FunMed Qs Flashcards
You are studying the effects of HIV on T-lymphocytes. You decide to look at the effects of the virus on T-cells which are in the process of maturation.
A sample of which organ is required to allow you to fulfil the requirements of your study?
Bone marrow
Spleen
Thymus
Peripheral Blood
Lymph nodes
You are studying the effects of HIV on T-lymphocytes. You decide to look at the effects of the virus on T-cells which are in the process of maturation.
A sample of which organ is required to allow you to fulfil the requirements of your study?
Bone marrow
Spleen
Thymus
Peripheral Blood
Lymph nodes
Found in secretions such as saliva, tears and mucous:
IgM
IgA
IgD
IgE
IgG
Found in secretions such as saliva, tears and mucous:
IgM
IgA
IgD
IgE
IgG
which of the following best describes Klinefelter syndrome
45X-
47 XXY
47 XYY
45Y-
which of the following best describes Klinefelter syndrome
45X-
47 XXY
47 XYY
45Y-
Which of the following best describes interphase?
Longest phase of cell cycle
Resting phase of the cycle
Determines the length of the cycle
Centrosome duplication
Shortest phase of cell cycle
Which of the following best describes interphase?
Longest phase of cell cycle
Resting phase of the cycle
Determines the length of the cycle
Centrosome duplication
Shortest phase of cell cycle
what is the difference between hypertrophy and hyperplasia?
hypertrophy: an increase in the size of individual muscle fibres due to synthesis of more contractile proteins within each cel
hyperplasia: an increase in the number of smooth muscle cells
Clostridium are:
Gram-negative rod
Gram-positive cocci
Gram-negative cocci
Gram-positive rod
Clostridium are:
Gram-negative rod
Gram-positive cocci
Gram-negative cocci
Gram-positive rod
Enhance phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses:
IgG
IgD
IgE
IgM
IgA
Enhance phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses:
IgG
IgD
IgE
IgM
IgA
First immunoglobulins to be secreted in response to an infection:
IgM
IgE
IgA
IgG
IgD
First immunoglobulins to be secreted in response to an infection:
IgM
IgE
IgA
IgG
IgD
what type of collagen makes fibrocartilage?
type 1
type 2
type 3
type 4
type 5
what type of collagen makes fibrocartilage?
type 1
type 2
type 3
type 4
type 5
A scientist is studying the role of regulatory proteins in intracellular trafficking. He has isolated and identified various intracellular proteins tagged with mannose-6-phosphate.
These proteins are destined to which of the following organelles?
Lysosome
SER
RER
Nucleus
Mitochondria
A scientist is studying the role of regulatory proteins in intracellular trafficking. He has isolated and identified various intracellular proteins tagged with mannose-6-phosphate.
These proteins are destined to which of the following organelles?
Lysosome - Golgi adds mannose-6-phosphate to proteins for trafficking to lysosomes
SER
RER
Nucleus
Mitochondria
In a laboratory the replication of heat-sensitive strain of Streptococcus pyogenes is studied. An inhibitor to an enzyme that takes part in DNA replication in the lagging strand was added in the gel electrophoresis. It was found that in the leading strand of DNA, replication occurred uninterrupted, but on the lagging strand, replication was interrupted and in fragments.
Which of the following enzyme’s inhibitor was used in this experiment?
Helicase
Ligase
Primase
RNase H
Topoisomerase
In a laboratory the replication of heat-sensitive strain of Streptococcus pyogenes is studied. An inhibitor to an enzyme that takes part in DNA replication in the lagging strand was added in the gel electrophoresis. It was found that in the leading strand of DNA, replication occurred uninterrupted, but on the lagging strand, replication was interrupted and in fragments.
Which of the following enzyme’s inhibitor was used in this experiment?
