Met SAQs Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is a glycogenolytic enzyme?

A.ACC

B.Phosphorylase kinase

C.PFK-1

D.PDH phosphatase

A

Which of the following is a glycogenolytic enzyme?

A.ACC

B.Phosphorylase kinase

C.PFK-1

D.PDH phosphatase

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2
Q

how do high levels of acetyl co-a influence gluconeogenesis? [2]

A

high levels of Acetyl Co-A:

activates pyruvate carboxylase (used in step 1 of malate cycle: drives gluconeogenesis from pyruuvate -> PEP & eventually glucose)

inhibits: pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (prevents pyruvate being turned into acteyl co A & sparing it, leaving for gluconeogenesis)

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3
Q

insulin causes glucose to be taken up by which GLUT receptor?

GLUT1
GLUT2
GLUT3
GLUT4
GLUT5

A

insulin causes glucose to be taken up by which GLUT receptor?

GLUT1
GLUT2
GLUT3
GLUT4
GLUT5

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4
Q

alcohol metabolism produces increased what? (2)

A

NADH & Acetyl coA

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5
Q

which of the following lipoproteins has apo protein B48?

chylomicron
very low density lipo
intermediate DL
LDL
HDL

A

which of the following lipoproteins has apo protein B48?

chylomicron
very low density lipo
intermediate DL
LDL
HDL

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6
Q

During the course of a radical gastrectomy the surgeons detach the omentum and ligate the right gastro-epiploic artery. From which vessel does it originate?

SMA
IMA
Coeliac axis
Common hepatic artery
Gastroduodenal artery

A

During the course of a radical gastrectomy the surgeons detach the omentum and ligate the right gastro-epiploic artery. From which vessel does it originate?

SMA
IMA
Coeliac axis
Common hepatic artery
Gastroduodenal artery

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7
Q

which of the following cover cover lymphoid nodules

  • enterocytes
  • goblet cells
  • paneth cells
  • enteroendocrine cells
  • m cells
A

which of the following cover cover lymphoid nodules

  • enterocytes
  • goblet cells
  • paneth cells
  • enteroendocrine cells
  • *- m cells**
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8
Q

Which one of the peritoneal ligaments contains the right and left gastric artery?

Splenorenal ligament

Falciform ligament

Hepatogastric ligament

Hepatoduodenal ligament

Gastrosplenic ligament

Gastrocolic ligament

A

Which one of the peritoneal ligaments contains the right and left gastric artery?

Splenorenal ligament

Falciform ligament

Hepatogastric ligament

Hepatoduodenal ligament

Gastrosplenic ligament

Gastrocolic ligament

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9
Q

While on placement on a gastro ward one of your patients develops profuse diarrhoea. Where in the gastrointestinal tract is the majority of water absorbed?

Jejunum
Colon
Ileum
Duodenum
Rectum

A

While on placement on a gastro ward one of your patients develops profuse diarrhoea. Where in the gastrointestinal tract is the majority of water absorbed?

Jejunum
Colon
Ileum
Duodenum
​Rectum

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10
Q

where is the endocrine function of pancreas located? [1]

A

islet of langerhans

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11
Q

Where is the majority of norepinephrine secreted from?

D cells in the pancreas & stomach

Parafollicular cells of the thyroid

Zona reticularis of adrenal cortex

Posterior pituitary

Adrenal medulla

Zona glomerulosa of adrenal cortex

A

Where is the majority of norepinephrine secreted from?

D cells in the pancreas & stomach

Parafollicular cells of the thyroid

Zona reticularis of adrenal cortex

Posterior pituitary

Adrenal medulla

Zona glomerulosa of adrenal cortex

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12
Q

Why does excessive alcohol consumption impair the TCA cycle?

A.Depletes ATP stores

B.Depletes NADH stores

C.Leads to an NADH excess

D.Leads to the inhibition of ACC

A

Why does excessive alcohol consumption impair the TCA cycle?

A.Depletes ATP stores

B.Depletes NADH stores

C.Leads to an NADH excess

D.Leads to the inhibition of ACC

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13
Q

Increases gluconeogenesis:

1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol

Leptin

Cortisol

Renin

CCK

Antidiuretic hormone

A

Increases gluconeogenesis:

1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol

Leptin

Cortisol

Renin

CCK

Antidiuretic hormone

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14
Q

which of the cells of the immune system recognise gluten and cause CD?

A

CD4 T cells (Th1)

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15
Q

glutamine –> glutamate –> a-ketoglutarate generates lots of:

a) ATP
b) NH3
c) NH4
d) NADH
e) NAD

A

glutamine –> glutamate –> a-ketoglutarate generates lots of:

a) ATP
b) NH3
* *c) NH4**
d) NADH
e) NAD

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16
Q

palatoglossus muscle is innervated by?

a) glossopharnygeal
b) trigeminal
c) vagus nerve
d) hypoglossal
e) facial nerve

A

palatoglossus muscle is innervated by?

a) glossopharnygeal
b) trigeminal
* *c) vagus nerve**
d) hypoglossal
e) facial nerve

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17
Q

A 35-year-old man presents to the emergency department with hypotension following a road traffic accident. How does angiotensin II act to increase the filtration fraction in the kidney?

Vasoconstriction of the efferent glomerular arteriole
Vasoconstriction of the afferent glomerular arteriole
Vasodilationo of the efferent glomerular arteriole
Vasodilation of the afferent glomerular arteriole
Vasoconstriction of the renal artery

A

A 35-year-old man presents to the emergency department with hypotension following a road traffic accident. How does angiotensin II act to increase the filtration fraction in the kidney?

Vasoconstriction of the efferent glomerular arteriole
Vasoconstriction of the afferent glomerular arteriole
Vasodilationo of the efferent glomerular arteriole
Vasodilation of the afferent glomerular arteriole
Vasoconstriction of the renal artery

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18
Q

sublingual gland recieves parasympathetic innervation from which nerve?

a) glossopharnygeal
b) trigeminal
c) vagus nerve
d) hypoglossal
e) facial nerve

A

sublingual gland recieves parasympathetic innervation from which nerve?

a) glossopharnygeal
b) trigeminal
c) vagus nerve
d) hypoglossal
* *e) facial nerve**

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19
Q

A 61-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department with confusion, nystagmus, and ataxia. Blood tests show a thiamine deficiency, confirming the suspected diagnosis of Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

What enzyme’s synthesis is dependent on this vitamin?

Amylase
Lysyl hydroxylase
Pyruvate dehydrogenase
Retinoic acid
Transaminase

A

A 61-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department with confusion, nystagmus, and ataxia. Blood tests show a thiamine deficiency, confirming the suspected diagnosis of Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

What enzyme’s synthesis is dependent on this vitamin?

Amylase
Lysyl hydroxylase
Pyruvate dehydrogenase
Retinoic acid
Transaminase

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20
Q

which vitamins are normally excreted in urine and which vitamins can be stored by the body in the liver? [5]

A

excreteed in urine = vitamin B & K
stored in liver = vitamin ADEK

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21
Q

A 47-year-old lady is diagnosed as suffering from a phaeochromocytoma. From which of the following amino acids are catecholamines primarily derived?

aspatime
glutamine
arginine
tyrosine
alanine

A

A 47-year-old lady is diagnosed as suffering from a phaeochromocytoma. From which of the following amino acids are catecholamines primarily derived?

aspatime
glutamine
arginine
tyrosine
​alanine

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22
Q

acetyl co-A is the input for TCA. acetyl co-A can be produced by three ways. What are they? [3]

A

1.Glycolysis of glucose to pyruvate
•Converted to acetyl-CoA using pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (PDC)
•Produces 2 reduced NAD molecules per glucose
•1 reduced NAD per pyruvate

2.Transamination of glucogenic amino acids to pyruvate
• Converted to acetyl-CoA using pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (PDC)

3.Beta-oxidation of fatty acids directly to acetyl-CoA
•Produces 1 NADH and 1 FADH2 per acetyl-CoA

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23
Q
A
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24
Q

During vigorous exercise, the body cannot intake enough oxygen to maintain the respiratory needs of all its muscles in an aerobic state. At this point, anaerobic metabolism begins and this relies on glycolysis for the production of energy.

Which of the following enzymes is responsible for catalysing the rate limiting step in this process?

Hexokinase
PFK-1
Pyruvate kinase
PDH
Glucose phosphorylase

A

During vigorous exercise, the body cannot intake enough oxygen to maintain the respiratory needs of all its muscles in an aerobic state. At this point, anaerobic metabolism begins and this relies on glycolysis for the production of energy.

Which of the following enzymes is responsible for catalysing the rate limiting step in this process?

Hexokinase
PFK-1
Pyruvate kinase
PDH
Glucose phosphorylase

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25
Q

The afferent limb of the gag reflex is supplied by which nerve?

a) facial nerve
b) trigeminal nerve
c) glossopharyngeal nerve
d) hypoglossal nerve
e) vagus nerve

A

The afferent limb of the gag reflex is supplied by which nerve?

a) facial nerve
b) trigeminal nerve
c) glossopharyngeal nerve
d) hypoglossal nerve
​e) vagus nerve

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26
Q

Where is the majority of secretin secreted from?

S cells in upper small intestine

Zona glomerulosa of adrenal cortex

I cells in upper small intestine

D cells in the pancreas & stomach

Sertoli cells

G cells in antrum of the stomach

A

Where is the majority of secretin secreted from?

S cells in upper small intestine

Zona glomerulosa of adrenal cortex

I cells in upper small intestine

D cells in the pancreas & stomach

Sertoli cells

G cells in antrum of the stomach

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27
Q

which of the following would cause cardiomyopathy if a patient had a deficiency?

phosphorous
iron
selenium
zinc
copper

A

which of the following would cause cardiomyopathy if a patient had a deficiency?

phosphorous
iron
selenium
zinc
copper

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28
Q

Name two symptoms of PKU (2 marks)

A

Symptoms can be split based on their causes for example individuals with PKU have fair skin, blonde hair –> due to reduction in the production of melanin.

CNS abnormalities –> due to reduced neurotransmitter production and can lead to jerking, tremors, seizures

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29
Q

Which vitamin is involved in the formation of collagen?

Vit A
Vit B
Vit C
Vit D
Vit E

A

Which vitamin is involved in the formation of collagen?

Vit A
Vit B
Vit C
Vit D
​Vit E

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30
Q

which vitamin causes production of CCR9 & a4b9 in gut honing T cells?

vitamin A
vitamin B
vitamin C
vitamin D
vitamin E

A

which vitamin causes production of CCR9 & a4b9 in gut honing T cells?

vitamin A
vitamin B
vitamin C
vitamin D
​vitamin E

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31
Q

which nerve innervates sensation to the face?

a) trigeminal nerve
b) facial nerve
c) glossopharnyngeal
d) vagus nerve
e) hypoglossal

A

which nerve innervates sensation to the face?

  • *a) trigeminal nerve**
    b) facial nerve
    c) glossopharnyngeal
    d) vagus nerve
    e) hypoglossal
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32
Q
A
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33
Q

which vagus nerve (left or right), innervates the

i) anterior stomach wall? [1]
ii) posterior stomach wall? [2]

A

Left vagus innervates anterior wall [1]
Right vagus innervates posterior wall []1

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34
Q

Which one of the following actions is directly caused by gastrin?

Increases pancreatic secretions rich in digestive enzymes
Increases pepsinogen secretion
Decreases gastric emptying
Stimulates aldosterone release
Increases plasma phosphate
Increases proximal tubule Na+/H+ activity

A

Which one of the following actions is directly caused by gastrin?

Increases pancreatic secretions rich in digestive enzymes
Increases pepsinogen secretion
Decreases gastric emptying
Stimulates aldosterone release
Increases plasma phosphate
Increases proximal tubule Na+/H+ activity

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35
Q

Which one of the peritoneal ligaments contains the hepatic artery, hepatic portal vein and common bile duct?

Gastrocolic ligament

Hepatoduodenal ligament

Splenorenal ligament

Hepatogastric ligament

Gastrosplenic ligament

Falciform ligament

A

Which one of the peritoneal ligaments contains the hepatic artery, hepatic portal vein and common bile duct?

Gastrocolic ligament

Hepatoduodenal ligament

Splenorenal ligament

Hepatogastric ligament

Gastrosplenic ligament

Falciform ligament

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36
Q

which intermediary is needed for transamination to occur? [1]
which enzyme is needed for transamination to occur? [1]

A
intermediary= **pyridoxal phosphate (from vitamin B6)**
enzyme = **transaminase**
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37
Q

Von Gierkes disease is caused by a mutation in which gene?

a) PYGT
b) PYGL
c) G6PC
d) HGD
e) G1PC

A

Von Gierkes disease is caused by a mutation in which gene?

a) PYGT
b) PYGL
* *c) G6PC**
d) HGD
e) G1PC

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38
Q

which nerve innervates the muscles of facial expression?

a) trigeminal nerve
b) facial nerve
c) glossopharnyngeal
d) vagus nerve
e) hypoglossal

A

which nerve innervates the muscles of facial expression?

a) trigeminal nerve
* *b) facial nerve**
c) glossopharnyngeal
d) vagus nerve
e) hypoglossal

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39
Q

what is role of paneth cells? [1]
where located? [1]

A
  • paneth cells: secrete antimicrobe substances; H&E= pink
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40
Q

Which layer of the gastrointestinal tract contains Meissners plexus?

Muscularis externa
Submucosa
Serosa
​Mucosa

A

Which layer of the gastrointestinal tract contains Meissners plexus?

Muscularis externa
Submucosa
Serosa
​Mucosa

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41
Q

A 39-year-old lady has recurrent attacks of biliary colic. What is the approximate volume of bile to enter the duodenum per 24 hours?

500 mL
50 mL
100 mL
2000 mL
150 mL

A

A 39-year-old lady has recurrent attacks of biliary colic. What is the approximate volume of bile to enter the duodenum per 24 hours?

500 mL
50 mL
100 mL
2000 mL
150 mL

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42
Q

Which one of the following inhibits gastric acid secretion?

Histamine
Nausea
Calcium
Parasympathetic vagal stimulation
Gastrin

A

Which one of the following inhibits gastric acid secretion?

Histamine
Nausea
Calcium
Parasympathetic vagal stimulation
Gastrin

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43
Q

which metabolic disease is caused by mutation in glycogen phosphorylase in liver?

a) McArdles Disease
b) Hers Disease
c) von Gierkes
d) Maple syrup disease

A

which metabolic disease is caused by mutation in glycogen phosphorylase in liver?

a) McArdles Disease
* *b) Hers Disease**
c) von Gierkes
d) Maple syrup disease

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44
Q

where do u find hormone receptors (3)

A
  • nucleus (typically steroid hormones)
  • cytoplasm
  • plasma membrane
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45
Q

which metabolic disorder means that the following reaction cant occur?

pyruvate –> glucose-6-P –> glucose

a) von Gierkes
b) Hers
c) McArdles
d) Galactosaemia
e) hereditary fructose intolerance

A

which metabolic disorder means that the following reaction cant occur?

pyruvate –> glucose-6-P –> glucose

  • *a) von Gierkes**
    b) Hers
    c) McArdles
    d) Galactosaemia
    e) hereditary fructose intolerance
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46
Q

A 17-year-old lady presents with right iliac fossa pain and diagnosed as having acute appendicitis. You take her to theatre to perform a laparoscopic appendicectomy. During the procedure the scrub nurse distracts you and you inadvertently avulse the appendicular artery. The ensuing haemorrhage is likely to be supplied directly from which vessel?

IMA
SMA
Ileo-colic artery
Internal iliac artery
None of the above

A

A 17-year-old lady presents with right iliac fossa pain and diagnosed as having acute appendicitis. You take her to theatre to perform a laparoscopic appendicectomy. During the procedure the scrub nurse distracts you and you inadvertently avulse the appendicular artery. The ensuing haemorrhage is likely to be supplied directly from which vessel?

IMA
SMA
Ileo-colic artery
Internal iliac artery
None of the above

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47
Q

the coeliac trunk arises from the abdominal aorta at which vertebral level?

T12
L1
L2
L3
L4

A

the coeliac trunk arises from the abdominal aorta at which vertebral level?

T12
L1
L2
L3
L4

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48
Q

Which one of the following actions is directly caused by renin?

Stimulates ADH release

Stimulates thirst

Converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I

Inhibits glucagon secretion

Decreases appetite

Vasoconstriction of vascular smooth muscle

A

Which one of the following actions is directly caused by renin?

Stimulates ADH release

Stimulates thirst

Converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I

Inhibits glucagon secretion

Decreases appetite

Vasoconstriction of vascular smooth muscle

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49
Q

A 22-year-old male presents to his general practitioner with a 4-month history of headaches, palpitations, and heavy sweating. He also reports some non-intentional weight loss. On examination, the patient is sweating heavily and is tachycardic. It is suspected that the man may have a malignancy affecting the tissue responsible for the secretion of adrenaline.

Where is the most likely site of the malignancy?

