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PPL exams pilot training > Metrology > Flashcards

Metrology Flashcards

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Charter Pilot (Part 135) - Oral flashcards
1
Q

ISA

A

International standard atmosphere

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2
Q

ISA temperature at sea level?

A

15oC

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3
Q

Atmosphere is higher where?

A

• Atmosphere extends furthest into the atmosphere at equator.

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4
Q

where does most of the worlds weather occur?

A

• Area where most weather occurs is called troposphere.

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5
Q

Broundery between Stratosphere and Troposhere?

A

• Broundery between Stratosphere and Troposhere is called tropopause.

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6
Q

• At sea level air density is …

A

normally 1,225 grams per cubic metre.

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7
Q

Ocean air is called..

A

• Air over the ocean is called maritime air

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8
Q

moisture content in ocean air?

A

• Air that passes over the ocean is going to be more moist.

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9
Q

Air is normally heated from what?

A

• The air surrounding the earth is mainly heated from below by the earths surface.

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10
Q

What is Terrestrial radiation

A

• Terrestrial radiation is the re-radiation of heat from the earth.

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11
Q

Advection?

A

• The transfer of heat by horizontal motion of an air mass is called advection.

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12
Q

Convection?

A

• The transfer of heat by vertical motion of an air mass is called convection.

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13
Q

Katabatic wind,

A

that flows down hills during the night as it cools

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14
Q

Anabatic wind,

A

that flows up hills during the day because of heating

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15
Q

Convert C to F

A

actual formula is multiply by 1.8, add 32

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16
Q

How fast does pressure drop?

A

Pressure drops about 1mb(HPa) per 30ft (at lower levels.

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17
Q

What causes the daily heating and cooling effects?

A

• The daily heating and cooling effects cause the semi-diurnal variation in pressure.

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18
Q

What do isobars do?

A

• Isobar, line on map joining places of equal sea level pressure.

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19
Q

What is the pressure gradient?

A

• The variation of pressure with horizontal distance is called the pressure gradient

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20
Q

What happens if you fly into an area of low pressure?

A

• If you fly into an area of low pressure and don t change altimeter setting. GRAD DECEND as that pressure height is now lower.

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21
Q

• ISA pressure at sea level

A

1013.2Hpa

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22
Q

• ISA density at sea level

A

1,225 grams per cubic metre.

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23
Q

• ISA temperature decrease,

A

2oC per 1000ft gained in lower levels

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24
Q

• Temperature lapse rate,

A

the actual rate of decrease of temperature with altitude.

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25
Q

• Above 36,000ft the ISA temperature

A

ceases to fall at -57oC.

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26
Q

What is Wind?

A

• Horizontal flow of air is called Wind.

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27
Q

Wind Direction, true or magnetic north?

A

• Wind direction is related to True North. oT

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28
Q

Runway headings, true or magnetic north?

A

• Runway headings are related to Magnetic headings. oM

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29
Q

• Wind direction that has changed in a clockwise direction is said to have..

A

Veered.

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30
Q

• Wind direction that has changed in a anti-clockwise direction is said to have…

A

backed

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31
Q

Pressure gradient force?

A

force that sets air parcel in motion from high pressure to low.

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32
Q

Coriolis force?

A

• Force that causes the curing direction of the wind is called the Coriolis force.

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33
Q

Coriolis winds directions?

A

• Coriolis winds caused by rotation of the earth, strongest towards the poles. (northern Hemisphere, goes to the right, southern to the left)

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34
Q

Geostrophic wind

A

• Geostrophic wind, wind that is created when the pressure gradient is balanced by Coriolis force so that the wind blows parallel to the isobars.

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35
Q

• Surface wind is measured at

A

10m

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36
Q

• Surface wind is decreased by

A

Friction

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37
Q

• The surface wind gradient will

A

back

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38
Q

• The backing of the surface wind is more pronounced over

A

land

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39
Q

• There is more vertical motion of air

A

at night

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40
Q

• Surface wind stronger during

A

the day

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41
Q

• Surface wind 330/20 at altitude example?

