AirLaw Flashcards
1
Q
With respect to airspace classification requirements, which of the following correctly describes the minimum equipment required for a private flight under VFR into Class E airspace below FL100?
A
Nothing
2
Q
An important document concerning Take-off, Climb and Landing performance, printed on pink paper, is an example of:
A
an aeronautical information circular (AIC)
3
Q
Pilots practising instrument approaches in Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) must:
A
inform Air Traffic Control of their intentions and carry a ‘competent observer’.
4
Q
With reference to search and rescue (SAR) operations, the letter ‘V’ laid out on the ground by survivors means:
A
Require assistance.
5
Q
After completing your PPL (A) you wish to gain a multi-engine piston landplane rating. How many hours of Pilot in Command experience must you have before commencing training?
A
70 hours
6
Q
You are setting your altimeter at an aerodrome, where the elevation is 75 ft. The QNH you have been given is 1017 hectopascals. What would you expect the aerodrome QFE to be?
A
1015
7
Q
Special VFR is a concession that:
A
facilitates flights that would otherwise be restricted due to weather and is at the discretion of the appropriate ATC unit.
8
Q
A weight schedule, prepared as part of a previous Certificate of Airworthiness has now been superceded by a new weight schedule. For how long must this old schedule be kept?
A
6 months
9
Q
How far out is long final?
A
between 4 to 8 miles from runway threshold.
10
Q
A white dumb-bell displayed on the signals square indicates that:
A
aircraft movement confined to hard surfaces.
11
Q
In the absence of any special exemption, which of the following correctly describes the minimum equipment required for a private flight under VFR into Class D airspace below FL 100?
A
VHF-COM
12
Q
What is the width of a MATZ ‘stub’?
A
4nm
13
Q
An aircraft flying inside a control zone at night is required to operate under:
A
IFR unless it is flying on a SVFR flight
14
Q
According to the Rules of the Air, an anti-collision light fitted to an aircraft means:
A
A flashing red or white light.
15
Q
Pilots practising instrument approaches in Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) must:
A
inform Air Traffic Control of their intentions and carry a ‘competent observer’
16
Q
Subject to certain requirements and restrictions, the holder of a PPL(A) licence is able to engage in aerial work as pilot in command in the UK. Which of the following activities may be undertaken?
A
glider towing and the dropping of parachutists.
17
Q
Entries in a personal flying logbook must be made in:
A
ink or indelible pencil.
18
Q
What is the width of a MATZ ‘stub’?
A
4nm
19
Q
You see a red navigation light out to your right whilst flying at night, on a constant relative bearing. Which of the following is correct?
A
There is risk of collision
20
Q
Effective 15th March 2007, Class C airspace is designated in the UK:
A
above FL195
21
Q
According to the Chicago Convention, contracting State authorities have the right to search the aircraft of another State:
A
without unreasonable delay
22
Q
You are planning to fly into a high altitude aerodrome, where it is normal practice to use QNH for the circuit and approach. Why might this be?
A
Altermeter cannot diplsay
23
Q
The Regional Pressure Setting is the:
A
lowest forecast QNH for any aerodrome within that region.
24
Q
Special VFR is a concession that:
A
facilitates flights that would otherwise be restricted due to weather and is at the discretion of the appropriate ATC unit.
25
The QFE for the aerodrome is currently 1010 hectopascals. The QNH you have been given is 1013 hectopascals. Approximately what would you expect the aerodrome elevation to be?
90ft
26
In level flight above the transition altitude (usually 3000ft), what altimeter setting should be used by pilots flying IFR?
1013HPa
27
When overtaking another aircraft in flight, you should:
pass to the right of the other aircraft.
28
From 8th April 2012, what sort of medical are EASA private pilots required to have?
A Class 2 medical under Part-MED
29
Air Traffic Controllers may close a licensed aerodrome in certain conditions. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
ATC may close the aerodrome if, in their opinion, weather conditions have significantly deteriorated.
30
What are the vertical dimensions of a MATZ stub?
From 1000 ft to 3000 ft above aerodrome level.
31
Lighting on a ballon?
Carry a steady red light.
32
Lighting on airships?
white light in all directions.
33
Open air gathering?
not below 1000ft or within 1000m
34
Simulated instrument flight?
must have a safety pilot who can see.
35
Practice Instrument approaches?
inform ATC and carry a observer
36
Emergency frequency?
121.5
37
Avgas marked in
Red
38
You are flying at night, and see a single fixed white light coming closer. What are you approaching?
Another aircraft heading roughly the same way as you
39
A Certificate of Airworthiness issued by one contracting State will be recognized as valid by another contracting State, providing:
that the requirements for certificate issue were to an accepted standard.