Adrenal cortex
Adrenal medulla
Medulla oblongata
Parathyroid gland
Thyroid

A

A 22-year-old male presents to his general practitioner with a 4-month history of headaches, palpitations, and heavy sweating. He also reports some non-intentional weight loss. On examination, the patient is sweating heavily and is tachycardic. It is suspected that the man may have a malignancy affecting the tissue responsible for the secretion of adrenaline.

Where is the most likely site of the malignancy?

Adrenal cortex
Adrenal medulla
Medulla oblongata
Parathyroid gland
Thyroid

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50
Q

which gastric cell produces histamine in to activate stomach acid creation?

a) parietal cells
b) G cells
c) chief cells
d) ECL likes
e) mucous secreting cells

A

which gastric cell produces histamine in to activate stomach acid creation?

a) parietal cells
b) G cells
c) chief cells
d) ECL cells
​e) mucous secreting cells

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51
Q

which vitamin deficiency is associated with beri beri?

  • vit. A
  • vit B1
  • vit. B2
  • vit. B3
  • vit. B4
A

which vitamin deficiency is associated with beri beri?

  • vit. A
  • *- vit B1**
  • vit. B2
  • vit. B3
  • vit. B4
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52
Q

what is the equation for converting pyruvate to acetyl co A?

A
  • pyruvate + CoA + NAD+ –> acetyl Co-A + Co2 + NADH
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53
Q

An 18-year-old male is admitted with confusion and myoclonus. A blood test reveals a high ammonium level. He has a family history of a urea cycle disorder.

What enzyme deficiency is present?

Carbomyl phosphate synthetase I
Glycogen phosphorylase
Isocitrate dehydrogenase
PFK-1
Glyocgen synthase

A

An 18-year-old male is admitted with confusion and myoclonus. A blood test reveals a high ammonium level. He has a family history of a urea cycle disorder.

What enzyme deficiency is present?

Carbomyl phosphate synthetase I
Glycogen phosphorylase
Isocitrate dehydrogenase
PFK-1
Glyocgen synthase

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54
Q

A 6-year-old male patient presents with signs and symptoms of severe fasting hypoglycaemia. On examination, he has hepatomegaly. His blood lactate levels, uric acid and triglycerides are raised. After extensive investigations, he is diagnosed with glycogen storage disease I (Von Gierke disease).

Which enzyme is deficient in this condition?

Glucose-6-phosphatase
Glucose-6-phosphatase dehydrogenase
a-1,6 glucosidase
Myophosphorylase
Glucocerebrosidase

A

A 6-year-old male patient presents with signs and symptoms of severe fasting hypoglycaemia. On examination, he has hepatomegaly. His blood lactate levels, uric acid and triglycerides are raised. After extensive investigations, he is diagnosed with glycogen storage disease I (Von Gierke disease).

Which enzyme is deficient in this condition?

Glucose-6-phosphatase
Glucose-6-phosphatase dehydrogenase
a-1,6 glucosidase
Myophosphorylase
​Glucocerebrosidase

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55
Q

what are two seperate roles of aldosterone? [2]

A
  1. restores BP, reabsorbed salt & water lvls (not excrete as much) [1]
  2. restores K loss [1]

(two totally differnet systems! )

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56
Q

which are the only two hormones that are released frm posterior pituitary gland? [2]

A

ADH
Oxytocin

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57
Q

the hepatoduodenal ligament is found which of the following:

a) greater omentum
b) lesser omentum
c) mesocolon
d) mesentary

A

the hepatoduodenal ligament is found which of the following:

a) greater omentum
b) lesser omentum
c) mesocolon
​d) mesentary

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58
Q

does the spleen develop in the dorsal or ventral mesogastrium?

A

does the spleen develop in the dorsal or ventral mesogastrium?

: dorsal mesogastrium

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59
Q

what do the suprahyoid muscles do to the hyoid bone when swallowing?

what do the infrahyoid muscles do to the hyoid bone when swallowing?

A

what do the suprahyoid muscles do to the hyoid bone when swallowing?
elevate hyoid

what do the infrahyoid muscles do to the hyoid bone when swallowing?
depress hyoid

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60
Q

Which of the following is true during exercise?

A.Glycogenesis and lipogenesis are favoured

B.Glycogenolysis and lipolysis are inhibited

C.ATP is the primary driver of increased glycolysis

D.Ca2+ and AMP promote glycolysis

A

Which of the following is true during exercise?

A.Glycogenesis and lipogenesis are favoured

B.Glycogenolysis and lipolysis are inhibited

C.ATP is the primary driver of increased glycolysis

D.Ca2+ and AMP promote glycolysis: Drop in pH due to lactic acid accumulation inhibits glycolysis + oxidative phosphorylation​

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61
Q

which Ig is the only antibody capable of crossing the placenta to give passive immunity to the fetus?

a) IgG
b) IgM
c) IgA
d) IgE
e) IgD

A

which Ig is the only antibody capable of crossing the placenta to give passive immunity to the fetus?

  • *​a) IgG**
    b) IgM
    c) IgA
    d) IgE
    e) IgD
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62
Q

growth hormone is released from anterior pituitary gland after stimulation by growth hormone releasing hormone. which hormone does it indirectly cause the release of to increase bone and muscle mass?

  • AMP
  • cAMP
  • IP3
  • IGF-1
  • DAG
A

growth hormone is released from anterior pituitary gland after stimulation by growth hormone releasing hormone. which hormone does it indirectly cause the release of to increase bone and muscle mass?

  • AMP
  • cAMP
  • IP3
  • *- IGF-1**
  • DAG
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63
Q

which one of the followings statements is true of glucagon?

  • produced in response to hyperglycaemia
  • released by beta cells
  • inhibits gluconeogenesis
  • produced in response to an increase in amino acids
  • composed of 2 alpha polypeptide chains linked by H bonds
A

which one of the followings statements is true of glucagon?

  • produced in response to hyperglycaemia
  • released by beta cells
  • inhibits gluconeogenesis
  • *- produced in response to an increase in amino acids**
  • composed of 2 alpha polypeptide chains linked by H bonds
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64
Q
  • What is the gene responsible for the mutation of which can induce osmotic diarrhea to the patient?
  • SLC5A1
  • SLC5A2
  • SLC5A3
  • SLC5A4
A

•What is the gene responsible for the mutation of which can induce osmotic diarrhea to the patient?

•SLC5A1

  • SLC5A2
  • SLC5A3
  • SLC5A4
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65
Q

Latency on a nerve conduction study describes:

a) distance between 2 different stimulation sites
b) height of electrical activity
c) distance betwen stimulation site and muscle sensor
d) time from stimulation to start of electrical activity

A

Latency on a nerve conduction study describes:

a) distance between 2 different stimulation sites
b) height of electrical activity
c) distance betwen stimulation site and muscle sensor
* *d) time from stimulation to start of electrical activity**

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66
Q

Which cycle is used in gluconeogenesis to ger pyruvate –> phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) ?

a) Krebs Cycle
b) Cori Cycle
c) Malate Cycle
d) Glyoxylate cycle
e) Carnitine shuttle

A

Which cycle is used in gluconeogenesis to ger pyruvate –> phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) ?

a) Krebs Cycle
b) Cori Cycle
* *c) Malate Cycle**
d) Glyoxylate cycle
e) Carnitine shuttle

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67
Q

gliadin binds to which antibody in the gut with a patient with CD?

  • IgA
  • IgD
  • IgG
  • IgM
  • IgE
A

gliadin binds to which antibody in the gut with a patient with CD?

  • *- IgA**
  • IgD
  • IgG
  • IgM
  • IgE

•IN COELIAC DISEASED PATIENTS, the IgA along with gliadin do not get broken down and are transferred from the apical membrane of the enterocytes down to the basolateral membrane

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68
Q

A 52-year-old male is brought to the emergency department with frank haematemesis by the ambulance. Urgent resuscitation measures are taken and an urgent oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD) is performed. An active bleed is seen in the distal part of the lesser curvature of the stomach and is controlled with endoclips and adrenaline. He has a past medical history of gastric ulcers.

Which artery is the most likely cause of the bleed

Left gastric artery
Right gastric artery
Left gastroepiploic artery
Right gastroepiploic artery
Short gastric artery

A

A 52-year-old male is brought to the emergency department with frank haematemesis by the ambulance. Urgent resuscitation measures are taken and an urgent oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD) is performed. An active bleed is seen in the distal part of the lesser curvature of the stomach and is controlled with endoclips and adrenaline. He has a past medical history of gastric ulcers.

Which artery is the most likely cause of the bleed

Left gastric artery
Right gastric artery
Left gastroepiploic artery
Right gastroepiploic artery
Short gastric artery

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69
Q

adrenal glands are able to produce highly different enzymes from which starting molecule? [1]

A

cholesterol

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70
Q

What forms the the borders of Hesselbach’s triangle?

  • Inguinal ligament laterally, inferior epigastric vessels laterally, pubic tubercle medially
  • Inguinal ligament laterally, inferior epigastric vessels laterally, umibilicus medially
  • Inguinal ligament laterally, ASIS laterally, pubic tubercle medially
  • Inguinal ligament laterally, inferior epigastric vessels laterall, lateral border of the rectus sheath medially
  • Inguinal ligament laterally, ASIS laterally, lateral border of the rectus sheath medially
A

What forms the the borders of Hesselbach’s triangle?

  • Inguinal ligament laterally, inferior epigastric vessels laterally, pubic tubercle medially
  • Inguinal ligament laterally, inferior epigastric vessels laterally, umibilicus medially
  • Inguinal ligament laterally, ASIS laterally, pubic tubercle medially
  • *- Inguinal ligament laterally, inferior epigastric vessels laterally, lateral border of the rectus sheath medially**
  • Inguinal ligament laterally, ASIS laterally, lateral border of the rectus sheath medially
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71
Q

which of the following is not a role of micronutrients

  1. co-factors
  2. co-enzymes
  3. antioxidants
  4. control of gene expression
    5 oxidants
A

which of the following is not a role of micronutrients

  1. co-factors
  2. co-enzymes
  3. antioxidants
  4. control of gene expression
    * *5 oxidants**
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72
Q

Where is the majority of aldosterone secreted from?

Posterior pituitary

Zona glomerulosa of adrenal cortex

Zona fasciculata of adrenal cortex

Zona reticularis of adrenal cortex

Juxtaglomerular cells

Adrenal medulla

A

Where is the majority of aldosterone secreted from?

Posterior pituitary

Zona glomerulosa of adrenal cortex

Zona fasciculata of adrenal cortex

Zona reticularis of adrenal cortex

Juxtaglomerular cells

Adrenal medulla

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73
Q

growth hormone is released from anterior pituitary gland after stimulation by growth hormone releasing hormone. which hormone works to inhibit this reaction? [1]

A

growth hormone is released from anterior pituitary gland after stimulation by growth hormone releasing hormone. which hormone works to inhibit this reaction? [1]

somatostatin

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74
Q

bile salts are secreted by:

a) parietal cells
b) enterocytes
c) goblet cells
d) chief cells
e) hepatocytes

A

bile salts are secreted by:

a) parietal cells
b) enterocytes
c) goblet cells
d) chief cells
e) hepatocytes

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75
Q

Name and briefly explain two properties of MHC genes that help maximise the likelihood that any particular peptide can be presented by MHC molecules for recognition by T cells.

MHC genes are:

A

polygenic – more than one type of both class I and class II ( 1 mark)

polymorphic – multiple alleles in population means most individuals are heterozygous ( 1 mark)

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76
Q

•Which are the three primary histological characteristics of celiac disease?

A
  • Lymphatic infiltration
  • Crypt hyperplasia
  • Flattened villi
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77
Q

what does this describe: ‘directly anterior to the sulcus terminalis and extend in a V-shaped line across the root of the tongue’

  • foliate papillae
  • lingual tonsil
  • palatine tonsil
  • vallate papillae
  • foramen cecum of tongue
A

what does this describe: ‘directly anterior to the sulcus terminalis and extend in a V-shaped line across the root of the tongue’

  • foliate papillae
  • lingual tonsil
  • palatine tonsil
    - vallate papillae
    ​- foramen cecum of tongue
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78
Q

Which one of the following actions is directly caused by gastrin?

Stimulates aldosterone release

Increases pancreatic secretions rich in digestive enzymes

Increases gastric H+ secretion

Decreases gastric emptying

Increases pancreatic bicarbonate secretion

Increases gut absorption of calcium

A

Which one of the following actions is directly caused by gastrin?

Stimulates aldosterone release

Increases pancreatic secretions rich in digestive enzymes

Increases gastric H+ secretion

Decreases gastric emptying

Increases pancreatic bicarbonate secretion

Increases gut absorption of calcium

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79
Q

What type of cells line the villi of the small intestine?

A

•Simple columnar epithelial cells (enterocytes)

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80
Q

which metabolism disorder causes a second wind of exercise?

a) von Gierkes
b) Hers
c) McArdles
d) Galactosaemia
e) hereditary fructose intolerance

A

which metabolism disorder causes a second wind of exercise?

a) von Gierkes
b) Hers
* *c) McArdles**
d) Galactosaemia
e) hereditary fructose intolerance

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81
Q

what are the two differing roles of ADH :)

A

ADH:

  1. regulates osmolality of blood serum (increases reabsorbtion & causes dilution of blood serum)
  2. vasoconstriction of arterial BP
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82
Q

which cells do you find lining peyers patches?

a) G cells
b) D cells
c) T cells
d) M cells
e) B cells

A

which cells do you find lining peyers patches?

a) G cells
b) D cells
c) T cells
* *d) M cells**
e) B cell

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83
Q

where is Fe absorbed in the body?

a) duodenum
b) jejenum
c) ileum
d) ascending colon
e) transverse colon

A

where is Fe absorbed in the body?

  • *a) duodenum**
    b) jejenum
    c) ileum
    d) ascending colon
    e) transverse colon
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84
Q

Which muscle fiber type is more abundant in a marathon runner? What features make this fiber type suitable for this chosen sport? [4]

A

Type I Slow Oxidative

  • High mitochondrial content -> good TCA cycle capabilities therefore lots of ATP produced aerobically
  • High myoglobin content -> good oxygen delivery
  • Good for frequent and prolonged contraction, suitable for a marathon run.
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85
Q

A 55-year-old man is admitted with a brisk haematemesis. He is taken to the endoscopy department and an upper GI endoscopy is performed by the gastroenterologist. He identifies an ulcer on the posterior duodenal wall and spends an eternity trying to control the bleeding with all the latest haemostatic techniques. He eventually asks the surgeons for help. A laparotomy and anterior duodenotomy are performed, as the surgeon opens the duodenum a vessel is spurting blood into the duodenal lumen. From which of the following does this vessel arise?

Left gastric artery
Common hepatic artery
Right hepatic artery
SMA
Splenic artery

A

A 55-year-old man is admitted with a brisk haematemesis. He is taken to the endoscopy department and an upper GI endoscopy is performed by the gastroenterologist. He identifies an ulcer on the posterior duodenal wall and spends an eternity trying to control the bleeding with all the latest haemostatic techniques. He eventually asks the surgeons for help. A laparotomy and anterior duodenotomy are performed, as the surgeon opens the duodenum a vessel is spurting blood into the duodenal lumen. From which of the following does this vessel arise?

Left gastric artery
Common hepatic artery
Right hepatic artery
SMA
Splenic artery

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86
Q

what type of disease if famial hypercholeserolemia?

a) X linked recessive
b) autosomal dom
c) autosomal rec
d) Y-linked
e) X-linked dom

A

what type of disease if famial hypercholeserolemia?

a) X linked recessive
* *b) autosomal dom**
c) autosomal rec
d) Y-linked
e) X-linked dom

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87
Q

What is the treatment for coeliac disease?

A

•Elimination of gluten-containing food (e.g. wheat, rye, barley) from the diet

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88
Q

Filtration fraction:

Can be estimated using creatinine clearance

GFR * plasma concentration

Plasmacreatinine / urinarycreatinine

Glomerular filtration rate / renal blood flow

Renal plasma flow / (1 - Haematocrit)

Is typically around 0.20

A

Filtration fraction:

Can be estimated using creatinine clearance

GFR * plasma concentration

Plasmacreatinine / urinarycreatinine

Glomerular filtration rate / renal blood flow

Renal plasma flow / (1 - Haematocrit)

Is typically around 0.20

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89
Q

name for the electron carrier in ETC? [1]

A

ubiqunione

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90
Q

which nerve is being tested here?

a) median
b) ulnar
c) radius
d) axillary

A

which nerve is being tested here?

  • *a) median**
    b) ulnar
    c) radius
    d) axillary
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91
Q

What is the rate limiting enzyme of glycolysis?

PFK1
Glycogen synthase
Glyocgen phosphorylase
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
​Isocitrate dehydrogenase

A

What is the rate limiting enzyme of glycolysis?

