what?

A

non-selectgive MMP inhibitor (doxycycline) and by targeted gene disruption of Mmp9 (but not by isolated deficiency of Mmp12). Aneurysms also didn’t occur in Mmp9 deficient animals or Mmp2 knockout mice.

237
Q

What are plethysmographs used for?

A

Pulmonary function testing

238
Q

What developmental stage of the mouse embryo is used for ES cell injection/aggregation, and co-culture with lentiviral vectors?

A

Morula

239
Q

What developmental stage of the mouse embryo is used for ES cell injection?

A

Blastula

240
Q

What developmental stage of the mouse embryo is used for pronuclear DNA injection, transposon-mediated gene transfer, and sub-zonal injection of lentiviral vectors?

A

Zygote

241
Q

What developmental stage of the mouse embryo is used for SMGT/ICSI-mediated gene transfer?

A

Sperm/Oocyte

242
Q

What virus causes subclinical salivary gland infections in mice?

A

MCMV-1 (mouse cytomegalovirus 1)

243
Q

Which disease can cause dry gangrene of an extremity in mice?

A

ECTV (Ectromelia “mousepox” virus)

244
Q

What disease causes watery to oily and yellow feces and inflamed perianal region in mice?

A

EDIM (Epizootic diarrhea of infant mice virus)

245
Q

Pale streaks or patches of myocardial necrosis (not epicardial mineralization) along with tan foci on liver and inflammed intestines can be seen with what disease in mice?

A

Tyzzers (Cl. piliforme)

246
Q

Hyperkeratosis in immunocompromised/athymic mice can be caused by what bacteria?

A

Corynebacterium bovis

247
Q

What bacteria causes an inflamed preputial gland in mice?

A

S. aureaus

248
Q

Exopthalmia in a nude mouse caused by a retroorbital abscess can be caused by what bacteria?

A

P. pnumotropica

249
Q

Retroorbital suppurative Harderian adenitis can be caused by what bacteria?

A

P. pneumotropica

250
Q

What stain can be used to visualize bordetella hinzii?

A

Warthin-Starry silver stain (can also see Helicobacter hinzii)

251
Q

A prolapsed rectum in an athymic nude mouse can be caused by what bacteria?

A

Helicobacter hepaticus

ACLAM (12 decks)

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