40
In which classes of airspace would an IFR flight be separated from other IFR flights?
Class A, C, D, and E
41
Under the terms of the Chicago Convention, who has the duty to ensure that aircraft in flight comply with the rules and regulations?
The State of registry of the aircraft and any State entered by the aircraft
42
red flashing like from the ground?
Military airport
43
When approaching to land at an aerodrome below a TMA or CTA, what altimeter setting should be used when flying below the transition altitude to avoid entering controlled airspace?
Aerodrome QNH
44
According to ICAO Annex 11 (Air Traffic Services), an Alerting Service should be provided:
to all aircraft provided with an Air Traffic Control Service.
45
To fly an aircraft on an international flight, the pilot must hold a licence issued or rendered valid by:
the State in which the aircraft is registered.
46
In order to revalidate a single engine piston class rating by experience, within 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating a holder of a PPL(A) licence is required to undertake a training flight with an instructor and complete:
12 hours of flight time, 6 hours as pilot in command, 12 take-offs and landings.
47
When flying more than 50nm from land, ICAO Annex 6 states that single engined aircraft shall be equipped with:
lifejackets
48
What in-flight visibility are you required to have in order to fly Special VFR (SVFR) in a control zone as a basic PPL (A)?
10km
49
What documentation is required in order to tow a glider?
The Certificate of Airworthiness must include an express provision for this purpose.
50
Which of the following items would not be required for a single engine, fixed gear, fixed propeller aircraft?
Propeller logbook
51
What is 'clutch QFE'?
The lowest value QFE in a combined MATZ (CMATZ)
52
In which classes of airspace would an IFR flight be separated from other VFR flights?
Class C
53
You have been intercepted and have been requested to land at an aerodrome you consider inadequate for your aircraft. How do you signal to the intercepting aircraft that you cannot land here?
Overfly the runway and then circle the aerodrome maintaining a height between 1000 and 2000 ft
54
A pilot is following the coastline and transiting controlled airspace in accordance with ATC instructions. Which of the following statements is correct?
The pilot is not required to keep the coastline on any particular side.
55
At 4000 ft, what vertical and horizontal separation from cloud are you required to maintain? (You are a basic PPL, flying VFR).
1000 ft vertical separation, 1500 m horizontal separation
56
You are reviewing some aeronautical information circulars (AIC's) which are printed on mauve paper. What subject do they concern?
UK Airspace Restrictions
57
You leave the dentist at 0900 having had a tooth filling under a local anaesthetic. Assuming that you feel fine, how soon can you fly?
2100 the same day (12 hours)
58
Identify the type of airspace from the following description: IFR and VFR flights are permitted. All flights are subject to ATC service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR and VFR flights. VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information about other VFR flights.
Class C
59
In accordance with ICAO Annex 7, the Certificate of Registration:
must be carried on international flights, and may be carried on domestic flights.
60
On what colour paper would you expect to find an aeronautical information circular (AIC) concerning administration matters?
White
61
You are intending to fly VFR in accordance with the semicircular rule on a magnetic track of 195. Which of the following is your correct flight level?
FL45
62
In the AIP, where would you find information on specific aerodromes?
AD
63
You are flying in a control zone under Special VFR (SVFR). Who is responsible for maintaining terrain clearance?
The pilot in command.
64
When overtaking another aircraft at night, the manoeuvre is considered complete when:
the overtaking aircraft is passed and clear.
65
Non-urgent info should be printed on which color?
Pink AICs
66
After taking small amounts of alcohol no fly for
8 hours
67
How many mins to allow large aircraft before taking off?
3 mins for half
| 2 mins for whole runway
68
wake turbulance seperation?
8nm 4 mins
69
Maneuvering areas?
runway, taxi ways
70
Non-maneuvering areas?
apron, parking bays and maintenance
71
unlicensed aerodromes used only
if Prior permission obtained or in a emergency.
72
High press to low press
descend
73
Controlled and uncontrolled airspace?
A-F Control
| F-G uncontrolled
74
300ft asl obstructions are
| 500ft asl obstructions are
on map
| lit
75
launch cables up to
2000ft
76
birds can be upto
1500ft at sanctuary
77
Military concentration altitudes.
250ft-500ft military concentration.
78
Submit flight plan when travelling more then
10 nm from coast or over sparse populated areas or mountainous terrain.