A

350/30

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42
Q

• Altitude wind 240/35, surface example?

A

220/20

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43
Q

• Variation of wind speed and direction is called

A

wind sheer

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44
Q

• The ability of aeroplane to climb is ……… when flying up a valley towards high ground in a strong headwind.

A

degraded

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45
Q

• Mountain waves present when

A

lentical waves are formed.

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46
Q

Effects of mountain waves can be felt up to

A

40nm downwind

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47
Q

4 types of cloud?

A
  • Cirriform
  • Cumuliform
  • Stratiform
  • Nimbus
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48
Q

• Cumuliform?

A

heaped or lumpy clouds.

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49
Q

• Stratiform?

A

extensive layer of clouds

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50
Q

• Cumulus?

A

Dense clouds resembling cauliflower

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51
Q

• Cumulonimbus?

A

heavy dense cloud with thunder and lightning.

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52
Q

Nimbus?

A

rain bearing.

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53
Q

humidity?

A

amount of water vapour parcel of air contains.

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54
Q

• Higher dewpoint temperature when

A

Humidity is higher

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55
Q

Air becomes saturated?

A

cloud cools when carrying max water.

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56
Q

Air expands as it

A

cools

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57
Q

• Adiabatic process,

A

heat is neither added nor subtracted.

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58
Q

• Enviromental lapse rate?

A

the rate of change of temperature in surrounding air that is not rising.

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59
Q

• The Level of cloud depends on

A

moisture content and dewpoint temperature

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60
Q

• Turbulance cloud?

A

cloud formed by mixing of air.

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61
Q

• Orographic cloud?

A

cloud formed by a mountain range causing uplift of air.

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62
Q

• Origraphic uplift of unstable air is more likely to cause formation

A

of cumuliform cloud. (stable air stratiform)

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63
Q

• Drizzle generally comes from

A

stratiform

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64
Q

Virga?

A

• Rain that falls but evaporates before it hits the ground.

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65
Q

Lenticular cloud?

A

• Cloud associated with standing mountain waves.

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66
Q

Conditions required for a thunderstorm?

A
  • Instability
  • Moisture
  • Trigger action
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67
Q

Three stages of thunderstorm cycle?

A
  • Cumulus
  • Mature
  • Dissipating
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68
Q

Three types of trigger action?

A
  • Front forcing air aloft
  • Strong heating
  • Mountain forcing air up
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69
Q

Cumulas stage?

A

• The early Cumulus Stage, strong warm updrafts 1-2nm miles wide with no downdrafts (temp higher then outside).

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70
Q

Start of Mature stage?

A

• Lightning signify start of mature stage.

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71
Q

Mature stage?

A

• Mature stage contains updrafts and downdrafts (downdrafts and cool)

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72
Q

Anvil?

A

• Top of the cloud that spreads out is called an Anvil.

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73
Q

hazards caused by T’storm?

A
  • Windshear
  • Turbulence
  • Icing
  • Radio Interference
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74
Q

T’stoms can effect aircrfat up to …. nm

A

10nm

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75
Q

Subsidence?

A

slow sinking of an upper air mass.

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76
Q

What causes the slow rising of a large air mass?

A

• The slow rising of a large air mass is associated with convergence at the earth’s surface.

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77
Q

• Convergence is associated with a ……. pressure syestem

A

low

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78
Q

• Divergence is at the earth’s surface is associated with ……. pressure syestem

A

high

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79
Q

• Subsiding air becomes …………

A

• Subsiding air becomes warmer drier and more stable (subsidence is associated with stability)

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80
Q

Convergence is ……

A

instability

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81
Q

• Low pressure system

A

instability

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82
Q

• Warm front,

A

warm air displacing cool air

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83
Q

• Cloud base …….. are warm front approaches.

A

lowers

84
Q

general cloud type associated with warm front.

A

stratiform

85
Q

slope of a typical warm front?

A

1/150

86
Q

cirrus clouds 200nm ahead of the surface front indicate?

A

warm front approaches

87
Q

Rain fall associated with a warm front can fall ……..

A

up to several hundred miles ahead of the surface front.