Helicase
Ligase
Primase
RNase H
Topoisomerase
Cohesin holds sister chromatids together after DNA replication until which phase, when removal of cohesin leads to separation of sister chromatids?
prophase
metaphase
anaphase
telophase
Cohesin holds sister chromatids together after DNA replication until which phase, when removal of cohesin leads to separation of sister chromatids?
prophase
metaphase
anaphase
telophase
A 12-year-old male presents to the emergency department with an asthma attack. During an asthma attack mast cells release histamine when IgE binds to its receptor site found on the mast cell, in turn causing inflammation and bronchoconstriction.
Which component of the receptor site binds with IgE to cause this reaction?
Fc
Fab
CD4
Toll-like
NOD-like
A 12-year-old male presents to the emergency department with an asthma attack. During an asthma attack mast cells release histamine when IgE binds to its receptor site found on the mast cell, in turn causing inflammation and bronchoconstriction.
Which component of the receptor site binds with IgE to cause this reaction?
Fc
Fab
CD4
Toll-like
NOD-like
IgE binds to the Fc receptor sites found on mast and basophils.
Acetylcholine:
Causes renal vasodilation
Major neurotransmitter in pre- and post-ganglionic parasympathetic neurons
Increased in patients with schizophrenia
Levels are depleted in depression
Principal inhibitory neurotransmitter of the spinal cord
Synthesized in the locus ceruleus
Acetylcholine:
Causes renal vasodilation
Major neurotransmitter in pre- and post-ganglionic parasympathetic neurons
Increased in patients with schizophrenia
Levels are depleted in depression
Principal inhibitory neurotransmitter of the spinal cord
Synthesized in the locus ceruleus
Which of the following statements is true regarding autosomal recessive inheritance?
Disease is manifest in every generation
There is a 25% change of two heterozygote parents have a carrier child
Conditions tend be less severe than autosomal dom
All offspring of an affected individual and a non-affected individual will be heterozygote carriers
Examples inlcude HD
Which of the following statements is true regarding autosomal recessive inheritance?
Disease is manifest in every generation
There is a 25% change of two heterozygote parents have a carrier child
Conditions tend be less severe than autosomal dom
All offspring of an affected individual and a non-affected individual will be heterozygote carriers
Examples inlcude HD
A couple come to you seeking genetic counselling. The husband, Felix, is concerned as his sister died at a young age from complications associated with a mitochondrial disease. The wife, Melissa, has no concerning family history. Both parents are cisgender.
They decide to test Felix for this mitochondrial disease, and his results return positive.
What is the likelihood that Felix and Melissa’s first child will be affected by this mitochondrial disease?
0%
25%
50%
50% if female, 0% if male
100%
A couple come to you seeking genetic counselling. The husband, Felix, is concerned as his sister died at a young age from complications associated with a mitochondrial disease. The wife, Melissa, has no concerning family history. Both parents are cisgender.
They decide to test Felix for this mitochondrial disease, and his results return positive.
What is the likelihood that Felix and Melissa’s first child will be affected by this mitochondrial disease?
0%
25%
50%
50% if female, 0% if male
100%
Fixes complement and passes to the fetal circulation:
IgM
IgD
IgA
IgE
IgG
Fixes complement and passes to the fetal circulation:
IgM
IgD
IgA
IgE
IgG
which vertebral levels are the prevertebral ganglia found?
T1-T4
T1-L2
T5-T10
T5-T12
T5-L2
which vertebral levels are the prevertebral ganglia found?
T1-T4
T1-L2
T5-T10
T5-T12
T5-L2
which of the following is a lymphocyte?
- neutrophil
- cytokine
- eosinophil
- monocyte
- NK cells
which of the following is a lymphocyte?
- neutrophil
- cytokine
- eosinophil
- monocyte
- *- NK cells**
A 72-year-old retired biochemist presents to a haemato-oncology clinic for a review of his recent blood tests.
The haematologist explains that glycoproteins on the cell surface membrane of follicular lymphoma cells facilitate the transduction of pro-survival signals from the tumour microenvironment.
Proteins are processed in several stages before their expression on the cell surface membrane.
Given this information, would be the last organelle involved in processing folded glycoproteins before their expression on the cell surface membrane?