79
Flight plan must be filled if...
use traffic advisory
cross FIR boundery
30 mins before startup
80
Flight plan diversions...
informed destination informed 30mins after landing
81
Special forecast requests minimums
4hrs for 623nm
| 2hrs for 315nm
82
PPL valid for
5yrs
83
PPL weight limit
2,730kg
84
Engine and Prop logbooks and pilot logbooks should be kept for..
2 years before being destroyed
85
weight scheduled should be kept for
6 months.
86
Cof A validity
24 months
87
If delayed more then .......... must inform aerdrome
45 mins
88
when flying 100nm from land....
lift-raft and pyrotechnics
89
when flying 50nm from land....
lift jackets
90
you must carry ..... over difficult to search areas
signal beacon
91
V =
| X =
require assistance
| require medical assistance
92
When Mode C is selected, a transponder can report altitude. The reported altitude is:
1013.2HPa
93
In which section of the AIP would you find information relating to airspace classifications?
ENR
94
According to Rule 5 of the Rules of the Air, aircraft intending to pick up or drop articles (such as tow ropes or banners) at an aerodrome are:
exempt from the 500 ft rule.
95
A request for a MATZ penetration should be made:
at least 15 nm or 5 minutes flying time from the MATZ boundary.
96
What is the usual altimeter setting for flight outside controlled airspace whilst en route at 2000 ft?
The Regional Pressure Setting
97
What is the speed limit for VFR traffic at FL80?
250 kt IAS
98
When overtaking another aircraft on the ground in the UK, you should:
pass either side as required, maintaining adequate separation.
99
Ignoring medical and rating requirements, for how long is an EASA Private Pilot's Licence valid?
life
100
A green flashing two letter morse code group at an aerodrome, repeated every 12 seconds:
indicates the location and identifies the civilian aerodrome.
101
According to the Air Navigation Order, which of the following would NOT be classified as a 'flying machine'?
Power driven air ship
102
How long is a class 2 medical valid for?
Class 2 medical certificates are valid for 60 months until the age of 30, then 36 months until the age of 50, and 12 months thereafter. Initial, renewal and revalidation examinations for Class 2 medical certificates may be carried out at an aeromedical centre or by an authorised medical examiner.
103
You are flying VFR on a true track of 176, with a westerly variation of 6 degrees. Which of the following is an appropriate flight level if you are following the semicircular rule?
FL 65
104
In unusually cold air, an altimeter is likely to indicate:
that the aircraft is higher than it really is.
105
For how long is an EASA Part-MED Class 2 medical valid, if you are exactly 39 years old at the time of the medical?
36 months
106
Rule 14 states that a flying machine about to take off shall take up position and manoeuvre in such a way as to leave clear on one side any aircraft which has already taken off or is about to take off. Which side (as seen by the pilot) should be left clear? (The aerodrome does not confine take-offs and landings to a runway.)
left
107
In accordance with Rule 8, who is responsible for collision avoidance?
PIC
108
Two white crosses in the signal area?
Gliding
109
yellow cross on red background?
landing prohibited.
110
yellow diagonal over red back ground?
manoeuvring area is poor.
111
White dun bell
movement on hard ground
112
White dun-bell with line through
takeoffs and landings must be on hard surfaces.
113
You (sensibly) decide to complete the IMC course after your PPL. Which of the following correctly describes the situation regarding this national rating?
National ratings may be accepted at the discretion of other states.
114
In which classes of airspace is a VFR pilot required to obtain Air Traffic Control (ATC) clearances?
Classes C to D
115
What rules apply to practice circuits flown as part of flying training conducted at an unlicensed aerodrome in an aircraft under 2730 kg?
Practice circuits are allowed providing the aerodrome has adequate facilities.
116
You passed your SEP class rating skill test on the 12th February 2003. If you did nothing to revalidate it, the last day you would be able to fly would be:
11th February 2005
117
Effective 15th March 2007, Class C airspace is designated in the UK:
above FL195
118
Which of the following statements regarding aerobatic manoeuvres over a congested area is true?
Aerobatic manoeuvres are not permitted.
119
An aeronautical beacon at a civil aerodrome will show:
a flashing white light.
120
How often are aeronautical information circulars (AIC's) published?
Monthly
121
If you receive a general anaesthetic, for how long must you wait before you can fly as pilot in command?
48 hours
122
A royal flight is to take place in the open FIR, and a temporary controlled airway is established between two aerodromes. What is the horizontal width of this airway?
10 nm
123
A NOTAMC:
cancels a previous NOTAM
124
AIP
aeronautical infomation publication
125
AIP types?
GEN (general), ENR (en route) and AD (aerodromes)
126
AIP revisions?
