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ACLAM > Macaques > Flashcards

Macaques Flashcards

1
Q

The identification of what has been shown to be a useful tool in differentiating between macaques of Chinese versus Indian origin, or confirming geographic origin in medical records of rhesus monkeys with uncertain origin.

A

Single-nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs)

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2
Q

Catarrhine refers to (Old/New World primates) while Platyrrhine refers to (Old/New World primates)

A

Catarrhine: Old World
Platyrrhine: New world

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3
Q 
New World, Old World, or both:
Ischial callosities
Require vitamin D3/cannot utilize vitamin D2
Can utilize vitamin D2
Hemochorial placentation
Cheek pouches
Estrous cycles
Menstrual cycles
A

Ischial callosities- OWP
Require vitamin D3/cannot utilize vitamin D2: NWP
Can utilize vitamin D2: OWP
Hemochorial placentation: Both
Cheek pouches: OWP
Estrous cycles: NWP (except Cebus spp, which menstruate)
Menstrual cycles: OWP

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4
Q

Dental formula for rhesus and cynomolgus monkeys

A

32 teeth total; 2-1-2-3

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5
Q

T/F: Rhesus and cynomolgus macaques are poor swimmers

A

False- can swim from 2 days of age

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6
Q

T/F: In the wild, both rhesus and cynos exist primarily in male-dominated, multimale-multifemale groups

A

True

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7
Q

macaques adhere to a strict hierarchical class system with the dominant male changing groups every few years, while _____ macaques have a less stringent hierarchical dominance ranking and groups are often led by a number of high ranking males

A

Rhesus

Cynomolgus

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8
Q

_____ macaques are seasonal breeders, while _____ macaques can breed throughout the year

A

Rhesus

Cynomolgus

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9
Q

What is the gestation period for rhesus macaques? Cynos?

A

134 days (both spp)

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10
Q

How long is the menstrual cycle for rhesus? Cynos?

A

28 days (both spp)

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11
Q

Sexual maturity in male/female rhesus? Cynos?

A

Rhesus: 6.5/ 4.5
Cynos: 5.5/3.5

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12
Q

Estrus lasts ____ days in rhesus and _____ days in cynos

A

Rhesus: 9.5 days
Cynos: 11 days

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13
Q

All Macaca spp are of CITES status _____, except for _________, which is CITES status _____

A

II
Macaca silenus, the Lion-tailed macaque
I

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14
Q

In the indoor environment, the recommended temperature range for nonhuman primates is _____, with a relative humidity between _____ and _____. Allowances should be made for the TNZ of individual species, for example, marmosets and tamarins should be kept at a minimum of ____ % humidity.

A

64-84 degrees F
30-70%
50%

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15
Q

______ macaques are mainly vegetarian, while ______ are omnivorous

A

vegetarian, while ______ are omnivorous
Rhesus
Cynomolgus

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16
Q

What extra precautions should be taken prior to feeding when soaking/softening monkey biscuits?

A

Soak in fruit juice, as water tends to degrade vitamin C

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17
Q

When feeding commercial monkey biscuits, approximately how much biscuit are most monkeys fed by bodyweight (%)

A

2-4% of bodyweight

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18
Q

The different responses of Indian vs. Chinese macaques to _____ (infectious agent) illustrates the need to know the source/country of origin of macaques on study

A

SIV

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19
Q

Name 3 factors that make rhesus macaques an excellent model for HIV vaccine research

A

1) Genetic similarity to humans
2) Susceptibility to SIV
3) Homology to the human MHC class I, II, and TRC genes

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20
Q

_____ macaques have become the standard macaque model in pharmaceutical research in large part due to their availability through importers and the development of large breeding facilities in source countries

A

Cynomolgus

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21
Q

T/F: The genomes have been sequenced for both rhesus and cynomolgus macaques

A

True

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22
Q

What non-cyno/non-rhesus macaques have…
_____ are used as a model of HIV/SHIV research, gene therapy, and immunology studies
_____ have contributed to research on balding and behavior
_____ has been used as a model for Kyasanur Forest disease and in reproductive biology

A 
Macaca nemestrina (pigtailed)
Macaca arctoides (stumptailed)
Macaca radiata (bonnet)
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23
Q

What regulation required the research community to develop documents and follow an appropriate plan for environmental enhancement that would promote the psychological wellbeing of NHPs

A

The 1985 Amendment to the Animal Welfare Act

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24
Q

In what important way to Guide recommendations differ from AWR recommendations in regards to caging size for NHPs?