Cytoplasmic ribosomes
Golgi apparatus
Lysosome
RER
SER
A 72-year-old retired biochemist presents to a haemato-oncology clinic for a review of his recent blood tests.
The haematologist explains that glycoproteins on the cell surface membrane of follicular lymphoma cells facilitate the transduction of pro-survival signals from the tumour microenvironment.
Proteins are processed in several stages before their expression on the cell surface membrane.
Given this information, would be the last organelle involved in processing folded glycoproteins before their expression on the cell surface membrane?
Cytoplasmic ribosomes
Golgi apparatus
Lysosome
RER
SER
Which cell organelle is involved in the breakdown of oligopeptides?
GA
RER
Peroxisome
Lysosome
SER
Which cell organelle is involved in the breakdown of oligopeptides?
GA
RER
Peroxisome
Lysosome
SER
which of the following are specifically involved in bacterial infection?
eosinophils
basophils
dendritic cells
monocytes
neutrophils
which of the following are specifically involved in bacterial infection?
eosinophils
basophils
dendritic cells
monocytes
neutrophils
The development of cancer involves mutations to genes involved in progression through the cell cycle.
Which of the following sections of the cell cycle takes the least amount of time?
G1
Mitosis
S phase
Anaphase
G2
The development of cancer involves mutations to genes involved in progression through the cell cycle.
Which of the following sections of the cell cycle takes the least amount of time?
G1
Mitosis
S phase
Anaphase
G2
A saturation curve is plotted to show the effect of cyanide on the activity of cytochrome oxidase. Cyanide is a non-competitive inhibitor of cytochrome oxidase.
What effect will cyanide have on the Km of cytochrome oxidase?
Dcrease Km
Decrease Km if Vmax changes
Increase KM
Increase Km if Vmax changes
No effect on Km
A saturation curve is plotted to show the effect of cyanide on the activity of cytochrome oxidase. Cyanide is a non-competitive inhibitor of cytochrome oxidase.
What effect will cyanide have on the Km of cytochrome oxidase?
Dcrease Km
Decrease Km if Vmax changes
Increase KM
Increase Km if Vmax changes
No effect on Km - Km is the substrate concentration at 50% of the enzyme’s maximum reaction rate (Vmax) and is, therefore, a surrogate measure of an enzyme’s affinity for its substrate.
Non-competitive enzyme inhibitors have no effect on Km value
Which of the following is not a tumour suppressor gene?
p53
APC
NF-1
Rb
myc
Which of the following is not a tumour suppressor gene?
p53
APC
NF-1
Rb
myc
myc is an oncogene which encodes a transcription factor:
Mr Green is admitted via the emergency department and found to have a large liver abscess. He undergoes CT guided aspiration and the fluid is sent off for analysis. Initial microscopy demonstrates a large population of neutrophils.
Which of the following cytokines is likely to have been responsible for this cell infiltration?
IL-2
IL-4
IL-5
IL-8
IL-10
Mr Green is admitted via the emergency department and found to have a large liver abscess. He undergoes CT guided aspiration and the fluid is sent off for analysis. Initial microscopy demonstrates a large population of neutrophils.
Which of the following cytokines is likely to have been responsible for this cell infiltration?
IL-2
IL-4
IL-5
IL-8
IL-10
IL-8 - main functions include: neutrophil chemotaxis
what do B cells, when activated, turn into? [2]
memory cells
plasma cells
which cells target cellular cytoplasms?
CD4 cells
CD8 cells
dendritic cells
t cell depedent macrophages
plasma cells
which cells target cellular cytoplasms?
CD4 cells
CD8 cells
dendritic cells
t cell depedent macrophages
plasma cells
and NK cells !
p53 stops cells entering which phase of the cell cycle?
G1
G2
S1
M1
M2
p53 stops cells entering which phase of the cell cycle?
G1
G2
S1
M1
M2
which system can you find NANCs in? [2]
GI tract [1]
blood vessels [1]
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with CD4?