AIPs are kept up-to-date by regular revision on a fixed cycle. For operationally significant changes in information, the cycle known as the AIRAC (Aeronautical Information Regulation And Control) cycle is used: revisions are produced every 56 days (double AIRAC cycle) or every 28 days (single AIRAC cycle).
127
GEN (general)
National regulations, National requirements, Authorities, International agreements and differences from ICAO Standards.
128
ENR (en route)
Instrument and visual flight rules, airspace classifications, Air Traffic Services (ATS), ATS routes, navigation systems and en-route charts.
129
AD (aerodromes)
AD section where details and charts of all public aerodromes are published.
130
You are on a converging course with another aircraft, but you have the right of way. What should you do?
Maintain course and speed and monitor the situation
131
In the United Kingdom, an aircraft flying outside a control zone at night:
may operate under VFR
132
Special VFR is a concession that:
facilitates flights that would otherwise be restricted due to weather and is at the discretion of the appropriate ATC unit.
133
How long does an EASA Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A) normally last for in the UK?
Indefinitely
134
Single engine piston rating lasts....
2 years
135
Under the terms of the Chicago Convention, who has the duty to ensure that aircraft in flight comply with the rules and regulations?
The State of registry of the aircraft and any State entered by the aircraft.
136
In accordance with Rule 5, you are not permitted to fly:
closer than 500 ft from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure.
137
An Air Traffic Controller can close a licensed aerodrome if:
essential facilities have failed.
138
A pilot is approaching to land on the runway of an aerodrome that does not have an air traffic control unit. There is an aircraft ahead which has just landed. According to Rule 14, the pilot is only permitted to land if:
Runway is clear
139
You are flying VFR in Class D airspace. Which of the following statements is true?
You will receive traffic information about other IFR and VFR flights.
140
If you elected to fly IFR, how should you describe your vertical position when you are above the transition altitude?
Flight level
141
Where are the approved operating limitations, within which an aircraft is considered airworthy located?
In the Flight Manual and on operating placards affixed to the aircraft
142
NOTAMN
NOTAM with new information
143
In the northern hemisphere, when compared to the gradient wind strength, over land the surface wind may be:
one third of the strength, and backed approximately 30 degrees.
144
You are reading the following weather information: EGDG 30015G27KT SCT008 BKN016 Q1001 Is this a TAF or a METAR, and how can you tell?
It is a METAR because the QNH values are not specified in TAF's.
145
Light rain would be indicated in a TAF as:
-RA
146
loads of '''''''' = wha weather condition
rain
147
A 'long' TAF will have a valid period that is:
24 or 30 hours.
148
If an aircraft from one ICAO contracting State lands in another State, certain items are exempt from customs duties. Which of the following best describes what these items are?
Fuel, lubricating oils, spare parts and regular equipment remaining on board.
149
Which of the following classifications of airspace concern 'Advisory Routes'?
F
150
UK registered aircraft engaged on international flights require a Certificate of Airworthiness that has been issued or rendered valid by:
the UK Civil Aviation Authority (CAA)
151
A Certificate of Maintenance Review is required for aircraft with a Certificate of Airworthiness in the:
aerial work and transport categories
152
The Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A) also incorporates the:
Flight manual
153
In which classes of airspace would a VFR flight be separated from IFR flights?
Class D
154
You are reviewing an Air Information Circular (AIC) concerning safety related topics. On what colour paper is this printed?
Pink
155
A white dumb-bell with black stripes at each end indicates that:
take-off and landing must be on hard surfaces
156
Color of Adminstration Matters
AIC White -
157
Color of Operational Matters
AIC Yellow -
158
Color of Safety Related Topics
AIC Pink -
159
Color of Airspace Restrictions
AIC Mauve -
160
Color of Maps and Charts
AIC Green -
161
For the award of an EASA Private Pilot's Licence, how many hours must be flown dual?
25 hours
162
If you are flying VFR, and wish to comply with the semicircular rule, which of the following would be your correct level if you were flying due north?
Odd thousands of feet plus 500 (i.e. FL35, FL55)
163
The altimeter setting QFE describes your:
height above aerodrome level
164
What is the definition of height or elevation?
The vertical distance of a level, a point, or an object considered as a point, measured from a specified datum.
165
Definition of altitude?
The vertical distance of an object measured from mean sea level.
166
Flight levels define?
A surface of constant atmosphere pressure which is related to a specific pressure datum, 1013.2hPa, and is separated from other such surfaces by specific pressure intervals.
167
SAR: Uncertainty phase?
Evaluating incoming reports
168
SAR: Alert phase?
Alert SAR units and begin responce
169
SAR Distress phase?
Search and rescue, determine area to search, position, ATC notified.