PFK1
Glycogen synthase
Glyocgen phosphorylase
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
​Isocitrate dehydrogenase

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92
Q

where do steroid hormones most commonly bind to cell? [1]

A

in nucleus - alter gene expression

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93
Q

what type of bacteria is H. pylori?

gram-postive
gram-negative

A

what type of bacteria is H. pylori?

gram-postive
gram-negative

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94
Q

Hers Disease and von Gierkes disease are both types of glycogen storage diseases that result in hypoglycaemia. Which of these diseases would result in more mild hypoglycaemia and why? (4)

A

Hers disease result in more mild hypoglycemia (1)

Hers disease PYGL gene is defected, so defect in glycogen phoshporylase means can break down liver glycogen (1)

But can still undergo gluconeogensis (1)

von Gierkes disease is defect in glucose-6-phosphatase, so cant break down glycogen –> glucose at all. (1)

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95
Q

Which one of the following actions is directly caused by CCK?

Decreases gastric emptying

Decreases pepsinogen secretion

Decreases gallbladder contraction

Increases gastric motility

Decreases appetite

Decreases gastric H+ secretion

A

Which one of the following actions is directly caused by CCK?

Decreases gastric emptying

Decreases pepsinogen secretion

Decreases gallbladder contraction

Increases gastric motility

Decreases appetite

Decreases gastric H+ secretion

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96
Q

which type of cells are bile salts secreted from?

  • goblet cells
  • paneth cells
  • enteroendocrine cells
  • hepatocytes
  • parietal cells
A

which type of cells are bile salts secreted from?

​- goblet cells

  • paneth cells
  • enteroendocrine cells
  • *- hepatocytes**
  • parietal cells
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97
Q

Glomerular filtration rate:

Urine flow rate * urine concentration

Is typically around 100 ml/min

UPAH * V / PPAH

GFR * plasma concentration

Is typically around 0.20

Renal plasma flow / (1 - Haematocrit)

A

Glomerular filtration rate:

Urine flow rate * urine concentration

Is typically around 100 ml/min

UPAH * V / PPAH

GFR * plasma concentration

Is typically around 0.20

Renal plasma flow / (1 - Haematocrit)

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98
Q

how is fructose absorbed in the mucosal phase of carbohydrate digestion?

a) primary active transport
b) secondary active transport
c) simple diffusion
d) faciliated diffusion
e) paracellular transport

A

how is fructose absorbed in the mucousal phase of digestion?

a) primary active transport
b) secondary active transport
c) simple diffusion
* *d) faciliated diffusion**
e) paracellular transport

glucose and galactose go via 2 AT through SGLT but fructose does fac d.

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99
Q

the anterior and posterior pituitary gland are both controlled by which structure? [1]

A

hypothalamus !

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100
Q

What is the best way to describe a silent mutation

A single base mutation that changes the amino acid, but there is no obvious clinical effect
A single base mutation that changes the amino acid, but there is no obvious clinical effect at birth
A single base mutation that changes the amino acid, causing changes in 2 & 3 structure of protein
A single base mutation that does not change the amino acid and does not affect the phenotype or transcription of that gene
A single base mutation that does not change the AA but may affect transcription or translation of the gene

A

What is the best way to describe a silent mutation

A single base mutation that changes the amino acid, but there is no obvious clinical effect
A single base mutation that changes the amino acid, but there is no obvious clinical effect at birth
A single base mutation that changes the amino acid, causing changes in 2 & 3 structure of protein
A single base mutation that does not change the amino acid and does not affect the phenotype or transcription of that gene
A single base mutation that does not change the AA but may affect transcription or translation of the gene

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101
Q

which type of receptor is insulin receptor?

a) enzyme-linked
b) GPCR
c) ion channel
d) tyrosine-kinase

A

which type of receptor is insulin receptor?

a) enzyme-linked
b) GPCR
c) ion channel
* *d) tyrosine-kinase**

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102
Q

which cells found in the small intestine that are ​modified enterocytes that cover lymphoid nodules

  • parietal cells
  • goblet cells
  • paneth cells
  • enteroendocrine cells
  • m cells
A

which cells found in the small intestine that are ​modified enterocytes that cover lymphoid nodules

  • parietal cells
  • goblet cells
  • paneth cells
  • enteroendocrine cells
  • *- m cells**
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103
Q

Which ligament is at risk in this boy?

  • radial collateral ligament
  • ulnar collateral ligament
  • annular ligament
  • deltoid ligament
A

Which ligament is at risk in this boy?

  • radial collateral ligament
  • ulnar collateral ligament
  • *- annular ligament**
  • deltoid ligament
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104
Q

A 64-year-old man is admitted with a COPD exacerbation. He is hypoxic on admission with an SpO2 of 72%. He has a lactic acidosis on blood analysis.

What is the rate limiting enzyme of the process which has resulted in the lactic acidosis?

HMG-CoA reductase
Fructose-1,6 biphosphatase
PFK1
Glycgen synthase
Glucose 6 P deH

A

A 64-year-old man is admitted with a COPD exacerbation. He is hypoxic on admission with an SpO2 of 72%. He has a lactic acidosis on blood analysis.

What is the rate limiting enzyme of the process which has resulted in the lactic acidosis?

HMG-CoA reductase
Fructose-1,6 biphosphatase
PFK1 - The rate limiting enzyme for glycoloysis is phosphofructokinase (PFK1)
Glycgen synthase
Glucose 6 P deH

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105
Q

Which substance can be used to achieve the most accurate measurement of the glomerular filtration rate?

Glucose
Protein
Inulin
Creatitine
PAH acid

A

Which substance can be used to achieve the most accurate measurement of the glomerular filtration rate?

Glucose
Protein
Inulin
Creatitine
PAH acid

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106
Q

which antibody protects agaisnt parasitic worms?

a) IgG
b) IgM
c) IgA
d) IgE
e) IgD

A

which antibody protects agaisnt parasitic worms?

a) IgG
b) IgM
c) IgA
* *d) IgE**
e) IgD

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107
Q

glutamate is an amino acid that also acts as an important …

a) steroid hormone
b) neurotransmitter
c) secondary messenger
d) source of metabolic energy

A

glutamate is an amino acid that also acts as an important …

a) steroid hormone

b) neurotransmitter

c) secondary messenger
d) source of metabolic energy

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108
Q

TAG transport is mediated by:

a) chylomicrons & IDLs
b) chylomicrons & VLDLs
c) chylomicrons & LDLs
d) chylomicrons & HDLs
e) VLDLs and LDLs

A

TAG transport is mediated by:

a) chylomicrons & IDLs
* *b) chylomicrons & VLDLs**
c) chylomicrons & LDLs
d) chylomicrons & HDLs
e) VLDLs and LDLs

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109
Q

which of the following messengers are use paracrine siginalling in to control stomach acid secretions?

a) histamine only
b) acetylcholine only
c) gastrin & histamine
d) somatostatin & gastrin
e) somatostain & histamine

A

which of the following messengers are use paracrine siginalling in to control stomach acid secretions?

a) histamine only
b) acetylcholine only
c) gastrin & histamine
d) somatostatin & gastrin
* *e) somatostain & histamine**

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110
Q
A
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111
Q

You are developing a new drug for diabetes which acts to decrease synthesis of glucose in the liver from non-carbohydrate carbon substrates. You want to develop a drug which targets the the rate limiting enzyme.

What enzyme will you target?

Fructose 1,6 biphosphatase
HMG-CoA synthase
HMG-CoA reductase
Glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase
Acetyl-CoA carboxylase

A

You are developing a new drug for diabetes which acts to decrease synthesis of glucose in the liver from non-carbohydrate carbon substrates. You want to develop a drug which targets the the rate limiting enzyme.

What enzyme will you target?

Fructose 1,6 biphosphatase The rate limiting enzyme for gluconeogenesis is fructose 1,6 bisphosphatase
HMG-CoA synthase
HMG-CoA reductase
Glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase
Acetyl-CoA carboxylase

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112
Q

Which one of the following actions is directly caused by somatostatin?

Increases pancreatic bicarbonate secretion

Decreases pancreatic secretions

Stimulates release of insulin-like growth factors

Increases glycogenolysis

Increases gut absorption of calcium

Stimulates thirst

A

Which one of the following actions is directly caused by somatostatin?

Increases pancreatic bicarbonate secretion

Decreases pancreatic secretions

Stimulates release of insulin-like growth factors

Increases glycogenolysis

Increases gut absorption of calcium

Stimulates thirst

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113
Q

which dietary molecule is essential for transmination to occur?

vitamin B6

vitamin B12

vitamin C

vitamin B3

A

which dietary molecule is essential for transmination to occur?

vitamin B6

vitamin B12

vitamin C

vitamin B3

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114
Q

statins reduce circulating blood cholesterol in two ways. what are these? (2)

A

statins block the activity of HMG-Co A reductase. so less cholesterol is made from acetly co-A (acetyl co-A –> cholesterol) (1)
causes more LDL receptors to be made & take in MORE LDLs -> reducing blood LDLs

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115
Q

which is the sensory nerve innervation for gagging?

a) trigeminal nerve
b) facial nerve
c) glossopharnyngeal
d) vagus nerve
e) hypoglossal

A

which is the sensory nerve innervation for gagging?

a) trigeminal nerve
b) facial nerve
c) glossopharnyngeal
d) vagus nerve
e) hypoglossal

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116
Q

which of the following is correct?

glucagon works on the liver and muscles to build up glycogen stores

insulin works on liver to build glycogen stores

insulin works on the muscle and liver to build glycogen stores

glucagon works on the liver and muscles to break down glycogen stores

insulin works on the muscle and liver to break down glycogen stores

A

which of the following is correct?

glucagon works on the liver and muscles to build up glycogen stores

insulin works on liver to build glycogen stores

insulin works on the muscle and liver to build glycogen stores

glucagon works on the liver and muscles to break down glycogen stores

insulin works on the muscle and liver to break down glycogen stores

1. insulin: muscle and liver - builds glycogen stores

2. glucagon: only liver - breaks down glyocgen stores to release glucose

3. adrenaline: muscles via a & b adrergic receptors - release glucose

4 calcium: muscles via a & b adrergic receptors - release glucose

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117
Q

Increases pepsinogen secretion:

VIP

Renin

CCK

Gastrin

Secretin

Ghrelin

A

Increases pepsinogen secretion:

VIP

Renin

CCK

Gastrin

Secretin

Ghrelin

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118
Q

Which one of the following actions is directly caused by antidiuretic hormone?

Increases Na+ reabsorption in the renal distal tubule

Stimulates aldosterone release

Up-regulates alpha-1 receptors on arterioles

Increases plasma calcium

Vasoconstriction of vascular smooth muscle

Promotes water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the kidneys by the insertion of aquaporin-2 channels

A

Which one of the following actions is directly caused by antidiuretic hormone?

Increases Na+ reabsorption in the renal distal tubule

Stimulates aldosterone release

Up-regulates alpha-1 receptors on arterioles

Increases plasma calcium

Vasoconstriction of vascular smooth muscle

Promotes water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the kidneys by the insertion of aquaporin-2 channels

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119
Q

Which one of the following stimulates gastric acid secretion?

CCK
Gastric inhibitory peptide
Secretin
Histamine
Somatostatin

A

Which one of the following stimulates gastric acid secretion?

CCK
Gastric inhibitory peptide
Secretin
Histamine
​Somatostatin

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120
Q

if you bang your elbow and get pins & needles running down you hand, which nerve is most likely affected?

a) median
b) radial
c) ulnar
d) musculocutaneous

A

if you bang your elbow and get pins & needles running down you hand, which nerve is most likely affected?

a) median
b) radial
* *c) ulnar**
d) musculocutaneous

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121
Q

Which one of the following is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the spinal cord?

Adrenaline
Glutamate
Serotonin
Dopamine
Glycine

A

Which one of the following is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the spinal cord?

Adrenaline
Glutamate
Serotonin
Dopamine
​Glycine

Glycine is the principal inhibitory neurotransmitter of the spinal cord

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122
Q

A 52-year-old male presents to his general practitioner with a two-month history of abdominal pain, occasional haematemesis and significant weight loss. He is sent for a gastroscopy, which identifies multiple gastric ulcers and thickened gastric folds. It is therefore suspected that the patient may have a gastrinoma and is sent for a secretin stimulation test (involves exogenous secretin administration) to confirm the diagnosis.

What is the mechanism of action of this exogenous hormone?

Carbohydrate digestion
Decreases gastric acid secretion
Stimulates gallbladder contractin
Stimulates gastric acid secretion
Stimulates pancreatic enzyme secretion

A

A 52-year-old male presents to his general practitioner with a two-month history of abdominal pain, occasional haematemesis and significant weight loss. He is sent for a gastroscopy, which identifies multiple gastric ulcers and thickened gastric folds. It is therefore suspected that the patient may have a gastrinoma and is sent for a secretin stimulation test (involves exogenous secretin administration) to confirm the diagnosis.

What is the mechanism of action of this exogenous hormone?

Carbohydrate digestion
Decreases gastric acid secretion
Stimulates gallbladder contractin
Stimulates gastric acid secretion
​Stimulates pancreatic enzyme secretion

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123
Q

A patient has pins and needles in this distribution, which nerve is compressed?

a) ulnar
b) median
c) radius
d) musculocutanous

A

A patient has pins and needles in this distribution, which nerve is compressed?

a) ulnar
* *b) median**
c) radius
d) musculocutanous

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124
Q

which enzyme is not present in skeletal muscle?

a) debranching enzyme
b) phosphoglucomutase
c) glucose-6-phosphatase
d) glycogen phosphorylase
e) pyruvate dehydrogenase

A

which enzyme is not present in skeletal muscle?

a) debranching enzyme
b) phosphoglucomutase
* *c) glucose-6-phosphatase**
d) glycogen phosphorylase
e) pyruvate dehydrogenase

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125
Q

what are the two different pathways molecules that insulin activates to cause overall activation of glycogen synthase/ [2]

A

insulin

  • *- activates phosphodiesterase**
  • *- activates protein phosphastase**
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126
Q

which nerve innervates the muscles that causes gagging?

a) trigeminal nerve
b) facial nerve
c) glossopharnyngeal
d) vagus nerve
e) hypoglossal

A

which nerve innervates the muscles that causes gagging?

a) trigeminal nerve
b) facial nerve
c) glossopharnyngeal
d) vagus nerve
e) hypoglossal

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127
Q

which nerve plexi do u find in the oesphagus? [2] and where do find them?

A
  • meissner plexus: submucosal tissue
  • auerbach’s plexus: myenteric - betweeen circ and long. muscle layer
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128
Q

during the mechanism of T cell gut honing, what do gut dendritic cells secrete?

a) CCR9
b) retinoic acid
c) a4B7
d) MADCAM
e) IgA

A

during the mechanism of T cell gut honing, what do gut dendritic cells secrete?

a) CCR9
b) retinoic acid - activates T cells to make a4B7 & CCR9
c) a4B7
d) MADCAM
​e) IgA

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129
Q

which nerve provides special sensory innervation to anterior portion of tongue?

a) glossopharnygeal
b) trigeminal
c) vagus nerve
d) hypoglossal
e) facial nerve

A

which nerve provides special sensory innervation to anterior portion of tongue?

a) glossopharnygeal
b) trigeminal
c) vagus nerve
d) hypoglossal
* *e) facial nerve**

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130
Q

what is the difference between McArdles Disease and Hers Disease? [2]

A

Hers disease: glycogen phosphorylase in liver [1]
McArdles caused by: deficiency in glycogen phosophorylase gene: PYGM. cant breakdown glycogen in the muscle = muscle weakness [1]

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131
Q

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of the body’s response to a decrease in blood pressure?

Decreased HR and vasoconstriction
Decreased epithelial sodium channels in DCT
Increased bradykinin
Insertion of AQP-2 channels in CD
Insertion of AQP-2 channels in thick ascending loop of Henle

A

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of the body’s response to a decrease in blood pressure?

Decreased HR and vasoconstriction
Decreased epithelial sodium channels in DCT
Increased bradykinin
Insertion of AQP-2 channels in CD
Insertion of AQP-2 channels in thick ascending loop of Henle

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132
Q

intermediate density lipoproteins cause left over chylomicrons to become:

a) HDLs & LDLs
b) VLDL & HDLs
c) VLDL & LDLs
d) HDLs
e) LDLs

A

intermediate density lipoproteins cause left over chylomicrons to become:

a) HDLs & LDLs
b) VLDL & HDLs
c) VLDL & LDLs
d) HDLs
​e) LDLs

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133
Q

the receptive reflex in the proximal part of the stomach causes what to be released?

a) Ach
b) CCK
c) NO
d) Ca2+
e) cAMP

A

the receptive reflex in the proximal part of the stomach causes what to be released?

a) Ach
* *b) CCK - vagal-vagal interaction that causes proximal stomach stretch so not immediatly full**
c) NO
d) Ca2+
e) cAMP

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134
Q

fats (& cholesterol) absorbed from GI tract, turn into chylomicrons and go into lymphatic system:

here they ​interact with HDLs - how? (2)

A

fats (& cholesterol) absorbed from GI tract, turn into chylomicrons and go into lymphatic system:

here they ​interact with HDLs

- ApoC2 added: allows chylomicrons to give its triglycerides to peripheral cells

- ApoE added: allows chylomicron remenant to be taken up by the liver to deliver FA & cholesterol

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135
Q

what is insulin initially synthesised as? [1]

A

preproinsulin

gets turned into proinsulin, then at GA = insulin

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136
Q

A 6-day-old child is referred to a community paediatrician by a general physician for poor feeding, vomiting and increasing lethargy. The child was born at term via spontaneous vaginal delivery, and his antenatal scans report no complications.

