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CLINICAL MICROSCOPY > METABOLIC DIS, RENAL DIS, AMNIOTIC FLUID > Flashcards

METABOLIC DIS, RENAL DIS, AMNIOTIC FLUID Flashcards

1
Q

increased amino acid in blood
increases amino acid in urine

seen in pku, msud, cystinosis

A

overflow type

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2
Q

normal amino acid
increased amino acid in urine

seen in cystinuria, fanconis syndrome

A

renal type

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3
Q

failure to inherit a gene that codes for a particular enzyme

A

inborn error of metabolism

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4
Q

negative for gene that codes for phenyalanine hydroxylase

A

phenylketonuria

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5
Q

a screening test for PKU that involves B. subtilis being cultured with b2-thienylalanine

A

GUTHRIE BACTERIAL INHIBITION TEST

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6
Q

confirmatory test for PKU

A

ion exchange HPLC

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7
Q

negative for the gene that codes for homogentisic acid oxidase

A

alkaptonuria

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8
Q

urine darkens after becoming _______ from standing at room temperature

A

alkpatonuria

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9
Q

treatment for alkaptonuria

A

vitamin c

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10
Q

in cases of melanuria, urine darkens upon exposure to ____

A

air

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11
Q

most common inborn error if metabolism in the philippines

A

maple syrup urine disease

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12
Q

an inborn error of metabolism with increased ketoacids of LEUCINE, ISOLEUCINE, VALINE

A

MSUD

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13
Q

tryptophan disorders

A

indicanuria
argentaffinoma

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14
Q

“blue diaper” disease

A

hartnup disease

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15
Q

screening test for indicanuria

A

obermayers test

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16
Q

5-HIAA is a result of metabolism of what hormone

A

serotonin

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17
Q

when examining urine for argentaffinoma, patient must not eat the following:

A

banana
pineapple
tomatoes
avocados
chocolates, walnuts, plum, kiwi, and eggplants

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18
Q

urine odor of cystine

A

sulfur

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19
Q

cystinuria is a defective tubular reabsorption of what amino acids:

A

cystine
ornithine
lysine
arginine

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20
Q

REAGENT used in Brand’s modification of legal’s nitroprusside

A

cyanide nitroprusside

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21
Q

porphyria is colorless in___

A

lead poisoning

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22
Q

cdc recommended test for lead poisoning

A

free erythrocyte protoporphyrin

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23
Q

compound increased in congenital erythropoietic porphyria

A

uroporphyrin

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24
Q

hurler syndrome, hunter syndrome, sanfilippo syndrome are what disorder of

A

mucopolysaccharide

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25
Q

positive result of 5% cetyltrimethylammoniumbromide (CTAB) test

A

white turbidity

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26
Q

positive result for mucopolysacharride paper test (metachromatic staining spot test)

A

blue color

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27
Q

a purine disorder that lacks gene for the enzyme hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyltransferase

A

lesch-nyhan disease

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28
Q

increased uric acid, in the case of lesch nyhan disease, in the blood and urine results ______ (among babies)

A

“orange sand” in diapers

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29
Q

deposition of immune complex, formed in conjunction of group A Streptococcus infection in the glomerular membranes

A

acute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis

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30
Q

macroscopic hematuria, proteinuria, DYSMORPHIC RBCs,

+ ASO titer and anti-DNAse B

A

acute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis

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31
Q

deposition of immune complexes from SYSTEMIC IMMUNE DISORDERS (sle)

A

rapidly progressive (cresentic) glomerulonephritis

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32
Q

cellular proliferation of epithelial cells inside the Bowman’s capsule form “crescents”

A

rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis

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33
Q

deposition of anti glomerular basement membrane antibody

A

Goodpasture syndrome

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34
Q

deposition of antiglomerular basement membrane antibody

A

Goodpasture syndrome

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35
Q

wegener’s granulomatous is now called

A

granulomatosis with polyangitis (GPA)

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36
Q

anti neutrophilic cytoplasmic auto antibody (ANCA)

A

wegener’s granulomatosis

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37
Q

decrease in platelets disrupts vascular integrity

A

henoch schonlein purpura

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38
Q

macroscopic hematuria, protenuria, rbc casts are findings of what glomerular disorder