A

The Guide states that optimal cage measurements should not be based solely on floor space (ie: space allowances should be derived from performance standards)

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25
Q

Indoor NHP facilities should not drop below ____ degrees F or go above _____ degrees F for more than _____ consecutive hours

A

45
85
4

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26
Q

In general, cleaning and disinfection of the primary enclosure is recommended to occur ____ for NHPs.
In a hospital setting, it is recommended to clean/disinfect primary enclosures at what frequency?
In general, how frequently should primary enclosures be sanitized?

A

Daily
Twice daily
Every 2 weeks

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27
Q

Water should be _____ degrees F if ised as a sanitizing agent in cage wash.

A

180 degrees F

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28
Q

According to (gov’t organization), research institutions that house NHPs are obligated to provide their workers with established practices to ensure that appropriate levels of environmental quality and safety are maintained.

A

CDC

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29
Q

Starting in the mid-1980’s, (gov’t organization) developed the federal standard known as Hazard Comunication (“Worker Right to Know”).

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

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30
Q

The minimum ABSL for use with NHPs is

A

ABSL2

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31
Q

Name the most frequently found zoonotic virus in occupationally exposed NHP caretakers. How is this usually transmitted? What are the clinical signs in humans?

A

Simian foamy virus (SFV)
Transmitted through animal bites
No human disease reported

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32
Q

First aid for macaque exposure: state the ideal cleaning method for:
Eye/mucous membrane exposure:
Skin exposure:

A

Eyes: 15 minutes flush with sterile saline or water
Skin: Wash sin with 0.25% bleach followed by a wash with detergent soap (chlorhex or povidone iodine) for 15 minutes

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33
Q

Newly imported primates must be quarantined for a minimum of _____ days at a _____-registered primate import facility. Once animals have completed the required 31 day quarantine period, a minimum of an additional ____ quarantine period should be completed at the receiving research facility.

A

31 days
CDC
at least 30 day

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34
Q

In quarantine, NHPs should be TB tested every _____ weeks, rotating eyelids each week. The skin test should then be scored at (time points). For suspicious cases, _______(should be done)____

A

2 weeks
24, 48, 72 hrs
NHP anesthetized so that the eyelid can be palpated as a better indicator of induration, and the tuberculin skin test should be repeated on the skin of the abdomen or the opposite eyelide

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35
Q

How many reaction grades are there when scoring NHP TB tests? Describe the main changes that occur with each score

A

0- Negative/no reaction
1- Negative/bruise/extravasation
2- Negative/erythema but no swellling
3- Indeterminant/ erythema with minimal swelling vs. swelling with minimal erythema
4- Positive: obvious swelling of palpebrum with drooping of eyelid and varying erythema
5- Positive: swelling and/or necrosis with closed eyelid

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36
Q

List the recommended vaccines for outdoor-housed macaques. At what time points should these vaccines be boostered?

A 
MMR (at least 6 weeks after the initial dose)
Rabies (every 3 years)
Tetanus toxoid (every 5 years)
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37
Q

What serodiagnostic testing is recommended for macaques prior to accepting them into a colony.

A 
SIV
STLV
SRV1-5
B virus
Measles
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38
Q

T/F: Ideally, screening tests should have very high specificity, and positives on these should be confirmed with tests of very high sensitivity

A

False– high sensitivity screening tests (ex: MFIA), followed by high specificity (ex: PCR, Western blot, IFA) confirmatory tests

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39
Q

In order to calculate the positive and negative predictive values for a particular assay, what three values must be known?

A

Diagnostic sensitivity of test
Diagnostic specificity of test
Prevalence of disease in the target population

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40
Q

Name three test types that tend to have a low rate of false positives (in other words, these tests have a high diagnostic _____)

A

IFA
PCR
WB
Specificity

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41
Q

The greatest risk to detection and control of tuberculosis in NHPs is ______

A

the availability of mammalian old tuberculin (MOT) for the purposes of tuberculin skin testing

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42
Q

The most common site for venipuncture in the NHP is _____

A

the femoral vein

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43
Q

As in humans, CSF collected from the NHP’s ______ site has higher concentrations of TP, albumin, and IgG, along with lower concentrations of glucose and potassium, than CSF from the ______

A

lumbar

cisterna magna

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44
Q

Collection of CSF from what site is most desirable. For what reason?