Found on thymocytes, T cells, and some natural killer cells that acts as a ligand for CD58 and CD59 and is involved in signal transduction and cell adhesion
Co-receptor for MHC class II
The signalling component of the T cell receptor complex
Unique marker for natural killer cells
MHC molecule that presents lipid molecules
Co-receptor for MHC class I
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with CD4?
Found on thymocytes, T cells, and some natural killer cells that acts as a ligand for CD58 and CD59 and is involved in signal transduction and cell adhesion
Co-receptor for MHC class II
The signalling component of the T cell receptor complex
Unique marker for natural killer cells
MHC molecule that presents lipid molecules
Co-receptor for MHC class I
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with mast cells?
Involved in the cell-mediated immune response
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class II molecules
Kidney shaped nucleus
Primary phagocytic cell in acute inflammation
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class I molecules
Releases histamine during allergic response
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with mast cells?
Involved in the cell-mediated immune response
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class II molecules
Kidney shaped nucleus
Primary phagocytic cell in acute inflammation
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class I molecules
Releases histamine during allergic response
which of the following best describes edwards syndrome?
trisomy 21
trisomy 18
trisomy 13
trisomy 11
trisomy 10
which of the following best describes edwards syndrome?
trisomy 21
trisomy 18
trisomy 13
trisomy 11
trisomy 10
what is the main source of genetic variation between generations? [1] when does it occur? [1]
crossing over in prophase or metaphase
A neonate presents with hypotonia and seizures and, after a series of investigations, is diagnosed with Zellweger syndrome, a peroxisomal disorder.
What function do these organelles primarily perform?
Breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccahrides
Catabolism of long chain fatty acids
Degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged wtih ubiquitin
Lipid synthesis
Production of lysosomal enzymes
A neonate presents with hypotonia and seizures and, after a series of investigations, is diagnosed with Zellweger syndrome, a peroxisomal disorder.
What function do these organelles primarily perform?
Breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccahrides
Catabolism of long chain fatty acids
Degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged wtih ubiquitin
Lipid synthesis
Production of lysosomal enzymes
Enterococci are:
Gram-negative rod
Gram-positive rod
Gram-positive cocci
Gram-negative cocci
Enterococci are:
Gram-negative rod
Gram-positive rod
Gram-positive cocci
Gram-negative cocci
which type of transport protein is heterozygous in structure? [1]
which type of transport proteins are in homologous structure? [2]
which type of transport protein is heterozygous in structure? [1]
enyzme
which type of transport proteins are in homologous structure? [2]
GPCR, nicotinic
A 45-year-old primigravida enters the clinic. The triple screen blood test revealed an increased risk of Down’s syndrome. Further investigations are performed including amniocentesis where a prenatal diagnosis of Down’s syndrome is made.
Which genetic abnormalities most commonly causes this condition?
Deletion
Insertion
Mosiacism
Nondisjunction
Robertsonian translocation
A 45-year-old primigravida enters the clinic. The triple screen blood test revealed an increased risk of Down’s syndrome. Further investigations are performed including amniocentesis where a prenatal diagnosis of Down’s syndrome is made.
Which genetic abnormalities most commonly causes this condition?
Deletion
Insertion
Mosiacism
Nondisjunction
Robertsonian translocation
A 38-year-old female is seen in clinic regarding her treatment options following recently been diagnosed with Huntington’s disease. The doctor explains that Huntington’s disease is caused by excess triplets of DNA units called nucleotides.
What is the biochemical composition of these DNA units?
One sugar, one amine and one phosphate molecule
Two sugars, one amine and one phosphate molecule
One sugar, two amines, one phosphate molecule
One sugar, two amines, two phosphate molecules
Two sugards, two amines, three phosphate molecules
A 38-year-old female is seen in clinic regarding her treatment options following recently been diagnosed with Huntington’s disease. The doctor explains that Huntington’s disease is caused by excess triplets of DNA units called nucleotides.
What is the biochemical composition of these DNA units?