A

henoch schonlein purpura

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39
Q

“tram track” or cellular proliferation

A

membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

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40
Q

glomerular disorder : waxy and broad casts are seen

A

chronic glomerular disorder

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41
Q

deposition of IgA

A

Bergers disease / IgA Nephropathy

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42
Q

little cellular changes in the glomerulus

A

minimal change disease (Nil Disease/Lipoid Nephrosis)

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43
Q

disruption of PODOCYTES

A

minimal change disease (Nil Disease/Lipoid Nephrosis)

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44
Q

disruption of podocytes in CERTAIN NUMBERS AND AREAS of glomeruli

A

focal segmental glomerulusclerosis

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45
Q

deposition glycosylated proteins

A

diabetic nephropathy (kimmelsteil-wilson disease)

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46
Q

genetic disorder showing lamellated and thinning

A

alport syndrome

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47
Q

disruption of electrical charges - massive loss of proteins and lipids

A

nephrotic syndrome

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48
Q

rte cells and rte casts are seen

A

acute tubular necrosis

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49
Q

urine odor px with acute tubular necrosis

A

odorless

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50
Q

damage to renal tubular cells caused by ischemia kr toxic agents

A

acute tubular necrosis

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51
Q

generalized failure of tubular reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubule

A

fanconi syndrome

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52
Q

glucosuria and possible CYSTINE crystal maybe seen in this tubular disorder

A

fanconi syndrome

53
Q

ascending bacterial infection of the urinary bladder

A

cystitis

54
Q

interstitial disorder : wbcs, bacteria, NO CAST

A

cystitis

55
Q

interstitial disorder : infection of the renal tubules & interstitium

A

acute pyelonephritis

56
Q

recurrent infection of the renal tubules and interstitium

A

chronic pyelonephritis

57
Q

allergic inflammation of the renal interstitium

A

acute interstitial nephritis

58
Q

interstitial disorder : wbcs, bacteria, wbc casts, bacterial casts

A

acute pyelonephritis

59
Q

interstitial disorder : waxy and broad casts

A

chronic pyelonephritis

60
Q

interstitial disorder : ⬆️ eosinophil, eosinophil cast, NO BACTERIA

A

acute interstitial nephritis

61
Q

variety of casts seen in the same specimen (cellular, coarsely granular, finely granular, waxy

A

telescoped sediment

62
Q

may form in the calyces and pelvis of the kidney, ureters, and bladder

A

renal calculi/ renal lithiasis

63
Q

conditions for the formation of renal calculi

A

pH
chemical concentration
urinary stasis

64
Q

primary UA finding

A

microscopic hematuria

65
Q

major constituent of renal calculi

A

calcium oxalate

66
Q

very HARD, dark in color with rough surfaces

A

calcium oxalate

67
Q

yellowish to brownish red and MODERATELY hard

A

uric acid & urates

68
Q

yellowish brown GREASY & resembles an old soap

A

cystine

69
Q

least common calculi

A

cystine

70
Q

PALE and friable

A

phosphate

71
Q

branching staghorn calculi

A

triple phosphate

72
Q

approximate frequency of calcium

A

78%

73
Q

approximate frequency of cystine

A

2%

74
Q

human chorionic gonadotropin is produced by

A

syncytiotrophoblast

75
Q

hCG peaks during what trimester of pregnancy

A

1st

76
Q

subunit of hCG that confers specificity

A

beta

77
Q

home based pregnancy test

A

Enzyme immunoassay

78
Q

Anti-hCG source

A

Rabbit

79
Q

False positive hCG

A

Proteinuria
Hematuria

80
Q

False negative hCG

A

Dilute urine

81
Q

hCG test that involves female frog

A

Hogben test

82
Q

hCG test that involves male frog

A

Galli-Manini

83
Q

ELISA Tests are very sensitive giving positive reactions as early as ____ days after conception

A

10 days

84
Q

Urine specimens for pregnancy testing should have a specific gravity of at least

A

1.015

85
Q

Product of fetal metabolism

A

Amniotic fluid

86
Q

Ultimate source of amniotic fluid water and solutes

A

Placenta

87
Q

Normal amniotic fluid volume

A

800-1,200 mL (3rd trimester)