88
Q

what is a cold front?

A

• Cold air replacing warm air at the surface.

89
Q

Cold front clouds?

A

cumuliform. (form suddenly, showers, Veer)

90
Q

Cold front passes

A

temperature and dew point fall.

91
Q

• Cold and warm fronts, wind will

A

veer

92
Q

• Occluded front?

A

when cold front overtakes a warm front.

93
Q

Ice forming and you can ‘t decend further? Actions?

A

Turn around

94
Q

Northern Hemisphere, wind flow around high pressure?

A

• Northern hemisphere, wind flows antclockwise around low pressure. (starboard (right) drift).

95
Q

rising air is associated with

A

low pressure

96
Q

trough?

A

V-shaped extension of low pressure

97
Q

what front moves faster?

A

Cold

98
Q

high or low for good weather?

A

High, calmer weather

99
Q

• Subsiding air associated with

A

highs (good weather)

100
Q

Anti-cyclone

A

High pressure syestem

101
Q

ridge

A

u-shaped extension isobars

102
Q

Col

A

almost constant pressure between two highs and two lows.

103
Q

Airframe ice?

A

ice that forms on the wings, prop etc.

104
Q

carburettor ice?

A

ice can form when the outside temp is as high as 15oC.

105
Q

Clear ice?

A

• Clear ice is most dangerous type of airframe ice

106
Q

Large supercooled droplets cause

A

clear ice

107
Q

Small supuecooled droplets cause

A

rime ice

108
Q

Requirement for radiation fog?

A
  • Cloudless night
  • Light winds
  • Moist air
109
Q

• 1km = in mist

A

fog, 1.5km mist (Visibility)

110
Q

What is Advection fog?

A

• Advection fog, formed if warm moist air flows over a cold surface, it will cool. It has to then cool to its dew point to form fog.

111
Q

What is Radiation fog?

A

terrestrial radiation causes the surface to cool at night. This will cool the air in contact with it and form fog.

112
Q

What is frontal fog?

A

fog formed by the interaction of two air masses.

113
Q

Inversion

A

when temperature increases with height

114
Q

When is a inversion most likely to occur?

A

• More likely an inversion will occur at dawn

115
Q

how can winds cause stratus clouds?

A

• Winds can cause fog to lift and form stratus.

116
Q

• As the land heats up during the day the

A

sea fog may drift over the land.

117
Q

• When flying beneath an inversion, visibility is going to be

A

poor because of mist, fog smog.

118
Q

• Aerodrome forecast, TAF?

A

TAF forecast of expected weather at aerodrome.

119
Q

METAR?

A

routine aerodrome report

120
Q

SIGMET

A

significant weather that may effect a flight.

121
Q

Weather phenom that may effect the safty of a flight.

A
  • Active thunderstorms
  • Tropical revolving storms.
  • Heavy hail
  • Mountain waves
122
Q

AIRMET

A

info available by phone or fax and aerodrome briefing offices.

123
Q

VOLMET

A

service that broadcast metrological reports continuously from aerodromes.

124
Q

TAF cycle in hrs?

A

• TAF normally issued for aerodrome on 9 hour cycle.

125
Q

• Report of weather at a specific aerodrome is called a ?

A

METAR

126
Q

NOSIG

A

no expected change for two hours.

127
Q

• Cloud base given as height ….

A

above aerodrome

128
Q

9999Vis

A

Vis greater then 10km

129
Q

CAVOK

A

Visibility is more than 10 km (9999) No clouds below 5000 feet. NSW

130
Q

TEMPO

A

temporary weather change occurring, would not be accurate to put out a TAF.

131
Q

PROB20

A

Possibility 20%

132
Q

RVR

A

runway visual range

133
Q

TCU

A

cloud is towering cluminimbus

134
Q

EMBD

A

thunderstorms are in other clouds, difficult to see

135
Q

BECMG

A

weather will change in forecast period

136
Q

• TAF 1220 means

A

1200 to 2000 hrs

137
Q

• METAR 1220 means

A

1220 hours

138
Q

+ =

- =

A

heavy and light

139
Q

RADZ

A

rain and drizzle

140
Q

+SHRAGR

A

heavy rain and showers with hail

141
Q

NSW

A

no significant weather

142
Q

• Temp 03/M01

A

temp 3oC and dewpoint -1.