One sugar, one amine and one phosphate molecule
Two sugars, one amine and one phosphate molecule
One sugar, two amines, one phosphate molecule
One sugar, two amines, two phosphate molecules
Two sugards, two amines, three phosphate molecules
A nucleotide is made up of one sugar, one amine and one phosphate
You are a junior doctor working in orthopaedics. Whilst on a ward round, you see a patient who underwent a hemiarthroplasty 3 days ago for a broken hip. Unfortunately, they have now developed a bacterial infection of the surgical site. You consider the patient’s immune response to the bacteria which are causing this infection.
Which of the following immune-mediated processes would be occurring to help the patient fight this infection?
Eosinophuls would destroy the bacteria
IgG would enhance the phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses
IgM would dimerise to form a hexamer and activate complement system
Macrophages would produce antibodies
Neutrophils would coordinate the destruction of any parasites which may be present
You are a junior doctor working in orthopaedics. Whilst on a ward round, you see a patient who underwent a hemiarthroplasty 3 days ago for a broken hip. Unfortunately, they have now developed a bacterial infection of the surgical site. You consider the patient’s immune response to the bacteria which are causing this infection.
Which of the following immune-mediated processes would be occurring to help the patient fight this infection?
Eosinophuls would destroy the bacteria
IgG would enhance the phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses
IgM would dimerise to form a hexamer and activate complement system
Macrophages would produce antibodies
Neutrophils would coordinate the destruction of any parasites which may be present
Enhance phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses - IgG
Q1) What is the most abundant cell in scar tissue?
a. Adipocytes
b. Endothelial cells
c. Fibroblasts
d. Macrophages
e. Neutrophils
Q1) What is the most abundant cell in scar tissue?
a. Adipocytes
b. Endothelial cells
c.Fibroblasts
d. Macrophages
e. Neutrophils
In a cell, what is the function of the nucleus?
Ribosome production
Site of N-linked glycosylation
Catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids
Degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged with ubiquitin
Translation of RNA into proteins
DNA maintenance and RNA transcription
In a cell, what is the function of the nucleus?
Ribosome production
Site of N-linked glycosylation
Catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids
Degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged with ubiquitin
Translation of RNA into proteins
DNA maintenance and RNA transcription
Which of the following is responsible for activating macrophages?
Interferon-y (IFN-y)
Histamine
TNF-a
IL-1
IL-6
Which of the following is responsible for activating macrophages?
Interferon-y (IFN-y)
Histamine
TNF-a
IL-1
IL-6
Q4) Briefly explain how antibodies help prevent bacterial infections? [4]
Antibodies are critical for defence against pathogens, especially extracellular bacteria:
- Bind to them to increase their uptake by phagocytes (for example, macrophages or neutrophils),
- or to induce their killing by complement activation
- or by cellular components of the immune system (antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity, ADCC).
- Block infection by preventing the binding of pathogens to critical receptors on host cells and can neutralise the activity of toxins that cause disease.
Expresses CD4 cells & a major source IL-2
Mast cells
Helper T cells
Neutrophils
Monocytes
B cells
Cytotoxic T cells
Expresses CD4 cells & a major source IL-2
Mast cells
Helper T cells
Neutrophils
Monocytes
B cells
Cytotoxic T cells
describe the structure of collagen [3]
Triple helical structure formed by 3 peptide chains
: ▪every 3rd amino acid is glycine
▪Gly-X-Y (proline-hydroxyproline)
most commonly amplified oncogene? [1]
c MYC one
which of the following best describes patau syndrome?
trisomy 21
trisomy 18
trisomy 13
trisomy 11
trisomy 10
which of the following best describes patau syndrome?
trisomy 21
trisomy 18
trisomy 13
trisomy 11
trisomy 10
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with macrophages?
Most common type of white blood cell
Involved in phagocytosis of cellular debris and pathogens
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class I molecules
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class II molecules
Defends against protozoan and helminthic infections
Granules contain myeloperoxidase and lysozyme
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with macrophages?