A

Lumbar puncture

Fewer potential complications

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45
Q

The preferred site for collection of bone marrow from the NHP is ______ because ______

A

the iliac crest (usually an active site of BM production)

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46
Q

What is the maximum volume of fluids that should be administered subcutaneously at any one site in the macaque?

A

5 ml/kg

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47
Q

For distances greater than 20 m, ______ are commonly used for sedation, whereas for distances less than 20 m, _____ usually suffice. An alternative that poses less risk of injury to the animal is _____, which is useful up to 15 m.

A

CO2 powered rifle
CO2 powered pistols
Blowpipe

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48
Q

Sevoflurane has a (higher/lower) solubility coefficient compared to isoflurane, which provides a (faster/more gradual) anesthetic recovery

A

higher

faster

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49
Q

What two factors have historically made desflurane a less common anesthetic for veterinary species?

A

High vapor pressure

Expensive

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50
Q

Which regulatory document discusses the practice of canine tooth removal/reduction in NHPs? What is the document’s stance on this procedure?

A

discusses the practice of canine tooth removal/reduction in NHPs? What is the document’s stance on this procedure?
USDA AWA ACP #3
Non-medical canine tooth removal or reduction that exposes the pulp cavity is not considered appropriate veterinary care, although it may be acceptable for behavioral/breeding reasons if the pulp cavity is not exposed.

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51
Q

Describe the AVMA’s stance on canine tooth reduction in NHPs

A

Must be medically or scientifically justified, or justified by animal or human safety concerns. Behavior/environmental modification should be tried first.

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52
Q

Regarding computerized radiography equipment:
_____ systems use imaging plates to generate a difital image and they are generally relatively inexpensive.
_____ systems are usually more expensive but result in faster image acquisition.

A 
Computed radiograph (CR)
Direct digital radiograph (DR)
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53
Q

To be of greatest diagnostic value, NHP thoracic radiographs should be made with the animal in _______ position, during full inspiration.

A

upright

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54
Q

T/F: the WHO as well as the NIH have endorsed the therapeutic value of acupuncture

A

True

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55
Q

What is the name of the alternative medicine technique that has been used to reduce pain associated with osteoarthritis, improve wound healing,and reduce inflammation?

A

Low-level laser therapy (LLLT)

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56
Q

What species of macaque has extensive cervical mucus that is visible on ultrasound?

A

Macaca radiata

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57
Q

Chaya’s disease caused by ________ is a common hemoflagellate found in South and Central America and the south western US.

A

Trypanosoma Cruz I

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58
Q

In T. Cruz I the trypomastogote form is found in the ____ and the amastigote form is found in the ____.

A

Blood

Tissue pseudocysts

59
Q

What is the intermittent host for T. cruzi?

How does transmission occur?

A

Kissing bug or assassin bug

Bites, contamination of wounds or mucous membranes with infected insect droppings, or ingestion or contaminated fruits or insects

60
Q

Staphylococcal hypersensitivity in NHPs is due to a nonspecific interaction of the host immunoglobulins with what?

A

Protein A (cell wall protein that leads to activation of humoral and cellular inflammatory processes)

61
Q

Most common bacterial pathogen recovered from clinical vaginitis in macaques?

A

Staph aureus

62
Q

What bacteria are Gm+, catalase -, facultatively anaerobic cocci, <2um that grow in chains?

A

Streptococcus

63
Q

What are the most commonly isolated Streptococcus in NHP?

A

S. pneumoniae, and group A, B, and C streptococci

64
Q

S. pneumonia produces what effect on blood agar?

A

alpha hemolysis due to sensitivity to growth inhibition by optochin.

65
Q

What bacteria is normally housed in the oropharynx of humans and NHPs and is transmitted by aerosol via the upper respiratory tract, middle ear, or orally?

A

S. pneumonia

66
Q

What bacteria is the primary cause of meningoencephalitis in NHPs?

A

S. pneumonia

67
Q

Condition that causes lethargy, circling, clonic seizures, convulsions, nystagmus, head pressing, neck rigidity, muscle tremors, flaccid paralysis, hypotension and death.

A

meninoencephalitis (s. pneumonia)

68
Q

What condition causes gross engorgement of meningeal vasculature of cerebrum/cerebellum. Leptomeninges dull, thickened, and opaque. May have white/yellow purulent exudate in subarachnoid space, or petechiae of meninges. Asymmetry of cerebral hemispheeres, severe malacia of ventral frontal lobes.