On examination, the baby looks floppy and tired. His nappy is wet and has a characteristic maple syrup odour.

Given the most likely diagnosis, which of the following is a known complication if left untreated?

Metabolic and resp acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Resp alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis
Resp acidosis

A

A 6-day-old child is referred to a community paediatrician by a general physician for poor feeding, vomiting and increasing lethargy. The child was born at term via spontaneous vaginal delivery, and his antenatal scans report no complications.

On examination, the baby looks floppy and tired. His nappy is wet and has a characteristic maple syrup odour.

Given the most likely diagnosis, which of the following is a known complication if left untreated?

Metabolic and resp acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Resp alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis
Resp acidosis

If left untreated, alpha-ketoacids build up in the blood resulting in metabolic acidosis (ketoacidosis).

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137
Q

what type of transport do proteins undergo during mucosal phase of digestion?

  • facilitated diffusion
  • primary active transport
  • secondary active transport
  • endocytosis
A

what type of transport do proteins undergo during mucosal phase of digestion?

  • facilitated diffusion
  • primary active transport
  • *- secondary active transport**
  • endocytosis
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138
Q

A 60-year-old male patient experiences uncontrolled hepatic bleeding during liver resection surgery. The ‘Pringle manoeuvre’ is performed whereby the hepatic artery, portal vein and common bile duct are clamped, thus interrupting the blood flow. The structures mentioned form the anterior boundary of the epiploic foramen.

Which other vessel forms a boundary to this region?

Abdominal aorta
IVC
Thoracic aorta
Common hepatic artery
Right renal artery

A

A 60-year-old male patient experiences uncontrolled hepatic bleeding during liver resection surgery. The ‘Pringle manoeuvre’ is performed whereby the hepatic artery, portal vein and common bile duct are clamped, thus interrupting the blood flow. The structures mentioned form the anterior boundary of the epiploic foramen.

Which other vessel forms a boundary to this region?

Abdominal aorta
IVC
Thoracic aorta
Common hepatic artery
​Right renal artery

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139
Q

You are designing a research project looking at the effects of prolonged fasting on lipid stores. You want to study the effects of diet on breakdown of fats. You decide to monitor the concentrations of the rate limiting enzyme of this process in response to a high glucose load.

What enzyme will you measure?

Glycogen phosphorylase
Isocitrate dehydrogenase
PFK-1
Glycogen synthase
Cartinine-palmitoyl transferase

A

You are designing a research project looking at the effects of prolonged fasting on lipid stores. You want to study the effects of diet on breakdown of fats. You decide to monitor the concentrations of the rate limiting enzyme of this process in response to a high glucose load.

What enzyme will you measure?

Glycogen phosphorylase
Isocitrate dehydrogenase
PFK-1
Glycogen synthase
Cartinine-palmitoyl transferase -

The rate limiting enzyme for lipolysis is carnitine-palmitoyl transferase I​

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140
Q
  • Commonest HLA in people with celiac disease is..
  • HLA-DQ1
  • HLA-DQ2
  • HLA-DQ3
  • HLA-DQ4
A
  • Commonest HLA in people with celiac disease is..
  • HLA-DQ1

•HLA-DQ2

  • HLA-DQ3
  • HLA-DQ4
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141
Q

Give 3 mechanisms by which absorption is achieved in the small intestine?

A
  • Simple diffusion
  • Active transport e.g. Na+/K+ATPase for absorption of glucose
  • Facilitated diffusion (a carrier-mediated transport system to allow faster absorption compared with simple diffusion e.g. proteins)
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142
Q

Which one of the following actions is directly caused by growth hormone?

Inhibits glucagon secretion

Increases gluconeogenesis

Increases glycogenolysis

Inhibits insulin secretion

Decreases gastric H+ secretion

Increases renal reabsorption of calcium

A

Which one of the following actions is directly caused by growth hormone?

Inhibits glucagon secretion

Increases gluconeogenesis

Increases glycogenolysis

Inhibits insulin secretion

Decreases gastric H+ secretion

Increases renal reabsorption of calcium

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143
Q

what is the intermediate used in transamination? [1]
which vitamin is used as an intermediate in transamination? [1]

A

pyroxidal phosphate
derived from vitamin B6

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144
Q

With regards to the gastrointestinal tract, submucosa:

Contains the lamina propria

Contains Auerbach’s (myenteric) plexus

Contains Meissner’s plexus

Contains the muscularis mucosae

A

With regards to the gastrointestinal tract, submucosa:

Contains the lamina propria

Contains Auerbach’s (myenteric) plexus

Contains Meissner’s plexus

Contains the muscularis mucosae

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145
Q
A
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146
Q

Why does late onset of coeliac disease occur?

A

•A change in the composition of gut flora (e.g. due to infection, stress, hormones etc.) can trigger the activation of the genes for coeliac disease

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147
Q
A
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148
Q

which enzyme breaks alpha 1-4 glycosidic bonds?

a) debranching enzyme
b) phosphoglucomutase
c) glucose-6-phosphatase
d) glycogen phosphorylase
e) pyruvate dehydrogenase

A

which enzyme breaks alpha 1-4 glycosidic bonds?

a) debranching enzyme
b) phosphoglucomutase
c) glucose-6-phosphatase
* *d) glycogen phosphorylase**
e) pyruvate dehydrogenase

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149
Q

Which one of the following actions is directly caused by somatostatin?

Increases gastric motility

Increases growth hormone secretion

Increases appetite

Promotes water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the kidneys by the insertion of aquaporin-2 channels

Increases renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol

Decreases gallbladder contraction

A

Which one of the following actions is directly caused by somatostatin?

Increases gastric motility

Increases growth hormone secretion

Increases appetite

Promotes water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the kidneys by the insertion of aquaporin-2 channels

Increases renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol

Decreases gallbladder contraction

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150
Q

where in the GI tract are bile acids mostly absorbed?

a) duodenum
b) jejunum
c) ileum
d) ascending colon
e) transverse colon

A

where in the GI tract are bile acids mostly absorbed?

a) duodenum
b) jejunum
c) ileum
d) ascending colon
​e) transverse colon

(also absorbed in colon, but less so)

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151
Q

movement of water in gut crypt cells is controlled by which transporters?

a) aquaporins
b) ENAC
c) ROMK
d) CFTR
e) Na/K/Cl2

A

movement of water in gut crypt cells is controlled by which transporters?

a) aquaporins
b) ENAC
c) ROMK
* *d) CFTR**
e) Na/K/Cl2

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152
Q

A patient becomes dehydrated which leads to increased absorption of water in the collecting duct. If you were to measure the concentration of his urine you would find that it is near to 1200mOsm/L

Where in the nephron would you expect a similar osmolarity to be found?

PCT
Descending loop of Henle
Tip of loop of Henle
Thin ascending Loop of Henle
Thick ascending Loop of Henle

A

A patient becomes dehydrated which leads to increased absorption of water in the collecting duct. If you were to measure the concentration of his urine you would find that it is near to 1200mOsm/L

Where in the nephron would you expect a similar osmolarity to be found?

PCT
Descending loop of Henle
Tip of loop of Henle
Thin ascending Loop of Henle
Thick ascending Loop of Henle

153
Q

. Name the co factor required by phenylalanine hydroxylase ( 1 mark)

A
  • Tetrahydrobiopterin
154
Q

Which one of the following best accounts for the action of PTH in increasing serum calcium levels?

Activation of vit. D to increase absorption of calcium from the small intestine
Direct stimulation of osteoclasts to absorb bone with release of calcium
Stimulation of phosphate absorbtion at the DCT of the kidney
Decreased porosity of the vessels at the Bowmans capsule to calcium
Vasospasm of the afferent renal arteriole thereby reducing GFR and calcium urinary loss

A

Which one of the following best accounts for the action of PTH in increasing serum calcium levels?

Activation of vit. D to increase absorption of calcium from the small intestine
Direct stimulation of osteoclasts to absorb bone with release of calcium
Stimulation of phosphate absorbtion at the DCT of the kidney
Decreased porosity of the vessels at the Bowmans capsule to calcium
Vasospasm of the afferent renal arteriole thereby reducing GFR and calcium urinary loss

PTH increases the activity of 1-α-hydroxylase enzyme, which converts 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol, the active form of vitamin D.
Osteoclasts do not have a PTH receptor and effects are mediated via osteoblasts.

155
Q

what is the precursor for all steriod hormones, which occurs after conversion of cholesterol? [1]

A

In all steroid-producing human tissue, the conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone is an essential step. Pregnenolone is the precursor for all steroid hormones, and its formation represents the rate-limiting step of steroid synthesis

156
Q

ID the branch of the brachial plexus identified by the arrow

axillary
radial
median
ulnar

A

ID the branch of the brachial plexus identified by the arrow

axillary
radial
median
ulnar

157
Q

A 46-year-old gentleman presents to the general practice with a 2-week history of a tickly non-productive cough. There are no associated symptoms. The patient’s respiratory examination is normal. The gentleman started taking ACE inhibitors at around the same time as the symptom started. You decide the patient’s cough is likely due to the new medication, and prescribe an angiotensin receptor blocker in place of the ACE inhibitor. A lot of antihypertensive medication target elements of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone-system. Angiotensin I is a hormone that is important in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone-system. It is derived from the hydrolysis of angiotensinogen in a reaction catalysed by which enzyme?

Carbonic anhydrase
ACE
Cycoloxygenase-2
Renin
Amylase

A

A 46-year-old gentleman presents to the general practice with a 2-week history of a tickly non-productive cough. There are no associated symptoms. The patient’s respiratory examination is normal. The gentleman started taking ACE inhibitors at around the same time as the symptom started. You decide the patient’s cough is likely due to the new medication, and prescribe an angiotensin receptor blocker in place of the ACE inhibitor. A lot of antihypertensive medication target elements of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone-system. Angiotensin I is a hormone that is important in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone-system. It is derived from the hydrolysis of angiotensinogen in a reaction catalysed by which enzyme?

Carbonic anhydrase
ACE
Cycoloxygenase-2
Renin
Amylase

158
Q

Identifiy two histological features of CD

A
  • **villus atrophy
  • crypt hyperplasia**
159
Q

how are lipids absorbed in the mucosal phase of lipid digestion?

a) primary active transport
b) secondary active transport
c) simple diffusion
d) faciliated diffusion
e) paracellular transport

A

how are lipids absorbed in the mucosal phase of lipid digestion?

a) primary active transport
b) secondary active transport
* *c) simple diffusion**
d) faciliated diffusion
e) paracellular transport

160
Q

which micronutrient helps to improve childrens learning ability and cognitive development? (1)
Why? (1)

A

iron helps to improve childrens learning ability and cognitive development: Fe helps Hb to carry oxygen to neurons in brain

161
Q

Where in the body is angiotensinogen produced?

Adrenal cortex
Liver
Lungs
Kidneyss
Pancreas

A

Where in the body is angiotensinogen produced?

Adrenal cortex
Liver
Lungs
Kidneyss
Pancreas

162
Q

ileal brake is caused be what entering the ileum?

a) proteins
b) carbs
c) fats
d) minerals
e) vitamins

A

ileal brake is caused be what entering the ileum?

a) proteins
b) carbs
* *c) fats**
d) minerals
e) vitamins

- fats reach the ileum (even tho theyre meant to have been absorbed in duodenum)
- causes release of peptide YY & glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) by enteroendocrine cells
= slows gastric emptying

163
Q

A patient presents to their GP with dehydration due to diarrhoea and vomiting. This is detected by the kidneys as reduced renal perfusion causing the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system to be activated.

Which part of the adrenal gland is needed as part of this system?

JXG cells
Pulmonary endothelium
Zona glomerulosa
Zona fasciculata
Zona reticularis

A

A patient presents to their GP with dehydration due to diarrhoea and vomiting. This is detected by the kidneys as reduced renal perfusion causing the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system to be activated.

Which part of the adrenal gland is needed as part of this system?

JXG cells
Pulmonary endothelium
Zona glomerulosa - aldosterone is secreted from the zona glom
Zona fasciculata
​Zona reticularis

164
Q

what colour does CLO test go if H. pylori is present?

a) blue
b) yellow
c) green
d) orange
e) purple

A

what colour does CLO test go if H. pylori is present?

a) blue
b) yellow
c) green
* *d) orange / red**
e) purple

165
Q

What effect does angiotensin II have on common renal measurements?

Decreased GFR, decreased renal plasma flow, no change in filtration fraction

Increased GFR, no change in renal plasma flow, increase in filtration fraction

Decreased GFR, no change in renal plasma flow, decrease in filtration fraction

Decreased GFR, increased renal plasma flow, decrease in filtration fraction

Increased GFR, decreased renal plasma flow, increase in filtration fraction

Increased GFR, increased renal plasma flow, no change in filtration fraction

A

What effect does angiotensin II have on common renal measurements?

Decreased GFR, decreased renal plasma flow, no change in filtration fraction

Increased GFR, no change in renal plasma flow, increase in filtration fraction

Decreased GFR, no change in renal plasma flow, decrease in filtration fraction

Decreased GFR, increased renal plasma flow, decrease in filtration fraction

Increased GFR, decreased renal plasma flow, increase in filtration fraction

Increased GFR, increased renal plasma flow, no change in filtration fraction

166
Q

metabolism of glutamine releases a lot of what?

urea
NH3
NH4+
uric acid
NADH

A

metabolism of glutamine releases a lot of what?

urea
NH3
NH4+
uric acid
NADH

  • a-keto glutarate glutamate glutamine: generates free ammonia (as NH4+)
  • a-ketoglutarate is needed for TCA cycle for energy.*
    • Glutamine has 2 amino groups, glutmate has 1, a-keto glutarate has 0 - so each step removes/adds an amino group so the metabolism of glutamine releases a lot of ammonium.*
167
Q

what do chief cells secrete in children? [1]
function? [1]

A

what do chief cells secrete in children? [1]
chymosin / rennin

function? [1]
coagulate milk allowing it to be retained longer in the stomach

168
Q
A
169
Q

Where is the majority of somatostatin secreted from?

P/D1 cells lining the fundus of the stomach and epsilon cells of the pancreas

S cells in upper small intestine

Sertoli cells

D cells in the pancreas & stomach

I cells in upper small intestine

Zona glomerulosa of adrenal cortex

A

Where is the majority of somatostatin secreted from?

P/D1 cells lining the fundus of the stomach and epsilon cells of the pancreas

S cells in upper small intestine

Sertoli cells

D cells in the pancreas & stomach

I cells in upper small intestine

Zona glomerulosa of adrenal cortex

170
Q

Which one of the following hormonal agents will increase secretions of water and electrolytes in pancreatic juice?

  • secretin
  • aldosterone
  • somatostatin
  • cholecystokinin
  • adrenaline
A

Which one of the following hormonal agents will increase secretions of water and electrolytes in pancreatic juice?

- secretin
- aldosterone
- somatostatin
- cholecystokinin
​- adrenaline

171
Q

The thoracic duct of the lymphatic system empties in the..

  • Left subclavian vein
  • Left internal jugular vein
  • Left brachiocephalic vein
  • Left hemiazygos vein
A

The thoracic duct of the lymphatic system empties in the..

•Left subclavian vein

  • Left internal jugular vein
  • Left brachiocephalic vein
  • Left hemiazygos vein
172
Q

cells can make which vitamin from tryptophan if they are deficient in it?

vitamin B1
vitamin B2
vitamin B3
vitamin B4
vitamin B5

A

cells can make which vitamin from tryptophan if they are deficient in it?

vitamin B1
vitamin B2
vitamin B3
vitamin B4
vitamin B5

173
Q

A 6-month-old boy presents to the genetics clinic with a one-month history of swallowing and movement difficulties.

A genetic test is done for rare diseases which demonstrates a four base-pair insertion on chromosome 15, causing defects in the enzyme hexosaminidase A.

What type of genetic mutation is this?

Frameshift
Missense
Nonsense
Silent
Synonymous

A

A 6-month-old boy presents to the genetics clinic with a one-month history of swallowing and movement difficulties.

A genetic test is done for rare diseases which demonstrates a four base-pair insertion on chromosome 15, causing defects in the enzyme hexosaminidase A.

What type of genetic mutation is this?

Frameshift
Missense
Nonsense
Silent
​Synonymous

174
Q

Name the major types of MHC class I and MHC class II molecules in humans?

A

Class I: HLA-A, B and C

Class II: HLA-DR, DP and DQ

175
Q

A 16-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department with acute onset pain in the right iliac fossa, nausea, vomiting, and fever. He has no significant past medical or surgical history. On examination, you find rebound tenderness at McBurney’s point, guarding, and a positive Rovsing’s sign. You strongly suspect appendicitis and the patient is later taken for surgery.

Which of these is most likely to be a physiological response in this scenario?

