METABOLIC DIS, RENAL DIS, AMNIOTIC FLUID Flashcards
1
Q
increased amino acid in blood
increases amino acid in urine
seen in pku, msud, cystinosis
A
overflow type
2
Q
normal amino acid
increased amino acid in urine
seen in cystinuria, fanconis syndrome
A
renal type
3
Q
failure to inherit a gene that codes for a particular enzyme
A
inborn error of metabolism
4
Q
negative for gene that codes for phenyalanine hydroxylase
A
phenylketonuria
5
Q
a screening test for PKU that involves B. subtilis being cultured with b2-thienylalanine
A
GUTHRIE BACTERIAL INHIBITION TEST
6
Q
confirmatory test for PKU
A
ion exchange HPLC
7
Q
negative for the gene that codes for homogentisic acid oxidase
A
alkaptonuria
8
Q
urine darkens after becoming _______ from standing at room temperature
A
alkpatonuria
9
Q
treatment for alkaptonuria
A
vitamin c
10
Q
in cases of melanuria, urine darkens upon exposure to ____
A
air
11
Q
most common inborn error if metabolism in the philippines
A
maple syrup urine disease
12
Q
an inborn error of metabolism with increased ketoacids of LEUCINE, ISOLEUCINE, VALINE
A
MSUD
13
Q
tryptophan disorders
A
indicanuria
argentaffinoma
14
Q
“blue diaper” disease
A
hartnup disease
15
Q
screening test for indicanuria
A
obermayers test
16
Q
5-HIAA is a result of metabolism of what hormone
A
serotonin
17
Q
when examining urine for argentaffinoma, patient must not eat the following:
A
banana
pineapple
tomatoes
avocados
chocolates, walnuts, plum, kiwi, and eggplants
18
Q
urine odor of cystine
A
sulfur
19
Q
cystinuria is a defective tubular reabsorption of what amino acids:
A
cystine
ornithine
lysine
arginine
20
Q
REAGENT used in Brand’s modification of legal’s nitroprusside
A
cyanide nitroprusside
21
Q
porphyria is colorless in___
A
lead poisoning
22
Q
cdc recommended test for lead poisoning
A
free erythrocyte protoporphyrin
23
Q
compound increased in congenital erythropoietic porphyria
A
uroporphyrin
24
Q
hurler syndrome, hunter syndrome, sanfilippo syndrome are what disorder of
A
mucopolysaccharide
25
positive result of 5% cetyltrimethylammoniumbromide (CTAB) test
white turbidity
26
positive result for mucopolysacharride paper test (metachromatic staining spot test)
blue color
27
a purine disorder that lacks gene for the enzyme hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyltransferase
lesch-nyhan disease
28
increased uric acid, in the case of lesch nyhan disease, in the blood and urine results ______ (among babies)
“orange sand” in diapers
29
deposition of immune complex, formed in conjunction of group A Streptococcus infection in the glomerular membranes
acute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
30
macroscopic hematuria, proteinuria, DYSMORPHIC RBCs,
+ ASO titer and anti-DNAse B
acute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
31
deposition of immune complexes from SYSTEMIC IMMUNE DISORDERS (sle)
rapidly progressive (cresentic) glomerulonephritis
32
cellular proliferation of epithelial cells inside the Bowman’s capsule form “crescents”
rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
33
deposition of anti glomerular basement membrane antibody
Goodpasture syndrome
34
deposition of antiglomerular basement membrane antibody
Goodpasture syndrome
35
wegener’s granulomatous is now called
granulomatosis with polyangitis (GPA)
36
anti neutrophilic cytoplasmic auto antibody (ANCA)
wegener’s granulomatosis
37
decrease in platelets disrupts vascular integrity
henoch schonlein purpura
38
macroscopic hematuria, protenuria, rbc casts are findings of what glomerular disorder
henoch schonlein purpura
39
“tram track” or cellular proliferation
membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
40
glomerular disorder : waxy and broad casts are seen
chronic glomerular disorder
41
deposition of IgA
Bergers disease / IgA Nephropathy
42
little cellular changes in the glomerulus
minimal change disease (Nil Disease/Lipoid Nephrosis)
43
disruption of PODOCYTES
minimal change disease (Nil Disease/Lipoid Nephrosis)
44
disruption of podocytes in CERTAIN NUMBERS AND AREAS of glomeruli
focal segmental glomerulusclerosis
45
deposition glycosylated proteins
diabetic nephropathy (kimmelsteil-wilson disease)
46
genetic disorder showing lamellated and thinning
alport syndrome
47
disruption of electrical charges - massive loss of proteins and lipids
nephrotic syndrome
48
rte cells and rte casts are seen
acute tubular necrosis
49
urine odor px with acute tubular necrosis
odorless
50
damage to renal tubular cells caused by ischemia or toxic agents
acute tubular necrosis
51
generalized failure of tubular reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubule
fanconi syndrome
52
glucosuria and possible CYSTINE crystal maybe seen in this tubular disorder
fanconi syndrome
53
ascending bacterial infection of the urinary bladder
cystitis
54
interstitial disorder : wbcs, bacteria, NO CAST
cystitis
55
interstitial disorder : infection of the renal tubules & interstitium
acute pyelonephritis
56
recurrent infection of the renal tubules and interstitium