143
Q

SAUK

A

METAR

144
Q

FCUK

A

TAF

145
Q

TAF AMD

A

amended aerodrome forecast.

146
Q

BR

A

mist

147
Q

FZ

A

freezing

148
Q

LYR

A

layer

149
Q

Radiation fog is usually associated with:

A

anticyclonic conditions

150
Q

Whilst reading a UK Metform 215 (F215), you see a weather phenomena marked as OCNL. What does this mean?

A

It is occasional

151
Q

Cirrus cloud, giving way to Altostratus cloud, then Nimbostratus with steady rain is associated with:

A

a warm front.

152
Q

If the environmental lapse rate is 1.4 degrees Celsius per 1000 ft, the air mass is said to be:

A

stable.

153
Q

An elongated area of high pressure is commonly known as a:

A

trough

154
Q

A heavy shower would be reported in a METAR as:

A

+SH

155
Q

A heavy shower would be reported in a METAR as:

A

10,000ft amsl

156
Q

In a TAF or METAR, a wind blowing from the west, at a strength of 20 knots would normally be written as:

A

27020

157
Q

Why is the saturated adiabatic lapse rate less than the dry adiabatic lapse rate?

A

Because latent heat is released as water vapour condenses

158
Q

At which of the following temperature and humidity levels is carburettor icing most likely to occur?

A

Highest humidity lowest temperature

159
Q

Which of the following lists correctly describes the layers of the atmosphere, starting with the one closest to the earth?

A

Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere

160
Q

Fairford is reporting the following METAR: EGVA 070755Z AUTO 06003KT 9999 OVC034 12/11. What is meant by AUTO?

A

The entire METAR has been automatically generated

161
Q

You are reviewing a UK Metform 215 (F215), and read the following text: MTW MAX VSP 700 FPM AT 080. What does this mean?

A

Mountain wave activity is present, with a maximum vertical speed of 700 ft / min

162
Q

What visibility and cloud conditions are being experienced at Cork from this latest METAR? EICK 261530Z 09014KT 9999 FEW006 BKN034 15/14 Q1015 TEMPO 5000

A

1-2 oktas cloud at 600 ft, broken cloud at 3400 ft and temporary periods of reduced visibility

163
Q

How are cumulus clouds with marked vertical development identified in a METAR?

A

TCU

164
Q

Katabatic winds are typically _______ anabatic winds. What are the missing words?

A

stronger

165
Q

The Fohn wind effect describes the effects of moist air rising over a mountain. On the other side of the mountain, the airflow tends to be:

A

drier and warmer

Precipitation on other side of mountain removes moisture

166
Q

Form F215:

A

UK low-level weather chart providing a graphical display of areas of different weather plus text relating to surface visibility, weather and cloud up to FL100, updated four times a day.

167
Q

Form F214:

A

UK spot wind chart providing wind speed and direction and temperature for standard levels up to FL240, updated four times a day.

168
Q

Form 414:

A

European spot-wind chart providing wind speed and direction and temperature for standard levels up to FL240, updated twice a day.

169
Q

Form F415:

A

European low-level weather chart providing a graphical display of areas of different weather plus text relating to surface visibility, weather and cloud up to FL100, updated four times a day.

170
Q

As the warm front approaches at the surface, the air pressure will:

A

steadily fall

171
Q

An environmental lapse rate of 1.8 degrees Celsius per 1000 ft indicates that the air mass is:

A

conditionally unstable

172
Q

Tropical maritime air masses are commonly:

A

stable, warm and moist

173
Q

London City is reporting the following METAR: EGLC 070750Z AUTO 03002KT 4600NDV BR OVC010/// 11/10 Q1023. What is meant by 4600NDV?

A

No directional variation

174
Q

On a weather chart, what abbreviation is used to describe conditions likely to be encountered ‘At Sea’?