88
Q

During ____ trimester, 35 mL of amniotic fluid is primarily derived from the _____

A

1st trimester ; maternal circulation

89
Q

Major contributor to the amniotic fluid volume after the 1st trimester of pregnancy

A

Fetal Urine

90
Q

Decreased fetal swallowing of urine

A

Polyhydramnios

91
Q

Neural tube defects

A

Polyhydramnios

92
Q

Increased fetal swallowing or urine

A

Oligohydramnios

93
Q

Membrane leakage

A

Oligohydramnios

94
Q

Urinary tract deformities

A

Oligohydramnios

95
Q

trimester : assesses genetic defect like trisomy 21

A

2nd trimester

96
Q

Trimester : assess fetal lung maturity hemolytic disease of the newborn

A

3rd trimester

97
Q

Specimen handling for test for fetal lung maturity

A

Placed on ice on delivery , kept refrigerated or frozen

98
Q

This prevents loss of phospholipids in test for fetal lung maturity

A

Filtration

99
Q

Specimen handling for test cytogenic studies

A

Kept at room temperate or at 37 deg c

100
Q

Specimen handling for HDN

A

Protected from light (bilirubin)

101
Q

Detects premature rapture of membranes and also used to diagnose early pregnancy

A

Fern test

102
Q

Fern test positive result

A

Fern like crystals - amniotic fluid (positive for protein negative NaCl)

103
Q

First fetal bowl movement of a newborn

A

Meconium

104
Q

Color of meconium

A

Dark green

105
Q

Reference method for L/S ratio that is used for alveolar stability

A

Lecithin

106
Q

Reference method for L/S ratio that serves as a control ( due to constant production)

A

Sphingomyelin

107
Q

Mature fetal lungs L/S ratio

A

> 2.0

108
Q

Amniostat-LFM is an immunologic test for ?

A

Phosphatidylglycerol

109
Q

FOAM STABILITY: Amniotic fluid + ________

A

95% ethanol

110
Q

FOAM STABILITY positive result

A

Foam or bubbles

111
Q

Result of mature fetal lungs for foam stability test

A

Foam or bubbles

112
Q

Test for fetal lung maturity that is measure by fluorescence

A

Microviscosity

113
Q

______ produce surfactants stored in the form of _______

A

Type II pneumocytes ; lamellar bodies

114
Q

Lamellar body count can be done using impedance and or ______ methods

A

Optical scatter

115
Q

LAMELLAR BODY COUNT = NORMAL VALUE

A

> 32,000/uL

116
Q

Indicates ADEQUATE FETAL LUNG MATURITY ; VALUE

A

> 32,000 u/L

117
Q

Amount of amniotic fluid creatinine to confirm 36 weeks (9months)

A

> 2.0 mg/dL

118
Q

Test for HDN is also known as

A

OD 450

119
Q

LILEY GRAPH: MIDLY AFFECTED FETUS

A

ZONE I

120
Q

LILEY GRAPH: REQUIRES CAREFUL MONITORING

A

ZONE II

121
Q

LILEY GRAPH: SEVERELY AFFECTED FETUS (REQUIRES INTERVENTION: LABOR OR EXCHANGE TRANSFUSION)

A

ZONE III

122
Q

LILEY GRAPH: SEVERELY AFFECTED FETUS (REQUIRES INTERVENTION: LABOR OR EXCHANGE TRANSFUSION)

A

ZONE III

123
Q

“Split spine” is a birth defect where there is incomplete closing of the backbone and membranes around the spinal cord

A

Spina bifida

124
Q

Is the absence of a major portion of the brain, skull and scalp that occurs during embryonic development

A

Anencephaly

125
Q

Screening test for neural tube defects

A

Alpha feto protein (AFP)

126
Q

Confirmatory test for neural tube defects

A

Acetylcholinesterase

127
Q

Other test for chromosomal abnormalities

A

Karyotyping, FISH, SKY

128
Q

Is the major protein produced by the fetal liver during early gestation (prior to 18 weeks)

A

AFP

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY (8 decks)

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