Increased glucagon secretion
Increased insulin secretion
Reducde cortisol secretion
Increased T4 secretion
Reduced ACTH secretion

A

A 16-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department with acute onset pain in the right iliac fossa, nausea, vomiting, and fever. He has no significant past medical or surgical history. On examination, you find rebound tenderness at McBurney’s point, guarding, and a positive Rovsing’s sign. You strongly suspect appendicitis and the patient is later taken for surgery.

Which of these is most likely to be a physiological response in this scenario?

Increased glucagon secretion: physiological stresses increase secretion of glucagon !!
Increased insulin secretion
Reducde cortisol secretion
Increased T4 secretion
​Reduced ACTH secretion

176
Q

You are designing a research project looking at the pathophysiology of abetalipoproteinemia. You decide that a suitable target would be the rate limiting enzyme of lipogenesis.

What enzyme will you target?

Carbomyl phosphate synthestase I
Acetly CoA carboxylase
Glycogen phosphorylase
Isocitratre dehydrogenase
PFK-1

A

You are designing a research project looking at the pathophysiology of abetalipoproteinemia. You decide that a suitable target would be the rate limiting enzyme of lipogenesis.

What enzyme will you target?

Carbomyl phosphate synthestase I
Acetly CoA carboxylase
Glycogen phosphorylase
Isocitratre dehydrogenase
PFK-1

Lipogenesis is the process by which acetyl-CoA is converted to fatty acids. The rate limiting enzyme for lipogenesis is acetyl CoA carboxylase.

177
Q

The most effective class of gastric anti-secretory drug

a. Proton pump inhibitors
b. Histamine (H2) receptor blocker
c. Aluminium hydroxide
d. Amoxycillin

A

The most effective class of gastric anti-secretory drug

a.Proton pump inhibitors

b. Histamine (H2) receptor blocker
c. Aluminium hydroxide
d. Amoxycillin

178
Q

Which one of the following actions is directly caused by somatostatin?

Decreases gastric emptying

Increases secretion of melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) and corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH)

Increases renal reabsorption of calcium

Increases gastric H+ secretion

Increases glycogenolysis

Increases growth hormone secretion

A

Which one of the following actions is directly caused by somatostatin?

Decreases gastric emptying

Increases secretion of melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) and corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH)

Increases renal reabsorption of calcium

Increases gastric H+ secretion

Increases glycogenolysis

Increases growth hormone secretion

179
Q

which of the following have supranuclear granules?

  • goblet cells
  • paneth cells
  • enteroendocrine cells
  • m cells
  • parietal cells
A

which of the following have supranuclear granules?

  • goblet cells
  • *- paneth cells**
  • enteroendocrine cells
  • m cells
  • parietal cells
180
Q

Which ligament in the knee is being tested here?

  • anterior cruciate ligament
  • posterior cruciate ligament
  • medial collateral ligament
  • lateral collateral ligament
A

Which ligament in the knee is being tested here?

  • anterior cruciate ligament
  • *- posterior cruciate ligament**
  • medial collateral ligament
  • lateral collateral ligament
181
Q

which of the following binds to basophils and mast cells and activates these cells to produce antimicrobial factors to participate in respiratory immune defense in humans?

  • IgA
  • IgM
  • IgE
  • IgD
  • IgG
A

which of the following binds to basophils and mast cells and activates these cells to produce antimicrobial factors to participate in respiratory immune defense in humans?

  • IgA
  • IgM
  • IgE
  • *- IgD**
  • IgG
182
Q

which micronutrient is important in imprinting home to the gut mucosa from peyers patches?

a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin D
e) Vitamin E

A

which micronutrient is important in imprinting home to the gut mucosa from peyers patches?

  • *a) Vitamin A**
    b) Vitamin B
    c) Vitamin C
    d) Vitamin D
    e) Vitamin E

makes retinoic acid !!

  • gut dendritic cells use retinoic acid to inform the niave T cells
  • causes niave T cells to change transcription to express CCR9 & a4B& to do gut honing
183
Q

What effect does vasodilation of afferent arterioles have on common renal measurements?

Decreased GFR, increased renal plasma flow, decrease in filtration fraction

Decreased GFR, decreased renal plasma flow, no change in filtration fraction

Increased GFR, increased renal plasma flow, no change in filtration fraction

Increased GFR, decreased renal plasma flow, increase in filtration fraction

Decreased GFR, no change in renal plasma flow, decrease in filtration fraction

Increased GFR, no change in renal plasma flow, increase in filtration fraction

A

What effect does vasodilation of afferent arterioles have on common renal measurements?

Decreased GFR, increased renal plasma flow, decrease in filtration fraction

Decreased GFR, decreased renal plasma flow, no change in filtration fraction

Increased GFR, increased renal plasma flow, no change in filtration fraction

Increased GFR, decreased renal plasma flow, increase in filtration fraction

Decreased GFR, no change in renal plasma flow, decrease in filtration fraction

Increased GFR, no change in renal plasma flow, increase in filtration fraction

184
Q

A 16-year-old boy presents with muscle pain during exercise, early fatigue, and dark urine. He is diagnosed with McArdle’s disease.

What is the rate-limiting enzyme for the defective pathway in this disease?

Isocitrate dehydrogenase
Phosphofructokinase-1
Glycogen synthase
Glyocgen phosphorylase
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

A

A 16-year-old boy presents with muscle pain during exercise, early fatigue, and dark urine. He is diagnosed with McArdle’s disease.

What is the rate-limiting enzyme for the defective pathway in this disease?

Isocitrate dehydrogenase
Phosphofructokinase-1
Glycogen synthase
Glyocgen phosphorylase
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

185
Q

vegans are likely to be deficient in which two vitamins? [2]

A

B12 & vitamin D

186
Q

Increases glycogenolysis:

Cortisol

Somatostatin

Gastrin

Glucagon

Growth hormone

Ghrelin

A

Increases glycogenolysis:

Cortisol

Somatostatin

Gastrin

Glucagon

Growth hormone

Ghrelin

187
Q

Which cell secretes hydrochloric acid?

a. Mast cell
b. Columnar cell
c. Parietal cell
d. Chief cell
e. Goblet cell

A

Which cell secretes hydrochloric acid?

a. Mast cell
b. Columnar cell

c.Parietal cell

d. Chief cell
e. Goblet cell

188
Q

which apoprotein acts as recognition signal for LDL to be taken up by peripheral cells?

  • Apo B48
  • Apo B100
  • Apo C2
  • Apo E
  • Apo B10
A

which apoprotein acts as recognition signal for LDL to be taken up by peripheral cells?

  • Apo B48
  • *- Apo B100**
  • Apo C2
  • Apo E
  • Apo B10
189
Q

which cells found in the small intestine secrete antimicrobe substances?

  • enterocytes
  • goblet cells
  • paneth cells
  • enteroendocrine cells
  • m cells
A

which cells found in the small intestine secrete antimicrobe substances?

  • enterocytes
  • goblet cells
  • *- paneth cells**
  • enteroendocrine cells
  • m cells
190
Q

which lipoprotein carries fats from the liver to peripheral cells:

a) chylomicrons
b) VLDLs
c) IDLs
d) LDLs
e) HDLs

A

which lipoprotein carries fats from the liver to peripheral cells:

a) chylomicrons
* *b) VLDLs**
c) IDLs
d) LDLs
e) HDLs

191
Q

A 63-year-old man attends the dialysis unit three times a week to receive haemofiltration. In normal functioning kidneys, what detects changes in salt concentrations (such as sodium chloride) and adapts the glomerular filtration rate accordingly?

Juxtaglomerular cells
Mesengial cells
Podocytes
Macula Densa
Prinicpal cells

A

A 63-year-old man attends the dialysis unit three times a week to receive haemofiltration. In normal functioning kidneys, what detects changes in salt concentrations (such as sodium chloride) and adapts the glomerular filtration rate accordingly?

Juxtaglomerular cells
Mesengial cells
Podocytes
Macula Densa
Prinicpal cells

192
Q

lipoprotein lipase breaks down fats from inside lipoproteins and carries them into the cells. Which apoprotein is it activated by?

  • Apo B48
  • Apo B100
  • Apo C2
  • Apo E
  • Apo B10
A

lipoprotein lipase breaks down fats from inside lipoproteins and carries them into the cells. Which apoprotein is it activated by?

  • Apo B48
  • Apo B100
  • *- Apo C2**
  • Apo E
  • Apo B10
193
Q

which of the following is correct?

  • glycogen synthase is activated by addition of P, glycogen phosphorylase is activated by removal of P
  • glycogen synthase is activated by removal of P, glycogen phosphorylase is activated by addition of P
  • glycogen synthase is inhibited by addition of P, glycogen phosphorylase is inhibited by removal of P
  • glycogen synthase is inhibited by removal of P, glycogen phosphorylase is inhibited by addition of P
A

which of the following is correct?

  • glycogen synthase is activated by addition of P, glycogen phosphorylase is activated by removal of P
  • *- glycogen synthase is activated by removal of P, glycogen phosphorylase is activated by addition of P**
  • glycogen synthase is inhibited by addition of P, glycogen phosphorylase is inhibited by removal of P
  • glycogen synthase is inhibited by removal of P, glycogen phosphorylase is inhibited by addition of P

glycogen synthase is activated by removing P, inactivated by adding P
glycogen phosphorylase is activated by adding P, inactivated by removing P

194
Q

the duodenal and jejunal breaks cause what to be released?

a) Ach
b) CCK
c) NO
d) Ca2+
e) cAMP

A

the duodenal and jejunal breaks cause what to be released?

a) Ach
* *b) CCK**
c) NO
d) Ca2+
e) cAMP

  1. release of CCK activates vagal efferents
  2. as a result of vagal efferents:
    - reduces opening of pyloric sphincter
    - reductions contractions in corpus
    - enhances relaxation of fundus
195
Q

effect of insulin of gluconeogenesis? [1]

A

insulin inhibits gluconeogenesis

196
Q

what is used to capture this image?

a) CT
b) MRI T1
c) MRI T2
d) plain radiograph

A

what is used to capture this image?

  • *a) CT**
    b) MRI T1
    c) MRI T2
    d) plain radiograph
197
Q

The presence of particular IgA antibodies in the blood can be used to diagnose coeliac disease. Name two antigens recognised by these antibodies?

A

Tissue transglutaminase (tTG) or endomysium Gluten

198
Q
  1. A patient with suspected celiac disease has IgA anti-TTG test which comes back within normal range. What could contribute to the false negative nature of this investigation? (2)
  2. What could be done to verify the patient’s celiac disease? (3)
A

1. A patient with suspected celiac disease has IgA anti-TTG test which comes back within normal range. What could contribute to the false negative nature of this investigation? (2)

  • IgA deficient patient (1)
  • Patient isn’t actively consuming gluten (1)

2. What could be done to verify the patient’s celiac disease?

  • Perform total IgA blood test to assess IgA status of pt (1)
  • IgG-anti-TTG (1)
  • Ask patient to consume gluten for some time before redoing the tests (1)
  • Duodenal biopsy (after patient consumes gluten!!) (1)
199
Q

where is the largest microbial colony found in the GI tract?

a) stomach
b) duodenum
c) jejunum
d) ileum
e) colon

A

where is the largest microbial colony found in the GI tract?

a) stomach
b) duodenum
c) jejunum
d) ileum
* *​e) colon**

  • not in small intestine bc: difficult env. for growth
200
Q

The flat bones of the skull are formed by intramembranous ossification

True
False

A

The flat bones of the skull are formed by intramembranous ossification

True
​False

201
Q

immune cells have increased requirement for which co factor

  • B6
  • NADPH
  • NADH
  • FADH
  • B12
A

immune cells have increased requirement for which co factor

​- B6

  • *- NADPH - made via the pentose phosphate pathway**
  • NADH
  • FADH
  • B12
202
Q

Which one of the peritoneal ligaments connects the liver to the anterior abdominal wall?

Falciform ligament

Gastrocolic ligament

Splenorenal ligament

Hepatogastric ligament

Gastrosplenic ligament

Hepatoduodenal ligament

A

Which one of the peritoneal ligaments connects the liver to the anterior abdominal wall?

Falciform ligament

Gastrocolic ligament

Splenorenal ligament

Hepatogastric ligament

Gastrosplenic ligament

Hepatoduodenal ligament

203
Q

describe the role of Apo B100 on low densit lipoproteins (2)

A

Apo B100 causes LDLs to be taken up by cells (1)
because only taken up via receptor mediated endocytosis (1)

204
Q

Which layer of the gastrointestinal tract contains Auerbach’s (myenteric) plexus?

Muscularis externa
Submucosa
Serosa
Mucosa

A

Which layer of the gastrointestinal tract contains Auerbach’s (myenteric) plexus?

Muscularis externa
Submucosa
Serosa
​Mucosa

205
Q

zollinger-ellison syndrome (ZES) causes innappropriate secretions from which cell?

a) parietal cells
b) G cells
c) chief cells
d) ECL likes
e) mucous secreting cells

A

zollinger-ellison syndrome (ZES) causes innappropriate secretions from which cell?

a) parietal cells
* *b) G cells - causes increased gastrin productio n**
c) chief cells
d) ECL likes
e) mucous secreting cells

206
Q

submanidublar gland recieves parasympathetic innervation from which nerve?

a) glossopharnygeal
b) trigeminal
c) vagus nerve
d) hypoglossal
e) facial nerve

A

submanidublar gland recieves parasympathetic innervation from which nerve?

a) glossopharnygeal
b) trigeminal
c) vagus nerve
d) hypoglossal
* *e) facial nerve**

207
Q

Which one of the following actions is directly caused by secretin?

Vasoconstriction of vascular smooth muscle

Decreases pepsinogen secretion

Stimulates parietal cell maturation

Increases pancreatic bicarbonate secretion

Increases pancreatic secretions rich in digestive enzymes

Stimulates release of insulin-like growth factors

A

Which one of the following actions is directly caused by secretin?

Vasoconstriction of vascular smooth muscle

Decreases pepsinogen secretion

Stimulates parietal cell maturation

Increases pancreatic bicarbonate secretion

Increases pancreatic secretions rich in digestive enzymes

Stimulates release of insulin-like growth factors

208
Q

parotid gland recieves parasympathetic innervation from which nerve?

a) glossopharnygeal
b) trigeminal
c) vagus nerve
d) hypoglossal
e) facial nerve

A

parotid gland recieves parasympathetic innervation from which nerve?

  • *a) glossopharnygeal**
    b) trigeminal
    c) vagus nerve
    d) hypoglossal
    e) facial nerve
209
Q

hypocalcemia causes the release of which hormone to regulate Ca2+ levels?

  • TSH
  • PTH
  • FH
  • GHRH
  • ADH
A

hypocalcemia causes the release of which hormone to regulate Ca2+ levels?

  • TSH
  • *- PTH**
  • FH
  • GHRH
  • ADH
210
Q

With respect to the phosphorylation of glucose, which one of the following is most associated with glucokinase?

High affinity for glucose (low Km)

Induced by insulin

Low capacity (low Vmax)

Not affected by insulin

When glucose levels are low helps sequester glucose in the tissues

Located in most tissues

A

With respect to the phosphorylation of glucose, which one of the following is most associated with glucokinase?

High affinity for glucose (low Km)

Induced by insulin

Low capacity (low Vmax)

Not affected by insulin

When glucose levels are low helps sequester glucose in the tissues

Located in most tissues

211
Q

Where is the majority of CCK secreted from?

P/D1 cells lining the fundus of the stomach and epsilon cells of the pancreas

S cells in upper small intestine

Sertoli cells

D cells in the pancreas & stomach

I cells in upper small intestine

Zona glomerulosa of adrenal cortex

A

Where is the majority of CCK secreted from?

P/D1 cells lining the fundus of the stomach and epsilon cells of the pancreas

S cells in upper small intestine

Sertoli cells

D cells in the pancreas & stomach

I cells in upper small intestine

Zona glomerulosa of adrenal cortex

212
Q

A 56-year-old man has chronic pancreatitis and is struggling to absorb fat-soluble components of his diet.

Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin which has a role as an anti-oxidant during processes such as immune function and protection of cell membranes?

Vit B
Vit E
Vit K
Vit C
Vit B

A

A 56-year-old man has chronic pancreatitis and is struggling to absorb fat-soluble components of his diet.

Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin which has a role as an anti-oxidant during processes such as immune function and protection of cell membranes?

Vit B
Vit E
Vit K
Vit C
Vit B

213
Q

Which one of the peritoneal ligaments contains the short gastric vessels?

Splenorenal ligament

Gastrosplenic ligament

Hepatoduodenal ligament

Hepatogastric ligament

Falciform ligament

Gastrocolic ligament

A

Which one of the peritoneal ligaments contains the short gastric vessels?

Splenorenal ligament

Gastrosplenic ligament

Hepatoduodenal ligament

Hepatogastric ligament

Falciform ligament

Gastrocolic ligament

214
Q

which vitamin deficiency is associated with pellegra?

  • vit. A
  • vit B1
  • vit. B2
  • vit. B3
  • vit. B4
A

which vitamin deficiency is associated with pellegra?