A

SEA

175
Q

A warm moist airflow from the sea moving over a cold land mass can lead to:

A

advection fog

176
Q

The dry adiabatic lapse rate is usually taken to be:

A

3.0 degrees Celsius for every 1000 ft

177
Q

Which of the following weather conditions would NOT be reported as CAVOK?

A

Visibility 15km, broken cloud at 12000 ft including cumulonimbus at 18000ft

178
Q

The atmospheric pressure at any given place is constantly varying.

A

weather systems and the daily heating effect of the sun

179
Q

What are the hazards to aviators caused by thunderstorms?

A

A Loss of control due to severe windshear
B Damage from hail and lightning strikes, interference with radio equipment
C Structural damage in severe turbulence

180
Q

CAVOK term

A

(aviation) Ceiling and Visibility are OK; specifically, (1) there are no clouds below 5000 feet above aerodrome level (AAL) or minimum sector altitude (whichever is higher) and no cumulonimbus or towering cumulus; (2) visibility is at least 10 kilometres (6 statute miles) or more; and (3) no current or forecast significant weather such as precipitation, thunderstorms, shallow fog or low drifting snow.

181
Q

A 24h TAF will have usually been issued ______ in advance of the start of the TAF. What are the missing words?

A

1 hour

182
Q

With respect to Significant Weather information, what is meant by the abbreviation ‘COT’?

A

coast

183
Q

What sort of weather would you associate a tropical continental air mass with?

A

Hot and dry conditions with the possibility of haze in summer

184
Q

What visibility and cloud conditions are being experienced at Cork from this latest METAR? EICK 261530Z 09014KT 9999 FEW006 BKN034 15/14 Q1015 TEMPO 5000

A

1-2 oktas cloud at 600 ft, broken cloud at 3400 ft and temporary periods of reduced visibility

185
Q

Standard increases in temperature with altitude

A

2oC 1000ft

186
Q

veering

A

clockwise

187
Q

backing

A

anticlockwise

188
Q

divergence

A

high

189
Q

Convergence

A

low

190
Q

Polar maritime?

A

cold, moist, unstable

191
Q

polar continental

A

cold, dry

192
Q

Tropical maritime

A

warm, moist, stable

193
Q

tropical continental

A

warm, dry

194
Q

Warm front from the ground?

A

high cirrus clouds
lower base of cirro, alto and nimbo stratus
rain may fall and virga may occur

195
Q

Cold front

A

Cooler air mass undercutting a mass of warm air, which is displaced at the surface.

196
Q

Hoar ice formation

A

surface temperature reaches freezing point before dew begins to form on it.

197
Q

rime ice formation

A

Rime is a rough white ice deposit which forms on vertical surfaces exposed to the wind. It is formed by supercooled water droplets of fog freezing on contact with a surface it drifts past.

198
Q

At sea level on the windward side of the mountain, the air has a temperature of +19 and dew point +13 degrees Celsius. Due to rainfall, the dew point becomes +11.5 degrees Celsius on the lee side of the mountain. Approximately what would you expect the cloud base to be on the windward side?

A

2000ft

199
Q

The ratio of water vapour actually in a parcel of air, to what that parcel of air can hold when it is saturated is known as the:

A

relative humidity

200
Q

What sort of weather conditions is an arctic maritime air mass associated with?

A

Cold, occasional precipitation with dry and clear conditions especially in winter

201
Q

The stage in the life cycle of a thunderstorm, where mainly downdrafts are experienced is termed the:

A

dissipating stage

202
Q

In the northern hemisphere, when wind comes into contact with the surface of the earth, friction causes it to:

A

back in direction and slow down

203
Q

Immediately after the passing of the warm front, the temperature will:

A

rise

204
Q

As air rises and cools, its relative humidity will:

A

A increase

205
Q

What sort of weather are tropical maritime air masses usually associated with in winter?

A

cloud and rain

206
Q

The presence of an ‘anvil’ topped cumulonimbus cloud ahead indicates the presence of:

A

an area of strong up and downdrafts, which may be part of a thunderstorm.

PPL exams pilot training (19 decks)

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