A

S. pneumonia

69
Q

Suppurative arthritis and peritonitis, purulent bronchopenumonia, gray hepatization of ventral lung lobes, tonsilities, sinusitis, and pulmonary edema may occur with what bacteria?

A

S. pneumonia

70
Q

What bacteria is also associated with fatal cervical lymphadenitis in guinea pigs?

A

Streptococcus zooepidemicus (Group C, pyogenic, beta hemolytic)

71
Q

Cause of suppurative submandibular retropharyngeal lymphadenitis in red-bellied tamarins and Goeldii monkeys?

A

Strep. zooepidemicus

72
Q

What group of streptococci causes metritis and hemolytic uremic syndrome?

A

Group A (beta hemolytic)

73
Q

Gram +, non-sporulating rod natural found on skin an dmucous membranes of animals?

A

Corynebacterium

74
Q

Gram +, nonacid-fast bacterium that causes dermatophilosis

A

Dermatophilus congolensis (reported in owl and titi monkeys)

75
Q

Treatment of dermatophilus congolensis?

A

Penicillin +/- sterptomycin

76
Q

Glycerol will inhibit the growth of what bacteria, while assisting the growth of what other bacteria?

A

Inhibits Mycobacterium bovis.

M. tuberculosis prefers glycerol.

77
Q

What bacteria is niacin positive, and what is niacin negative? M. bovis or M. tuberculosis

A

M bovis is niacin Negative

M. tuberculosis is niacin Positive

78
Q

Inhalation of 1-3 bacilli can cause what disease?

A

tuberculosis

79
Q

Rule outs for persistent cough?

A

Tuberculosis (fatigued, anorectic, weight loss, dyspnea, lymphadenopathy and cutaneous abcesses)
Lung Mites

80
Q

What species of macaques is noted to develop more clinical disease to tuberculosis? Rhesus or Cynomolgus

A

Rhesus

81
Q

Post mortem diagnosis of TB?

A

multifocal granulomas in the lungs, disseminated, miliary infection in liver and spleen, enlargement/mineralization of LN in thorax

82
Q

Should Isoniazide be used solely to treat TB?

A

A single treatment has proved ineffective and can cause pyridoxine deficiency, behavioral changes, and render testing inaccurate.

Effective if also given streptomycin, p-aminosalicyclic acid, ethambutol, or rifampin.

83
Q

Most common isolate in NHPs

A

Nocardia asteroides- common following contact with skin wounds, inhalation, or ingestion.

84
Q

What bacteria causes cavitary lesions, multifocal abscesses, nodular kin lesions, and sulfur granules?

A

Nocardia asteroides

85
Q

A positive catalase test will produce what on a slide?

A

Bubbles

86
Q

What two bacteria are known to be catalase negative?

A

Enterococci and Streptococci

87
Q

What do OF stand for in the OF Glucose test?

A

OF = oxidation, fermentation

Note: one tube is covered with sterile mineral oil to act as an oxygen barrier

88
Q

If glucose is metabolized in an OF tube, what color does the medium change to when brom thymol blue (pH indicator) is added to indicate acid production?

A

Green to yellow

89
Q

What color hemolysis do beta-hemolytic, alpha-hemolytic, and gama-hemolytic produce?

A 
beta = clear zone (streptococcus subclassified by Lancefield group based on carbohydrate composition of the antigen in the cell wall.
alpha = green zone
gamma = no hemolysis
90
Q

What bacteria are usually coagulase positive? Strep or Staph?

A

Staph

91
Q

Name a catalase +, Gram + cocci that is beta hemolytic and coagulase +, and fermentive

A

S. aureus and S. intermedius

92
Q

Name a catalase +, Gram + cocci that is gamma hemolytic and coagulase +, and fermentive

A

Staph. hyicus

93
Q

Name a catalase +, Gram + cocci that is gamma hemolytic and coagulase -, and fermentive

A

Staph. epidermidis

94
Q

Name a catalase +, Gram + cocci that is oxidative

A

Staph micrococcus spp

95
Q

What bacteria is the most common isolate of external wounds and joints from NHPs with arthritis?

A

Staph aureus

96
Q

What cell wall protein produces staph hypersensitivity?

A

Cell wall protein A

97
Q

What bacteria is catalase negative, and beta hemolytic?

A

Strep zooepidemicus and S. pyogenes

98
Q

What bacteria is catalase negative, and alpha hemolytic

A

S. pneumonia

99
Q

What bacteria is a betalactamase?