chronic pyelonephritis
57
allergic inflammation of the renal interstitium
acute interstitial nephritis
58
interstitial disorder : wbcs, bacteria, wbc casts, bacterial casts
acute pyelonephritis
59
interstitial disorder : waxy and broad casts
chronic pyelonephritis
60
interstitial disorder : ⬆️ eosinophil, eosinophil cast, NO BACTERIA
acute interstitial nephritis
61
variety of casts seen in the same specimen (cellular, coarsely granular, finely granular, waxy
telescoped sediment
62
may form in the calyces and pelvis of the kidney, ureters, and bladder
renal calculi/ renal lithiasis
63
conditions for the formation of renal calculi
pH
chemical concentration
urinary stasis
64
primary UA finding
microscopic hematuria
65
major constituent of renal calculi
calcium oxalate
66
very HARD, dark in color with rough surfaces
calcium oxalate
67
yellowish to brownish red and MODERATELY hard
uric acid & urates
68
yellowish brown GREASY & resembles an old soap
cystine
69
least common calculi
cystine
70
PALE and friable
phosphate
71
branching staghorn calculi
triple phosphate
72
approximate frequency of calcium
78%
73
approximate frequency of cystine
2%
74
human chorionic gonadotropin is produced by
syncytiotrophoblast
75
hCG peaks during what trimester of pregnancy
1st
76
subunit of hCG that confers specificity
beta
77
home based pregnancy test
Enzyme immunoassay
78
Anti-hCG source
Rabbit
79
False positive hCG
Proteinuria
Hematuria
80
False negative hCG
Dilute urine
81
hCG test that involves female frog
Hogben test
82
hCG test that involves male frog
Galli-Manini
83
ELISA Tests are very sensitive giving positive reactions as early as ____ days after conception
10 days
84
Urine specimens for pregnancy testing should have a specific gravity of at least
1.015
85
Product of fetal metabolism
Amniotic fluid
86
Ultimate source of amniotic fluid water and solutes
Placenta
87
Normal amniotic fluid volume
800-1,200 mL (3rd trimester)
88
During the 1st trimester, 35 mL of amniotic fluid is primarily derived from the _____
maternal circulation
89
Major contributor to the amniotic fluid volume after the 1st trimester of pregnancy
Fetal Urine
90
Decreased fetal swallowing of urine
Polyhydramnios
91
Neural tube defects
Polyhydramnios
92
Increased fetal swallowing or urine
Oligohydramnios
93
Membrane leakage
Oligohydramnios
94
Urinary tract deformities
Oligohydramnios
95
trimester : assesses genetic defect like trisomy 21
2nd trimester
96
Trimester : assess fetal lung maturity hemolytic disease of the newborn
3rd trimester
97
Specimen handling for test for fetal lung maturity
Placed on ice on delivery , kept refrigerated or frozen
98
This prevents loss of phospholipids in test for fetal lung maturity
Filtration
99
Specimen handling for test cytogenic studies
Kept at room temperate or at 37 deg c
100
Specimen handling for HDN
Protected from light (bilirubin)
101
Detects premature rapture of membranes and also used to diagnose early pregnancy
Fern test
102
Fern test positive result
Fern like crystals - amniotic fluid (positive for protein negative NaCl)
103
First fetal bowl movement of a newborn
Meconium
104
Color of meconium
Dark green
105
Reference method for L/S ratio that is used for alveolar stability
Lecithin
106
Reference method for L/S ratio that serves as a control ( due to constant production)
Sphingomyelin
107
Mature fetal lungs L/S ratio
>2.0
108
Amniostat-LFM is an immunologic test for ?
Phosphatidylglycerol
109
FOAM STABILITY: Amniotic fluid + ________
95% ethanol
110
FOAM STABILITY positive result
Foam or bubbles
111
Result of mature fetal lungs for foam stability test
Foam or bubbles
112
Test for fetal lung maturity that is measure by fluorescence
Microviscosity
113
______ produce surfactants stored in the form of _______
Type II pneumocytes ; lamellar bodies
114
Lamellar body count can be done using impedance and or ______ methods
Optical scatter
115
LAMELLAR BODY COUNT = NORMAL VALUE
>32,000/uL
116
Indicates ADEQUATE FETAL LUNG MATURITY ; VALUE
>32,000 u/L
117
Amount of amniotic fluid creatinine to confirm 36 weeks (9months)
>2.0 mg/dL
118
Test for HDN is also known as
OD 450
119
LILEY GRAPH: MIDLY AFFECTED FETUS
ZONE I
120
LILEY GRAPH: REQUIRES CAREFUL MONITORING
ZONE II
121
LILEY GRAPH: SEVERELY AFFECTED FETUS (REQUIRES INTERVENTION: LABOR OR EXCHANGE TRANSFUSION)
ZONE III
122
LILEY GRAPH: SEVERELY AFFECTED FETUS (REQUIRES INTERVENTION: LABOR OR EXCHANGE TRANSFUSION)
ZONE III
123
“Split spine” is a birth defect where there is incomplete closing of the backbone and membranes around the spinal cord
Spina bifida
124
Is the absence of a major portion of the brain, skull and scalp that occurs during embryonic development
Anencephaly
125
Screening test for neural tube defects
Alpha feto protein (AFP)
126
Confirmatory test for neural tube defects
Acetylcholinesterase
127
Other test for chromosomal abnormalities
Karyotyping, FISH, SKY
128
Is the major protein produced by the fetal liver during early gestation (prior to 18 weeks)
AFP