  • vit. A
  • vit B1
  • vit. B2
  • *- vit. B3**
  • vit. B4
215
Q

excess LDLs in the blood stream can cause production of which type of cells? (1)

A

foam cells (where macrophages engulf LDL and become foam cells) stick to BV walls and make atheroma plaque

216
Q

which vitamin is used in the as a cofactor in the Krebs Cycle and glycolysis?

  • vitamin B1
  • vitamin B2
  • vitamin B3
  • vitamin B6
  • vitamin B12
A

which vitamin is used in the as a cofactor in the Krebs Cycle and glycolysis?

- vitamin B1
- vitamin B2
- vitamin B3
- vitamin B6
​- vitamin B12

217
Q

where are CD4 T cells usually found in the gut?

  • epithelium
  • submucosa
  • lamina propria
  • muscularis mucosa
A

where are CD4 T cells usually found in the gut?

  • epithelium
  • submucosa
  • *- lamina propria**
  • muscularis mucosa
218
Q

which apoprotein do chylomicrons have on them:

a) B100
b) B49
c) B101
d) B48
e) B102

A

which apoprotein do chylomicrons have on them:

a) B100
b) B49
c) B101
* *d) B48**
e) B102

219
Q

Which one of the following actions is directly caused by VIP?

Increases proximal tubule Na+/H+ activity

Increases gallbladder contraction

Increases pancreatic bicarbonate secretion

Decreases pancreatic secretions

Increases secretion of water from pancreas and intestines

Up-regulates alpha-1 receptors on arterioles

A

Which one of the following actions is directly caused by VIP?

Increases proximal tubule Na+/H+ activity

Increases gallbladder contraction

Increases pancreatic bicarbonate secretion

Decreases pancreatic secretions

Increases secretion of water from pancreas and intestines

Up-regulates alpha-1 receptors on arterioles

220
Q

From which of the following does the epigastric artery originate?

Internal iliac artery
External iliac artery
Superior vesical artery
Inferior vesical artery
None of the above

A

From which of the following does the epigastric artery originate?

Internal iliac artery
External iliac artery
Superior vesical artery
Inferior vesical artery
None of the above

221
Q

The citric acid cycle is responsible for the major share of energy release and supply during aerobic respiration.

What is the rate limiting enzyme of the citric acid cycle?

PFK1
Glycogen synthase
Glyocgen phosphorylase
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
Isocitrate dehydrogenase

A

The citric acid cycle is responsible for the major share of energy release and supply during aerobic respiration.

What is the rate limiting enzyme of the citric acid cycle?

PFK1
Glycogen synthase
Glyocgen phosphorylase
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
​Isocitrate dehydrogenase

222
Q

Which one of the following is not an effect of cholecystokinin?

It causes gallbladder contraction
It increases the rate of gastric emptying
It relaxes the sphincter of oddi
It stimulates the pancreatic acinar cells
It has a trophoc effect on pancreatic acinar cells

A

Which one of the following is not an effect of cholecystokinin?

It causes gallbladder contraction
It increases the rate of gastric emptying
It relaxes the sphincter of oddi
It stimulates the pancreatic acinar cells
​It has a trophoc effect on pancreatic acinar cells

223
Q

The first antibodies to be produced in a humoral immune response are always:

a) IgG
b) IgM
c) IgA
d) IgE
e) IgD

A

The first antibodies to be produced in a humoral immune response are always:

a) IgG
* *b) IgM**
c) IgA
d) IgE
e) IgD

The first antibodies to be produced in a humoral immune response are always IgM, because IgM can be expressed without isotype switching (see Figs 4.20 and 9.8). These early IgM antibodies are produced before B cells have undergone somatic hypermutation and therefore tend to be of low affinity.

224
Q

which lipoprotein carries fats from the liver to peripheral cells?

chylomicron
very low density lipo
intermediate DL
LDL
HDL

A

which lipoprotein carries fats from the liver to peripheral cells?

chylomicron
very low density lipo
intermediate DL
LDL
HDL

225
Q

Which cell secretes pepsinogen?

a. Mast cell
b. Columnar cell
c. Parietal cell
d. Chief cell
e. Goblet cell

A

Which cell secretes pepsinogen?

a. Mast cell
b. Columnar cell
c. Parietal cell

d.Chief cell

e.Goblet cell

226
Q

Name a function for Vitamin

A (1)

D (1)

E (1)

K (1)

A

A: component of visual pigments; anitoxidnat; prevents damage to lipids of cell surface membranes(1)

D: Aids in the use of calcium and phosphorus (1)

E: antioxidant 1)

K; part of blood clotting cascade (1)

227
Q

which vitamin is used for closure of neural tube during development and if deficient, causes spina bifida:

zinc
copper
B9
B12
selenium

A

which vitamin is used for closure of neural tube during development and if deficient, causes spina bifida:

zinc
copper
B9 - folate !!
B12
​selenium

228
Q

what is labelled A? [1]

what change in stucture occurs here? [1]

A

pectinate line [1]

simple columnar –> stratified squamous nonk epithelium

229
Q

chylomicrons pick up which two apoproteins from HDL?

a) ApoCII and ApoE
b) ApoCI and ApoB100
c) ApoCII and ApoB100
d) ApoC and ApoB48
e) ApoB48 and ApoB100

A

chylomicrons pick up which two apoproteins from HDL?

  • *a) ApoCII and ApoE**
    b) ApoCI and ApoB100
    c) ApoCII and ApoB100
    d) ApoC and ApoB48
    e) ApoB48 and ApoB100
230
Q

Prolactin is secreted from which part of the body?

Anterior pituitary
Hypothalamus
Parathyroid gland
Adrenal gland
Posterior pituitary

A

Prolactin is secreted from which part of the body?

Anterior pituitary
Hypothalamus
Parathyroid gland
Adrenal gland
Posterior pituitary

231
Q

which of the following is autosomal dominant?

a) PKU
b) medium chain actly coenzyme dehydrogenase (MCAD)
c) von Gierkes disease
d) Maple Syrup Urine Disease
e) familal hypercholesterolemia

A

which of the following is autosomal dominant?

a) PKU
b) medium chain actly coenzyme dehydrogenase (MCAD)
c) von Gierkes disease
d) Maple Syrup Urine Disease
* *e) familal hypercholesterolemia**

232
Q

Among all the masticatory muscles, X is the only one with horizontally arranged fibers.

X =?

a) medial pterygoid
b) lateral pterygoid
c) masseter
d) temporalis

A

Among all the masticatory muscles, X is the only one with horizontally arranged fibers.

X =?

a) medial pterygoid
b) lateral pterygoid
c) masseter
​d) temporalis

233
Q
A
234
Q

NSAIDS block which receptor on parietal cells?

a) M3
b) CCK2
c) H2
d) somatostatin receptor
e) prostaglandin receptor

A

NSAIDS block which receptor on parietal cells?

a) M3
b) CCK2
c) H2
d) somatostatin receptor
* *e) prostaglandin receptor - causes decresease in mucous and bicarbonate production :(**

235
Q

Julie, a 54-year-old female, presents to her GP with a lump in her groin. It is not associated with pain but becomes more prominent when she coughs.

On examination, the GP notes the lump is inferior and lateral to the pubic tubercle, which aids his diagnosis of a femoral hernia. Therefore part of Julie’s bowel had entered the femoral canal which causes a bulge into the femoral triangle, an anatomical region in the upper thigh.

Laterally to medially, what contents can be found in this anatomical region?

Femoral nerve, femoral artery, femoral vein, empty space, lymphatics
Femoral artery, femoral vein, femoral nerve, empty space, lymphatics
Femoral nerve, femoral vein, femoral artery, empty space, lymphatics
Lymphatics, empty space, femoral nerve, femoral artery, femoral vein
Lymphatics, empty space, femoral vein, femoral artery, femoral nerve

A

Julie, a 54-year-old female, presents to her GP with a lump in her groin. It is not associated with pain but becomes more prominent when she coughs.

On examination, the GP notes the lump is inferior and lateral to the pubic tubercle, which aids his diagnosis of a femoral hernia. Therefore part of Julie’s bowel had entered the femoral canal which causes a bulge into the femoral triangle, an anatomical region in the upper thigh.

Laterally to medially, what contents can be found in this anatomical region?

Femoral nerve, femoral artery, femoral vein, empty space, lymphatics
Femoral artery, femoral vein, femoral nerve, empty space, lymphatics
Femoral nerve, femoral vein, femoral artery, empty space, lymphatics
Lymphatics, empty space, femoral nerve, femoral artery, femoral vein
Lymphatics, empty space, femoral vein, femoral artery, femoral nerve

236
Q

Why is Nuria asked to go on a low protein diet (2 marks)

A

Phenylalanine is an amino acid and is normally present in protein based foods, such having too much protein could lead to a build-up of phenylalanine. In this case as Nuria is pregnant, if she has excess phenylalanine can affect the development of the foetus.

237
Q

which micronutrient helps to improve childrens learning ability and cognitive development

  • vitamin A
  • vitamin B12
  • zinc
  • iron
  • vitamin C
A

which micronutrient helps to improve childrens learning ability and cognitive development

  • vitamin A
  • vitamin B12
  • zinc
  • *- iron: Fe helps Hb to carry oxygen to neurons in brain**
  • vitamin C
238
Q

Which layer of the gastrointestinal tract contains the muscularis mucosae?

Submucosa

Mucosa

Serosa

Muscularis externa

A

Which layer of the gastrointestinal tract contains the muscularis mucosae?

Submucosa

Mucosa

Serosa

Muscularis externa

239
Q

which part of the GI tract is associated with having lots of lacteals? [1]

A

jejunum

240
Q

What is measured to obtain renal plasma flow?

Creatinine
Para-amino hippuric acid (PAH)
Inulin
Glucose
Protein

A

What is measured to obtain renal plasma flow?

Creatinine
Para-amino hippuric acid (PAH)
Inulin
Glucose
​Protein

241
Q

where do you find paneth cells in the colon? [1]

A

paneth cells are found in right side of colon only

242
Q

B3 (niacin) is important in producing which two important molecules? [2]
which disease does a deficiency in B3 cause?

A

NAD & NADP
pellegra

243
Q

The left colic artery supplies the upper and lower parts of the descending colon.

What artery does the left colic artery branch off?

SMA
Inferior gluteal artery
IMA
Inferior rectal artery
Inferior epigatric artery

A

The left colic artery supplies the upper and lower parts of the descending colon.

What artery does the left colic artery branch off?

SMA
Inferior gluteal artery
IMA
Inferior rectal artery
​Inferior epigatric artery

244
Q

Glomerular filtration rate:

Is typically around 0.20

Can be estimated using creatinine clearance

Glomerular filtration rate / renal blood flow

Plasmacreatinine / urinarycreatinine

UPAH * V / PPAH

Urine flow rate * urine concentration

A

Glomerular filtration rate:

Is typically around 0.20

Can be estimated using creatinine clearance

Glomerular filtration rate / renal blood flow

Plasmacreatinine / urinarycreatinine

UPAH * V / PPAH

Urine flow rate * urine concentration

245
Q

during glucose metabolism, the if there is a little cAMP levels, which of the following occurs?

  • glucagon and adrenaline activated
  • insulin is activated
  • glucagon an adrenaline inhibited
A

during glucose metabolism, the if there is a little cAMP levels, which of the following occurs?

  • glucagon and adrenaline activated
  • insulin is activated
  • *- glucagon an adrenaline inhibited**
  • *less glucose is released**
246
Q

A 28-year-old man with a long-term history of alcohol is rushed to the emergency department following a prolonged seizure. His work-up fails to reveal any sinister causes of seizures. He has no history of epilepsy. The consultant attending to him believes that the seizure may be caused by a vitamin deficiency secondary to his chronic alcohol intake.

Which one of the following vitamin deficiency may have caused the seizure?

Vitamin B7
Vitamin B2
Vitamin B3
Vitamin B5
Vitamin B6

A

A 28-year-old man with a long-term history of alcohol is rushed to the emergency department following a prolonged seizure. His work-up fails to reveal any sinister causes of seizures. He has no history of epilepsy. The consultant attending to him believes that the seizure may be caused by a vitamin deficiency secondary to his chronic alcohol intake.

Which one of the following vitamin deficiency may have caused the seizure?

Vitamin B7
Vitamin B2
Vitamin B3
Vitamin B5
Vitamin B6 - Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) is required for the synthesis of GABA

247
Q
A
248
Q

gastrin is secreted by G cells. which receptor does it bind to on parietal cells?

a) M3
b) CCK2
c) H2
d) somatostatin receptor
e) prostaglandin receptor

A

gastrin is secreted by G cells. which receptor does it bind to on parietal cells?

a) M3
* *b) CCK2**
c) H2
d) somatostatin receptor
e) prostaglandin receptor

249
Q

interstilial cells of cajal are associated with a major influx of what?

a) Na+
b) K+
c) Ca2+
d) ACh

A

interstilial cells of cajal are associated with a major influx of what?

a) Na+
b) K+
* *c) Ca2+**
d) ACh

into SMC - contraction occurs (also Na)

250
Q

Approximately 95% of people with celiac disease carry one particular MHC molecule. What is this?

A

HLA-DQ2

251
Q

which nerve innervates the muscle that elevates the pharnyx during swallowing ?

a) trigeminal nerve
b) facial nerve
c) glossopharnyngeal
d) vagus nerve
e) hypoglossal

A

which nerve innervates the muscle that elevates the pharnyx during swallowing ?

a) trigeminal nerve
b) facial nerve
* *c) glossopharnyngeal - stylopharnygeus muscle**
d) vagus nerve
e) hypoglossal

252
Q

What are the 3 divisions of the small intestine, and name a molecule that is commonly absorbed here? [3]

A
  • Duodenum: iron
  • Jejunum: main site of absorption
  • Ileum: terminal ileum site of vitamin B12 absorption
253
Q
A
254
Q

This patient has a congenital absence of a muscle. Which action at the shoulder would be significantly weakened?

a) flexion
b) extension
c) abduction
d) external rotation

A

This patient has a congenital absence of a muscle. Which action at the shoulder would be significantly weakened?

  • *a) flexion**
    b) extension
    c) abduction
    d) external rotation
255
Q

blunt trauma to peritoneum can be tear away from the which artery and cause internal bleeding?

  • left gastric artery
  • right gastric artery
  • splenic artery
  • common hepatic artery
  • gastroduodenal artery
A

blunt trauma to peritoneum can be tear away from the which artery and cause internal bleeding?

  • left gastric artery
  • right gastric artery
  • *- splenic artery - cuz spleen is intraperitoneal so moves lots**
  • common hepatic artery
  • gastroduodenal artery
256
Q

A 45-year-old woman was referred to gastroenterology to investigate unresolved dyspepsia. She has been receiving NSAID treatment to manage a flare-up of rheumatoid arthritis. Endoscopy reveals the presence of a gastric ulcer.
What has contributed to the endoscopy findings?

A
257
Q

what is the correct label for this strucutre?

a) rotundudm foramen
b) manibular foramen
c) mental foramen
d) ovale foramen
e) hypoglossal foramen

A

what is the correct label for this strucutre?

a) rotundudm foramen
b) manibular foramen
* *c) mental foramen**
d) ovale foramen
e) hypoglossal foramen

258
Q

An 8-year-old girl is brought to the physician due to developmental delay and seizure attacks since the age of 6. She presented with abnormal behaviour, ataxia, unusual laughing, intellectual disability, and mandibular prognathism. Genomic testing revealed a deletion in the 15q11-q13 chromosome. She was diagnosed with Angelman syndrome (AS). AS originates from the dysfunctional expression of the ubiquitin-protein ligase E3A gene on chromosome 15.

Which of the following cellular activities is most likely to be impaired?

Aerobic respiration
Catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and AAs
Folding of new proteins
Proteasomal degradation of proteins
Translation of RNA into proteins

A

An 8-year-old girl is brought to the physician due to developmental delay and seizure attacks since the age of 6. She presented with abnormal behaviour, ataxia, unusual laughing, intellectual disability, and mandibular prognathism. Genomic testing revealed a deletion in the 15q11-q13 chromosome. She was diagnosed with Angelman syndrome (AS). AS originates from the dysfunctional expression of the ubiquitin-protein ligase E3A gene on chromosome 15.

Which of the following cellular activities is most likely to be impaired?

Aerobic respiration
Catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and AAs
Folding of new proteins
Proteasomal degradation of proteins - Ubiquitin tagging destines proteins to proteasome for degradation
Translation of RNA into proteins

259
Q

Which one of the peritoneal ligaments contains the tail of the pancreas?

Splenorenal ligament

Gastrosplenic ligament

Hepatoduodenal ligament

Hepatogastric ligament

Gastrocolic ligament

Falciform ligament

A

Which one of the peritoneal ligaments contains the tail of the pancreas?

Splenorenal ligament

Gastrosplenic ligament

Hepatoduodenal ligament

Hepatogastric ligament

Gastrocolic ligament

Falciform ligament

260
Q

Which one of the following actions is directly caused by glucagon?

Vasoconstriction of vascular smooth muscle

Decreases osteoclastic activity

Inhibits insulin secretion

Decreases plasma phosphate

Increases glycogenolysis

Decreases renal reabsorption of phosphate

A

Which one of the following actions is directly caused by glucagon?