A

Streptococcus

100
Q

What bacteria causes bronchopneumonia in OWPs and may disseminate to pneumococcal meningitis, serositis, and death

A

Streptococcus (OWPs>NWPs)

101
Q

How do you diagnose/trt streptococcus in pneumococcal meningitis?

A

Culture, alpha hemolysis, optochin test sensitivity, PCR

Trt with penicillin 5-7 days (zoonotic)

102
Q

What is the optochin test used for?

A

Differentiating S. pneumonia from other alpha hemolytic strep.
Strep is sensitive to optochin infused discs and growth will be inhibited around the disk.

103
Q

What is the Quellung reaction?

A

also called the Neufeld reaction, is a biochemical reaction in which antibodies bind to the bacterial capsule of Streptococcus pneumoniae, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, Bacillus anthracis, Haemophilus influenzae, Escherichia coli, and Salmonella.

104
Q

What Strep causes lymphadenitis, respiratory signs?

A

S. zooepidemicus

105
Q

What Strep causes toxic-like syndrome (multi-systemic)?

A

S. pyogenes

106
Q

Name Gram + bacilli, spore forming bacteria.

A

Bacillus and clostridia

107
Q

Name Gram + bacilli, spore -, catalase +, motility positive bacteria?

A

Listeria monocytogenes, mycobacterium

108
Q

Name Gram + bacilli, spore -, catalase +, motility negative bacteria?

A

Nocardia

109
Q

Name Gram + bacilli, spore -, catalase -, alpha hemolysis?

A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

110
Q

What are the two most common causes of mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

M. tuberculosis and M. bovis (M. africanum, microti, and canettii)

111
Q

What bacteria cause non-tb? (atypical infections)

A

M. avium, simiae, kansasii, leprae

112
Q

What NHPs develop TB worse? OWP or NWP?

A

OWP. M. mulatta more severe then M. fascicularis

113
Q

What is the most common route of TB transmission?

A

inhalation, but can also be ingested, bite wounds, or fomites. <50cfu produces 100% infection
Highly zoonotic

114
Q

What causes anorexia/wt. loss, cough/hemoptysis, lymphadenopathy, and death?

A

TB

115
Q

What causes the pathological findings of un-encapsulated granuloma with necrotic core. Surrounding the core are multinucleated Langhan’s giant cells. Acid fast bacilli may be seen (rare)

A

TB

116
Q

Which of the following does not cause a false positive TB test?

  1. Measles vax
  2. Freund’s complete adjuvant
  3. Trauma
  4. Atypical mycobacterium
  5. reaction to vehicle
A

Measles vax (false negative), along with too early or advance dz, and isoniazid treatment

117
Q

TB cultures must be held for how long to be considered negative?

A

8 weeks

118
Q

What mycobacterium requires glycerol for growth, while it is inhibitory to another mycobacterium?

A

M. tuberculosis needs glycerol

Glycerol inhibits M. bovis.

119
Q

What bacteria causes granulomatous inflammation of the terminal ileum and proximal colon due to infiltration of foamy macrophages into mucosa and submucosa? What stain is used to see this bacteria?

A

M. avium- M intracellulare complex (Runyon group III)

Ziehl-Neelsen stain (for acid fast bacilli)

120
Q

What is the rule out for recurrent diarrhea and weight loss in stump tailed macaques?

A

M. paratuberculosis (johnes dz). Granulomas form on affected tissues (GI, liver, spleen), Langhans giant cells, acid fast bacilli resent in lesions, requires mycobactin for in vitro growth

121
Q

What causes a natural infection in Sooty Mangabey (Cercocebus atys), chimps, and cynomologs causing nodular lesions, ulcerations of the extremities (ears, nose, tails, fingers, hands, scrotum, penis)?

A

M. leprae (Leprosy/Hansen’s dz)

122
Q

What atypical mycobacterium is like M. tuberculosis but less pathogenic (and can cause a + TB test). What is the most likely source of infection?

A

M. Kansasii

Water supply

123
Q

What bacteria forms short chains with peritrichous flagella, and may require cold enrichment. it penetrates the gut and grows in splenic /hepatic macrophage causing necrosis. Most commonly causes repro failure (abortion/stillbirth, neonatal septicemia)

A

M. Kansasii

124
Q

Name a bacteria that is non-spore forming rod with rounded ends, and causes alpha hemolysis on blood agar? Has affected black and red tamarin and diana monkey.