Vasoconstriction of vascular smooth muscle

Decreases osteoclastic activity

Inhibits insulin secretion

Decreases plasma phosphate

Increases glycogenolysis

Decreases renal reabsorption of phosphate

261
Q

which of the following vitamins are antioxidants?

  • vitamin A & C
  • vitamin C only
  • vitamin A & E
  • vitamin A & C
  • vitamin A, C & E
A

which of the following vitamins are antioxidants?

  • vitamin A & C
  • vitamin C only
  • vitamin A & E
  • vitamin A & C
  • *- vitamin A, C & E**
262
Q
A
263
Q

A 12-year-old boy is being investigated for coeliac disease and has recently had biopsies of both the small and large intestinal linings.

In a normal biopsy, which of the following can be found in the lining of the small intestine but not in that of the large intestine?

Muscularis mucosae
Myenteric nerve plexus
Villi
Columnar epithelium
Goblet cells

A

A 12-year-old boy is being investigated for coeliac disease and has recently had biopsies of both the small and large intestinal linings.

In a normal biopsy, which of the following can be found in the lining of the small intestine but not in that of the large intestine?

Muscularis mucosae
Myenteric nerve plexus
Villi
Columnar epithelium
​Goblet cells

264
Q

the dorsal mesogastrium forms connections between which structures? [2]

A

dorsal mesogastrium forms connections between:

stomach & spleen [1]
spleen and posterior ab. wall [1]

265
Q

which 3 regulatory systems regulate body fluid? [3]

A

hormonal (RAAS)
CNS (osmorecptors)
kindeys

266
Q

name two source of endogenous free radicals [2]

A

mitochondria [1]
ER [1]
peroxisome [1]

267
Q

An 18-year-old man is referred to the acute medical team with nausea and vomiting. He is a type 1 diabetic and has recently been unwell. Blood tests confirm diabetic ketoacidosis, and he is started on an insulin infusion.

What type of receptor does this treatment bind to?

Beta-1 receptors
GPRC
Guanylate cylase receptors
Ligand-gated ion channel receptors
Tyrosine kinase receptors

A

An 18-year-old man is referred to the acute medical team with nausea and vomiting. He is a type 1 diabetic and has recently been unwell. Blood tests confirm diabetic ketoacidosis, and he is started on an insulin infusion.

What type of receptor does this treatment bind to?

Beta-1 receptors
GPRC
Guanylate cylase receptors
Ligand-gated ion channel receptors
Tyrosine kinase receptors

268
Q

Which of the following is not a catabolic pathway?

Glycolysis

TCA cycle

Glycogenolysis

Gluconeogenesis

Glycogenesis

A

Which of the following is not a catabolic pathway?

Glycolysis

TCA cycle

Glycogenolysis

Gluconeogenesis

Glycogenesis

Anabolic pathways build complex molecules from simpler ones and typically need an input of energy.

Catabolic pathways involve the degradation (or breakdown) of complex molecules into simpler ones. Molecular energy stored in the bonds of complex molecules is released in catabolic pathways and harvested in such a way that it can be used to produce ATP.

269
Q

What is the cause of PKU, its genetic inheritance and how would you describe the condition to a patient (3 marks)

A

PKU is a condition which is caused a mutation on the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase (or insufficiency of tetrahydrobiopterin) [1]

therefore prevents conversion of phenylalanine into tyrosine. [1]

The condition is normally autosomal recessive, which means that two individuals need to be carriers in order to for their offspring to have PKU. [1]

270
Q

what type of cells line stomach?

a. Squamous cell
b. Pseudostratified cell
c. Columnar cell
d. Cuboidal call

A

what type of cells line stomach?

a. Squamous cell
b. Pseudostratified cell

c.Columnar cell - simple columnar cells

d.Cuboidal call

271
Q

which part of the manible serves as the muscle attachment point and moves the mandible?

a) coronoid process
b) neck
c) head
d) ramus
e) body

A

which part of the manible serves as the muscle attachment point and moves the mandible?

  • *a) coronoid process**
    b) neck
    c) head
    d) ramus
    e) body
272
Q

What is the rate controlling step of glycolysis? What factors decrease the activity? [1] increase the activity [1] of this step? [1]

A

Fructose-6-phosphate to Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate via the enzyme Phosphofructokinase-1.

Is regulated by:

  1. ATP:AMP ratio
  2. Citrate (decreases activity)
  3. Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate (increased activity)
273
Q

A 56-year-old lady is due to undergo a left hemicolectomy for carcinoma of the splenic flexure. The surgeons decide to perform a high ligation of the inferior mesenteric vein. Into which of the following does this structure usually drain

Portal vein
IVC
Left renal vein
Left iliac vein
Splenic vein

A

A 56-year-old lady is due to undergo a left hemicolectomy for carcinoma of the splenic flexure. The surgeons decide to perform a high ligation of the inferior mesenteric vein. Into which of the following does this structure usually drain

Portal vein
IVC
Left renal vein
Left iliac vein
Splenic vein

274
Q

which of the following is found in the stomach body?

a) parietal and chief cells
b) parietal and D cells & chief cells
c) mucous cells, D cells & chief cells
d) mucous cells and D cells & G cells
e) parietal cells, G cells & chief cells

A

which of the following is found in the stomach body?

a) parietal and chief cells
* *b) parietal and D cells & chief cells**
c) mucous cells, D cells & chief cells
d) mucous cells and D cells & G cells
e) parietal cells, G cells & chief cells

275
Q

which antibody activates basophils and mast cells to make antimicrobrial factors

a) IgG
b) IgM
c) IgA
d) IgE
e) IgD

A

which antibody activates basophils and mast cells to make antimicrobrial factors
​a) IgG
b) IgM
c) IgA
d) IgE
e) IgD

276
Q

during ox. phosph H+ are pumped across the inner mitochondrial matrix at which complexes?

  • complexes 1, 2 & 3
  • complexes 1, 2 & 4
  • complexes 1, 3, & 4
  • complexes 2, 3 & 4
A

during ox. phosph H+ are pumped across the inner mitochondrial matrix at which complexes?

  • complexes 1, 2 & 3
  • complexes 1, 2 & 4
  • *- complexes 1, 3, & 4**
  • complexes 2, 3 & 4
277
Q
A
278
Q

what two things does HIF-1 cause to occur within cell [2]

A

expression of VEGF - induces angiogenesis
reduces expression of mitochondria

279
Q

Where in the body is most angiotensin-converting-enzyme located?

Adrenal cortex
Liver
Lungs
Kidneyss
Pancreas

A

Where in the body is most angiotensin-converting-enzyme located?

Adrenal cortex
Liver
Lungs
Kidneyss
Pancreas

280
Q

this indicates weakenss of which muscle?

a) serratus anterior
b) deltoid
c) trapezuis
d) latissimus dorsi

A

this indicates weakenss of which muscle?

a) serratus anterior
b) deltoid
c) trapezuis
​d) latissimus dorsi

281
Q

insulin is present as what form when it is not used / stored?

a) monomer
b) dimer
c) pentameter
d) hexamer

A

insulin is present as what form when it is not used / stored?

a) monomer
b) dimer
c) pentameter
* *d) hexamer**

when active: monomer

282
Q
A
283
Q

what do u find in the centre of villi? [4]

A

Each villus has a central core composed of:
one artery
one vein,

a strand of muscle
centrally located lymphatic capillary (lacteal)

284
Q

Which one of the following types of epithelium lines the lumenal surface of the normal oesophagus?

Non keratinsed stratified squamous epithelium
Ciliated columnar epithelium
Keratinsed stratified squamous epithelium
Non ciliated columnar epithelium
None of the above

A

Which one of the following types of epithelium lines the lumenal surface of the normal oesophagus?

Non keratinsed stratified squamous epithelium
Ciliated columnar epithelium
Keratinsed stratified squamous epithelium
Non ciliated columnar epithelium
​None of the above

285
Q

Explain why the pH of a sprinter will be lower than that of the marathon runner after a race, with reference to the Cori cycle. [5]

A
  1. The sprinter uses anaerobic respiration to produce the required amount of ATP for his race.
  2. This involves the break down of glucose to pyruvate to produce a net of 2 ATP.
  3. This is converted into lactic acid to prevent entry into the TCA cycle, which ultimately requires oxygen.
  4. The lactic acid is sent to the liver via the blood, and hence, as an acid, lowers the pH.
  5. The lactic acid is converted back into glucose, at the cost of 6 ATP and is delivered back to the muscle.
286
Q

which molecule coming into B langerhan cells in pancreas causes the secretion of insulin?

a) Na+
b) K+
c) ACh
d) Ca2+
e) Cl-

A

which molecule coming into B langerhan cells in pancreas causes the secretion of insulin?

a) Na+
b) K+
c) ACh
d) Ca2+
​e) Cl-

287
Q

which condition renders the body in a positive nitrogen balance?

endurance exercise

starvation

a car accident

pregnancy

A

which condition renders the body in a positive nitrogen balance?

endurance exercise

starvation

a car accident

pregnancy

288
Q

the liver excretes excess cholesterol esters in which form? (1)

A

bile

289
Q

Which one of the following structures will lie posterior to the epiploic foramen ?

hepatic artery
cystic duct
hepatic portal vein
greater omentum
SMA
IVC

A

Which one of the following structures will lie posterior to the epiploic foramen at this level?

hepatic artery
cystic duct
hepatic portal vein
greater omentum
SMA
IVC

The epiploic foramen has the following boundaries:
Anteriorly (in the free edge of the lesser omentum): Bile duct to the right, portal vein behind and hepatic artery to the left.
PosteriorlyInferior vena cava
Inferiorly1st part of the duodenum
SuperiorlyCaudate process of the liver

290
Q

which of the following is found in the stomach antrum?

a) D cells and G cells
b) G cells and mucous cells
c) mucous cells, D cells & chief cells
d) mucous cells and D cells & G cells
e) D cells & G cells & chief cells

A

which of the following is found in the stomach antrum?

a) D cells and G cells
b) G cells and mucous cells
c) mucous cells, D cells & chief cells
* *d) mucous cells and D cells & G cells**
e) D cells & G cells & chief cells

291
Q

which two hormones cause glycogen breakdown at the muscles?

  • insulin and adrenaline
  • adrenaline and glucagon
  • adrenaline and calcium
  • calcium and glucagon
  • glucagon and insulin
A

which two hormones cause glycogen breakdown at the muscles?

  • insulin and adrenaline
  • adrenaline and glucagon
  • *- adrenaline and calcium**
  • calcium and glucagon
  • glucagon and insulin

glucagon only works in liver !!

292
Q

muscles of mastication are supplied by which nerve?

a) hypoglossal
b) glossopharyngeal
c) facial nerve
d) trigeminal nerve
e) vagus nerve

A

muscles of mastication are supplied by which nerve?

a) hypoglossal
b) glossopharyngeal
c) facial nerve
* *d) trigeminal nerve - V3 mandibular branch**
e) vagus nerve

293
Q

where in GI tract most likely to find payers patches?

a) stomach
b) duodenum
c) jejunum
d) ileum
e) colon

A

where in GI tract most likely to find payers patches?

a) stomach
b) duodenum
c) jejunum
* *d) ileum**
e) colon

294
Q

what divides the peritoneum into the supracolic and infracolic regions? [1]

A

the transverse mesocolon

295
Q

which of the following would a clinical deficiency cause peripheral neuropathy?

vitamin A

vitamin D

vitamin E

vitamin K

A

which of the following would a clinical deficiency cause peripheral neuropathy?

vitamin A

vitamin D

vitamin E

vitamin K

296
Q

which nerve is most as risk from this fracture

a) median
b) ulnar
c) radius
d) axillary

A

which nerve is most as risk from this fracture

  • *​a) median**
    b) ulnar
    c) radius
    d) axillary
297
Q

Which one of the following actions is directly caused by angiotensin II?

Promotes water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the kidneys by the insertion of aquaporin-2 channels

Increases Na+ reabsorption in the renal distal tubule

Increases gut absorption of calcium

Increases gluconeogenesis

Vasoconstriction of vascular smooth muscle

Converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I

A

Which one of the following actions is directly caused by angiotensin II?

Promotes water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the kidneys by the insertion of aquaporin-2 channels

Increases Na+ reabsorption in the renal distal tubule

Increases gut absorption of calcium

Increases gluconeogenesis

Vasoconstriction of vascular smooth muscle

Converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I

298
Q

the adaptive reflex in the proximal part of the stomach causes what to be released?

a) Ach
b) CCK
c) NO
d) Ca2+
e) cAMP

A

the adaptive reflex in the proximal part of the stomach causes what to be released?

a) Ach
b) CCK
* *c) NO - causes relaxation of the stomach via ENS**
d) Ca2+
e) cAMP

299
Q

A 73-year-old lady is admitted for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. During her pre-operative assessment it is noted that she is receiving furosemide for the treatment of hypertension. Where is the site of action of this diuretic?

PCT
Descenidng loop of Henle
Ascending loop of Henle
DCT
CD

A

A 73-year-old lady is admitted for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. During her pre-operative assessment it is noted that she is receiving furosemide for the treatment of hypertension. Where is the site of action of this diuretic?

PCT
Descending loop of Henle
Ascending loop of Henle
DCT
​CD

300
Q

MoA of urea cycle:

a) what is the rate determining step?
b) what are the two amino groups required? for it
c) what is the key regulating enzyme?

A

Rate controlling step:

o HCO3- + NH4+ –> carbamoyl phosphate (via enzyme carbamoyl phosphate synthase 1)
o Requires 2 ATP.
o Controlled allosterically by glutamate metabolite: N-acetyl glutamate - this is formed in an excess of glutamate, so drives urea cycle.

b) the two amino groups required from: aspartate (1) & ammonia (1)

essentially is a shuttle reaction of NH4 into from aspartate and ammonia into urea

301
Q

hard palatine is made of which two bones?

a) maxilla and palatine
b) vomer and ethmoid
c) palatine and ethmoid
d) vomer and palatine
e) palatine and mandible

A

hard palatine is made of which two bones?

  • *a) maxilla and palatine**
    b) vomer and ethmoid
    c) palatine and ethmoid
    d) vomer and palatine
    e) palatine and mandible
302
Q

which of the following is not a primary retroperitoneal structure?

  • aorta
  • kidneys
  • pancreas
  • ureter
  • anal canal
A

which of the following is not a primary retroperitoneal structure?

  • aorta
  • kidneys
  • *- pancreas**
  • ureter
  • anal canal
303
Q

which apoprotein, added by HDL to a chylomicron, means the chylomicron remnant can be taken up by the liver to deliver FA & cholesterol?

  • Apo B48
  • Apo B100
  • Apo C2
  • Apo E
  • Apo B10
A

which apoprotein, added by HDL to a chylomicron, means the chylomicron remnant can be taken up by the liver to deliver FA & cholesterol?

  • Apo B48
  • Apo B100
  • Apo C2
  • *- Apo E**
  • Apo B10
304
Q

Which one of the following inhibits the secretion of insulin?

Adrenaline
Lipids
Gastrin
Arginine
Vagal cholinergic activty

A

Which one of the following inhibits the secretion of insulin?

Adrenaline
Lipids
Gastrin
Arginine
Vagal cholinergic activty

305
Q

A 54-year-old woman is admitted with symptoms of a stroke, including difficulty speaking and vision changes. She was in a hair salon at the time and got a headache after having her hair washed.

Investigation shows a vertebral arterial dissection, which is thought to be caused by hyperextending her neck.

How does this blood vessel enter the cranial cavity?

carotid canal
foramen magnum
foramen ovale
foramane spinosum
jugular foramen

A

A 54-year-old woman is admitted with symptoms of a stroke, including difficulty speaking and vision changes. She was in a hair salon at the time and got a headache after having her hair washed.

Investigation shows a vertebral arterial dissection, which is thought to be caused by hyperextending her neck.

How does this blood vessel enter the cranial cavity?

carotid canal
foramen magnum
foramen ovale
foramane spinosum
jugular foramen

306
Q

what effect does high levels of circulating T3 have on TSH? [1]

A

T3 inhibits pituitary release of TSH

307
Q

which of the following is not a pancreatic enzyme?

  • Pepsin
  • Trypsinogen
  • Chymotripsinogen
  • Amylase
  • Lipase
A

which of the following is not a pancreatic enzyme?

  • *-Pepsin**
  • Trypsinogen
  • Chymotripsinogen
  • Amylase
  • Lipase
308
Q

A 24-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 7-month history of fatigue, abdominal cramping, and abdominal bloating. It is suspected that she may have coeliac disease and the following blood test result is obtained:

Tissue transglutaminase IgA+ve

Which of the following immune cells is responsible for the production of this result?

Eosinophils
Macrophages
Memory cells
Plasma cells
T cells

A

A 24-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 7-month history of fatigue, abdominal cramping, and abdominal bloating. It is suspected that she may have coeliac disease and the following blood test result is obtained:

Tissue transglutaminase IgA+ve

Which of the following immune cells is responsible for the production of this result?

Eosinophils
Macrophages
Memory cells
Plasma cells
​T cells

309
Q

adaptations of endocrine organs? (3)

A
  • high vasculature (bc secrete into blood)
  • cells in the gland are very close to capillaries
  • interact with own organ first e.g. in adrenal gland: hormones from cortex can see tissues in the medulla first -> to influence own response of organ
310
Q

which cells in the stomach secrete pepsinogen?

a) mucous secreting cells
b) chief cells
c) parietal cells
d) D cell
e) G cells

A

which cells in the stomach secrete pepsinogen?

a) mucous secreting cells
b) chief cells
c) parietal cells
d) D cell
​e) G cells

311
Q

once food has passed into the duodenum, which three hormones are secreted by duodenum to inhibit gastric acid secretion? [3]

A

CCK
GIP -
(gastric inhibitory protein)
Secretin

312
Q

The soft palatine is supplied by which nerve?

a) facial nerve
b) trigeminal nerve
c) glossopharyngeal nerve
d) hypoglossal nerve
e) vagus nerve

A

The soft palatine is supplied by which nerve?

a) facial nerve
b) trigeminal nerve
c) glossopharyngeal nerve
d) hypoglossal nerve
* *e) vagus nerve**

313
Q

which of the following have subnuclear granules?

  • goblet cells
  • paneth cells
  • enteroendocrine cells
  • m cells
A

which of the following have subnuclear granules?

  • goblet cells
  • paneth cells
  • *- enteroendocrine cells**
  • m cells
314
Q

Explain the gene expression changes in HIF1a and VEGF seen after altitude training. Why is the baseline EPO expression higher in a marathon runner compared to sprint trainer, with reference to the TCA cycle. [3]

A
  1. HIF1: Hypoxia induced factor down regulates mitochondria, which require oxygen to produce ATP via the TCA cycle and are therefore less useful in hypoxic conditions. Promotes VEGF expression.
  2. VEGF: Increased vasculature and therefore oxygen supply, countering hypoxic conditions.
  3. EPO increases the number erythrocytes produced, causing a higher haematocrit and therefore higher oxygen binding capacity. This is necessary for the marathon runner who primarily uses the TCA cycle to produce ATP in aerobic conditions, which requires large amounts of oxygen.
315
Q

•A patient is diagnosed with pernicious anemia. How will the vitamin B12 be administered to the patient and why? (2)

A

Intramuscular injections of hydroxocobalamin because patient cannot release IF.

316
Q

Explain how coeliac disease leads to diarrhoea?

A

•Chyme sits in intestinal lumen- has an osmotic effect and water is drawn out of epithelial cells into lumen à diarrhoea

317
Q

A 61-year-old man undergoes a carotid endarterectomy after carotid artery stenosis was found in investigations following a TIA. When he wakes he has a hoarse voice, which is still present and has not improved after 72 hours. He has also been refusing food. On examination, his gag reflex is not present. A CT head is performed which shows no abnormalities.

What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

  • Facial nerve injury
  • glossopharnygeal nerve injury
  • hypoglossal nerve injury
  • vagus nerve injury
  • stroke
A

A 61-year-old man undergoes a carotid endarterectomy after carotid artery stenosis was found in investigations following a TIA. When he wakes he has a hoarse voice, which is still present and has not improved after 72 hours. He has also been refusing food. On examination, his gag reflex is not present. A CT head is performed which shows no abnormalities.

What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

  • Facial nerve injury
  • glossopharnygeal nerve injury
  • hypoglossal nerve injury
    - vagus nerve injury
    ​- stroke

All innervation for speech originates from the vagus (X) nerve so injuries to the vagus will cause speech problems

318
Q

what are the origins for the following?

superior epigastric artery [1]
inferior epigastric artery [1]

A
  • *internal thoracic artery** –> superior epigastric artery
  • *external iliac artery** –> inferior epigastric artery
319
Q

A 13-year-old female presents with painful muscle cramp associated with early fatigue and ‘red urine’ with strenuous exercise. Blood glucose and lactate levels are normal. She is diagnosed with glycogen storage disease type V (McArdle disease).

Which of the following enzymes is deficient in this patient?

Glucose-6-phosphatase
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
debranching enzyme
glycogen phosphorylase
GLucocerebroisdae

A

A 13-year-old female presents with painful muscle cramp associated with early fatigue and ‘red urine’ with strenuous exercise. Blood glucose and lactate levels are normal. She is diagnosed with glycogen storage disease type V (McArdle disease).

Which of the following enzymes is deficient in this patient?

Glucose-6-phosphatase
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
debranching enzyme
glycogen phosphorylase aka myophosphatase
GLucocerebroisdae

320
Q

which is the active form of thyroid hormone?

  • T1
  • T2
  • T3
  • T4
  • T5
A

which is the active form of thyroid hormone?

  • T1
  • T2
    - T3
  • T4
    ​- T5
T4 = inactive
T3 = active
321
Q

A 35-year-old woman goes to her general practitioner complaining of epigastric pain which is worse after eating a takeaway or drinking alcohol. Upon further questioning, a nocturnal cough is also reported. A diagnosis of gastro-oesophageal reflux disorder (GORD) is made. Symptoms of this disorder are due to irritation caused by stomach acid (H+), released from cells under gastrin stimulation.

Which cell type is stimulated by this hormone?

G cells
Gastric chief cells
Gastric mucousal cells
Gastric parietal cells
Intinsic cells

A

A 35-year-old woman goes to her general practitioner complaining of epigastric pain which is worse after eating a takeaway or drinking alcohol. Upon further questioning, a nocturnal cough is also reported. A diagnosis of gastro-oesophageal reflux disorder (GORD) is made. Symptoms of this disorder are due to irritation caused by stomach acid (H+), released from cells under gastrin stimulation.

Which cell type is stimulated by this hormone?

G cells
Gastric chief cells
Gastric mucousal cells
Gastric parietal cells
​Intinsic cells

322
Q

With respect to the phosphorylation of glucose, which one of the following is most associated with glucokinase?

Not affected by insulin

Low capacity (low Vmax)

High affinity for glucose (low Km)

Inhibited by glucose-6-phosphate

When glucose levels are low helps sequester glucose in the tissues

When glucose levels are high helps store excessive glucose in the liver

A

With respect to the phosphorylation of glucose, which one of the following is most associated with glucokinase?

Not affected by insulin

Low capacity (low Vmax)

High affinity for glucose (low Km)

Inhibited by glucose-6-phosphate

When glucose levels are low helps sequester glucose in the tissues

When glucose levels are high helps store excessive glucose in the liver

323
Q

GLUT4 is located in which 3 locations? [3]

A

GLUT4 is located in which 3 locations? [3]

  • **adipose tissues
  • liver**
  • skeletal muscle
324
Q

the motor supply to all of muscles of the tongue except the pataoglossus are innervated by?

a) glossopharnygeal
b) trigeminal
c) vagus nerve
d) hypoglossal
e) facial nerve

A

the motor supply to all of muscles of the tongue except the pataoglossus are innervated by?

a) glossopharnygeal
b) trigeminal
c) vagus nerve
* *d) hypoglossal**
e) facial nerve

325
Q

where do u find paneth cells in the intestinal crpyts?

A
326
Q

cytochrome C transfers electrons to oxygen at which complex in oxidative phosphorlyation?

a) complex 1
b) complex 2
c) complex 3
d) complex 4

A

cytochrome C transfers electrons to oxygen at which complex in oxidative phosphorlyation?

a) complex 1
b) complex 2
c) complex 3
* *d) complex 4**

327
Q

the presence of which immune cell would signify significant oesphagitus?

macrophage
lymphocyte
plasma cell
neutrophil
eiosonophil

A

the presence of which immune cell would signify significant oesphagitus?

macrophage
lymphocyte
plasma cell
neutrophil
eiosonophil

328
Q

which cells cause depolarisation to initiate stomach muscle contraction? [1]

A

interstitial cells of cajal

329
Q

pepsinogen is activated by secretions from which cell?

mucous lining
stem
parietal
D cell
G cell

A

pepsinogen is activated by secretions from which cell?

mucous lining
stem
parietal: pepsinogen –> pepsin by HCl of parietal
D cell
G cell

330
Q

IgA anti-gliadin, anti-tTG and anti-endomysial* (EMAs) are produced by which immune cell? [1]

A

B cells

331
Q

which inflammatory cytokines are associated with CD?

IFN-γ
TNF-a
IL-1
IL-6

A

which inflammatory cytokines are associated with CD?

IFN-γ
TNF-a
IL-1
IL-6

332
Q

what is the effect of increased citrate levels on the rate determing step of glycolysis? [1]

what is the effect of increased ADP / AMP levels on the rate determing step of glycolysis? [1]

A

what is the effect of increased citrate levels on the rate determing step of glycolysis? [1]
inhibits

what is the effect of increased ADP / AMP levels on the rate determing step of glycolysis? [1]
increases it

333
Q
A
334
Q

which of the following is the linear alba?

A
B
C
D
E
F

A

which of the following is the linear alba?

A
B
C
D
E
​F

335
Q

which of the following is the inguinal ligmanet?

A
B
C
D
E
F

A

which of the following is the inguinal ligmanet?

A
B
C
D
E
F

336
Q

which of the following is the external oblique?

A
B
C
D
E
F

A

which of the following is the external oblique?

A
B
C
D
E
F

337
Q

which of the following is the rectus abdominus?

A
B
C
D
E
F

A

which of the following is the rectus abdominus?

A
B
C
D
E
F

338
Q

which of the following is the tendinous intersections?

A
B
C
D
E
F

A

which of the following is the tendinous intersections?

A
B
C
D
E
F

339
Q

which artery becomes the inferior epigastric artery?

internal iliac artery
SMA
IMA
external iliac artery
lower intercosal arteries

A

which artery becomes the inferior epigastric artery?

internal iliac artery
SMA
IMA
external iliac artery
lower intercosal arteries

340
Q

inability for cells to produce Acetyl CoA is produced by a deficiency in

vitamin B1
vitamin K
vitamin C
vitamin B2
vitamin B6

A

inability for cells to produce Acetyl CoA is produced by a deficiency in

vitamin B1
vitamin K
vitamin C
vitamin B2
​vitamin B6

341
Q

which muscle makes the UOS? [1]

A

cricopharyngeus

342
Q

what are the two oesophageal sphincters? which one is an anatomical sphincter, which one is a physiological sphincter?
how do they make sure they are sphincters/

A

upper oesophageal sphincter: produced by skeletal muscle cricopharyngeus. anatomical sphincter

  • *lower oesophageal sphincter:** looks the same as oesophagus. physiological sphincter. aided by:
    a) acute angle of stomach enter
    b) right curs of the diaphragm: pinch-cock effect
343
Q

which part of small intestine is this? why? (2)

A
344
Q

which part of small intestine is this? why? (2)

A
345
Q

ID A-E

A
A = **rectus abdominis**
B = **linea alba**
C = **ASIS**
D = **inguinal ligament**
E = **tendinous intersection**
346
Q

what is this muscle? [1]

A

geniohyoid

347
Q

which of the following is foramen cecum of tongue?

A
B
C
D
E

A

which of the following is foramen cecum of tongue?

A
B
C
D
E

348
Q

which of the following is foliate papillae?

A
B
C
D
E

A

which of the following is foliate papillae?

A
B
C
D
E

349
Q

which of the following is lingual tonsil?

A
B
C
D
E

A

which of the following is lingual tonsil?

A
B
C
D
E

350
Q

which of the following is vallate papillae?

A
B
C
D
E

A

which of the following is vallate papillae?

A
B
C
D
E

351
Q

which of the following is the foramen cecum ?

A
B
C
D
E

A

which of the following is the foramen cecum ?

A
B
C
D
E

352
Q

which hormone acts to counter hypocalcemia?

LH
T3
TSH
GnRH
PTH

A

which hormone acts to counter hypocalcemia?

LH
T3
TSH
GnRH
​PTH (parathyroid hormone)

353
Q

what is the overall net / gain or loss of ATP during glycolysis?

2 ATP gain
2 ATP loss
4 ATP gain
4 ATP loss
38 Gain

A

what is the overall net / gain or loss of ATP during glycolysis?

2 ATP gain
2 ATP loss
4 ATP gain
4 ATP loss
38 Gain

354
Q

what is the overall net / gain or loss of ATP during cori cycle?

2 ATP gain
2 ATP loss
4 ATP gain
4 ATP loss
38 Gain

A

what is the overall net / gain or loss of ATP during cori cycle?

2 ATP gain
2 ATP loss
4 ATP gain
4 ATP loss
38 Gain

355
Q
A
356
Q

what is this bit?

A

ligamentum teres: inferior aspect of the falciform ligament

357
Q

why are the peritoneal recesses of clinical importance?

A
  • sites of collection of inflammatory fluid (may go undiagnose). inflammatory fluid can spread via epiploic foramen: peritonitis
358
Q

which of the following is not a suprahyoid muscle?

Stylohyoid
Digastric
Sternohyoid
Geniohyoid
Mylohyoid

A

which of the following is not a suprahyoid muscle?

Stylohyoid
Digastric
Sternohyoid
Geniohyoid
Mylohyoid

359
Q

which of the following is not an infrahyoid muscle?

Geniohyoid
Sternohyoid
​Omohyoid
Sternothyroid
Thyrohyoid

A

which of the following is not an infrahyoid muscle?

Geniohyoid
Sternohyoid
​Omohyoid
Sternothyroid
Thyrohyoid

360
Q
A
361
Q
A
362
Q
A
363
Q
A
364
Q

label a-e

A
365
Q

during ox. phosph H+ are pumped across the inner mitochondrial matrix at which complexes?

  • complexes 1, 2 & 3
  • complexes 1, 2 & 4
  • complexes 1, 3, & 4
  • complexes 2, 3 & 4
A

during ox. phosph H+ are pumped across the inner mitochondrial matrix at which complexes?

​- complexes 1, 2 & 3

  • complexes 1, 2 & 4
  • *- complexes 1, 3, & 4**
  • complexes 2, 3 & 4
366
Q

The arterial branches from the superior mesenteric artery that supply the small intestine form arcades and have vasa recta (straight vessels) emanating from those arcades to the intestine itself.

The appearance of the arcades and vasa recta differs as the intestine progresses from jejunum to ileum. How?

A

jejunum: long vasa recta and fewer loops - A

ileum: larger arcades and vasa recta are shorter - B

367
Q

The arterial branches from the superior mesenteric artery that supply the small intestine form arcades and have vasa recta (straight vessels) emanating from those arcades to the intestine itself.

The appearance of the arcades and vasa recta differs as the intestine progresses from jejunum to ileum. How?

A

jejunum: long vasa recta and fewer loops - A

ileum: larger arcades and vasa recta are shorter - B

368
Q

which part of the gut is the appendix in?

foregut

midgut

hindgut

A

which part of the gut is the appendix in?

foregut

midgut

hindgut

369
Q

Which nerve provides parasympathetic innervation to the hindgut?

Vagus nerve

pelvic splachnic nerves

pudendal nerve

phrenic nerce

A

Which nerve provides parasympathetic innervation to the hindgut?

Vagus nerve

pelvic splachnic nerves

pudendal nerve

phrenic nerce

370
Q

identify the peritoeal folds indicated by the markers !

A
  1. falicform ligament
  2. greater omentum
371
Q

what is the name of the artery outlined in green?

A

cysteic artery

372
Q

what is the name of the artery outlined in green?

A

cysteic artery

373
Q

which nerve provides sympathetic innervation to hindgut? [1]

A

lumbar splachnic nerve

374
Q

absorption of amino acids through apical surface of intestinal cells occurs via?

faciliated diffusion
Na-linked secondary active transport
Ca-linked secondary active transport
Simple diffusion
Paracellular diffusion

A

absorption of amino acids through apical surface of intestinal cells occurs via?

faciliated diffusion
Na-linked secondary active transport
Ca-linked secondary active transport
Simple diffusion
Paracellular diffusion

375
Q

absorption of amino acids through basolateral surface of intestinal cells occurs via?

faciliated diffusion
Na-linked secondary active transport
Ca-linked secondary active transport
Simple diffusion
Paracellular diffusion

A

absorption of amino acids through basolateral surface of intestinal cells occurs via?

faciliated diffusion
Na-linked secondary active transport
Ca-linked secondary active transport
Simple diffusion
Paracellular diffusion

376
Q

which enzyme acts a sensor initiating production of insulin?

glucokinase
glycogen synthase
glycogen phosphorylase
PFK-1
PDH

A

which enzyme acts a sensor initiating production of insulin?

glucokinase
glycogen synthase
glycogen phosphorylase
PFK-1
​PDH

377
Q

Ach binds to which receptor on parietal cell to stimulate HCl production?

M1
M2
M3
H2
CCK2

A

Ach binds to which receptor on parietal cell to stimulate HCl production?

M1
M2
M3
H2
​CCK2

378
Q

what does Ca2+ binding to calmodulin in smooth muslce allow to occur? [2]

A

Ca2+ binding to calmodulin in smooth muscle allows it to interact with and activate myosin light chain kinase which catalyzes the phosphorylation of myosin.