A

Erysipelothris rhusiopathiae

125
Q

Name a spore forming obligate anaerobe (GM + non-encapsulated) that develops a neurotoxin - tetanospasmin- retrogade up motor nerves - inhibits Renshaw cells which control motor neuron impulses. See bipedal hopping/running, then death from respiratory paralysis or exhaustion. Piloerection, abrasions, and facial grimace.

A

C. tetani

Toxoid prevetion, antitoxin treatment

126
Q

What bacteria causes acute gastric dilitation, abdominal distension, labored breathing, and resulting liquefacive myonecrosis from extracellular toxins (alpha and theta)

A

C. perfringens

127
Q

What medications are used to treat C. perfringens?

A

Ampicillin orally, anti-gassing agent, IV fluids, corticosteroid to counter shock.

128
Q

What bacteria produces a toxin at the neuromuscular junction of cholinergic nerve fibers to prevent synaptic release of acetylcholine?

A

C botulinum toxin A-G

129
Q

Feeding cooked chickens is associated with what disease in NWM?

A

Clostridium botulinum

130
Q

What condition causes hepatic and intestinal dz (diarhhea), necrotizing typhlocolitis, hepatitis, myocarditia in cotton-top tamarin infants (s. oedipus) and SIV rhesus (m mulatta)?

A

Clostria

131
Q

What causes pseudomembranous colitis (AAD in humands/animals) characterized by watery stool, hematochezia, weakness, death?

A

Exotoxin A and B caused by treatment with antibiotics

132
Q

Name a weekly acid-fast, branched hyphea that is an environmental saprophyte?

A

Nocardia asteroides- most common isolate in NHPs

133
Q

What are the clinical signs of Nocarida?

A

dyspnea, epistaxis, intermittent diarrhea, coma

134
Q

What bacteria causes pulmonary lesions (multi-nodular, red-gray consolidation, pulmonary hemorrhage and edema), abscesses of abd organs, and cutaneous draining lesions?

A

Nocardia

Culture on blood or Sabourads dextrose agar at 25 and 37 degrees.

135
Q

What bacteria produces pyogranulomas with sulfur granules containing filamentous bacteria bordered by histocytes?

A

Nocardia (no treatment)

136
Q

What is the classic triad of Yersiniosis (enterocolitica and pseudotuberculosis)

A

Hepatic and splenic necrosis, mesenteric lymphadenopathy, ulcerative enterocolitis (multifocal)

137
Q

Squirrel monkeys have enlarged cervical LNs with this bacteria? The bacteria is gram -, facultative anaerobe with peritrichous flagella. How do you treat?

A

Yersinia
Slow growth and may require cold enrichment 4-7 degrees
Treatment not successful: aminoglycosides and TMZ

138
Q

Name 4 gram - bacilli that grows on macconkey agar, is oxidative, and Lac -

A

Aeromonas, Moraxella catarrhalis, Bordetella bronchiseptica, Pseudomonas

139
Q

What bacteria is Gram -, pleomorphic bacillus with monotrichous flagellum found in water/sewage (common fish an damphibian dz)

A

Aeromonas

140
Q

What bacteria occurs more in NWM than OWM, and causes hepatic necrosis, pneumonia, eterocolitis, GI signs and peritonitis. Beta hemolytic on culture

A

Aeromonas hydrophilia

141
Q

What Aeromonas bacteria is isolated clinically in Mauritian Cynos (and is described in slaughter house pigs in portugal)

A

Aeromonas simiae

142
Q

What Gram - diplococcus is most prevalent in dry, winter months (humidity <45%) causing epistaxis, sneezing, mucohemorrhagic nasal discharge and periorbital swelling? Treatment?

A

Moraxella catarrhalis

Tx: Clavamox, macrolides, cephalosporings, TMZ, tetracycline, fluoroquinolones

143
Q

What rare bacteria causes unsteady gate, nystagmus, head tilt, and circling in squirrel monkeys recently shipped? or pneumonia, pleuritis, meningitis in owl monkeys?

A

P. multocida

144
Q

What bacteria is non-spore forming, and produces urease and uses citrate? Treatment?

A

B. bronchiseptica (affects all lung lobes)
Oxytetracycline will resolve clinical dz but not eliminate from nasal passage
Autogenous bacterin reported in marmoset

ACLAM (12 decks)

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