Most common type of white blood cell
Involved in phagocytosis of cellular debris and pathogens
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class I molecules
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class II molecules
Defends against protozoan and helminthic infections
Granules contain myeloperoxidase and lysozyme
A 2-year-old child attends the GP surgery with chicken pox. The mother is concerned as her eldest daughter, who had chicken pox when she was 3, is about to sit the 11+ exam and she is worried she may become ill. The GP reassures the mother that she is unlikely to become infected in this case. Which of the following cells is a constituent of ‘adaptive immunity’ and will have a role in preventing a second episode of chicken pox?
NK cells
B cells
Neutrophils
Hepatocytes
Goblet cells
A 2-year-old child attends the GP surgery with chicken pox. The mother is concerned as her eldest daughter, who had chicken pox when she was 3, is about to sit the 11+ exam and she is worried she may become ill. The GP reassures the mother that she is unlikely to become infected in this case. Which of the following cells is a constituent of ‘adaptive immunity’ and will have a role in preventing a second episode of chicken pox?
NK cells
B cells
Neutrophils
Hepatocytes
Goblet cells
A 16-year-old boy presents with learning disabilities and obesity. He is diagnosed with Prader-Willi syndrome. His mother has read on-line that the disease is closely linked to Angelman syndrome.
What is the major genetic determinant which separates the two conditions?
Pleiotropy
Heteroplasmy
Mosaicism
Robertsonian translocation
Genetic imprinting
A 16-year-old boy presents with learning disabilities and obesity. He is diagnosed with Prader-Willi syndrome. His mother has read on-line that the disease is closely linked to Angelman syndrome.
What is the major genetic determinant which separates the two conditions?
Pleiotropy
Heteroplasmy
Mosaicism
Robertsonian translocation
Genetic imprinting
Genetic imprinting is defined as a difference in phenotype dependent on whether the mutation is maternal or paternal origin
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with neutrophils?
Present in tissues and are similar in function to basophils
Diffferentiates into macrophages
Defends against protozoan and helminthic infections
Acts as an antigen presenting cell
Granules contain myeloperoxidase and lysozyme
Major source of IL-2
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with neutrophils?
Present in tissues and are similar in function to basophils
Diffferentiates into macrophages
Defends against protozoan and helminthic infections
Acts as an antigen presenting cell
Granules contain myeloperoxidase and lysozyme
Major source of IL-2
ras is mutated to k-ras by which type of mutation?
point mutation: causes GTP to be permentely bound to it and allows pathway to be perm switched on
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with macrophages?
Kidney shaped nucleus
Acts as an antigen presenting cell
Primary phagocytic cell in acute inflammation
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class II molecules
Major source of IL-2
Defends against protozoan and helminthic infections
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with macrophages?
Kidney shaped nucleus
Acts as an antigen presenting cell
Primary phagocytic cell in acute inflammation
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class II molecules
Major source of IL-2
Defends against protozoan and helminthic infections
An 8-month-old baby girl is brought into the GP surgery with her mother. They both recently moved to the UK and her mother is concerned that her daughter’s appearance seems different from some of the other children in her daycare centre.
On examination, her daughter appears well. Although, it is noted that she has a shortened neck and a protruding tongue. There are a number of white spots visible in her iris.
What is the most common cytogenetic cause of this patient’s diagnosis?
Autosomal recessive
Mitochondrial inheritance
Mosiacism
Nondisjunction
Robertsonian translocation
An 8-month-old baby girl is brought into the GP surgery with her mother. They both recently moved to the UK and her mother is concerned that her daughter’s appearance seems different from some of the other children in her daycare centre.
On examination, her daughter appears well. Although, it is noted that she has a shortened neck and a protruding tongue. There are a number of white spots visible in her iris.
What is the most common cytogenetic cause of this patient’s diagnosis?
Autosomal recessive
Mitochondrial inheritance
Mosiacism
Nondisjunction: Nondisjunction is the commonest cause of Down’s syndrome
Robertsonian translocation
5% of cases of Down’s syndrome are secondary to a Robertsonian translocation and 1% of cases are secondary to mosaicism. Down’s syndrome is not inherited via autosomal recession or mitochondrial inheritance.
A 64-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital following a 6-week history of feeling generally unwell and shortness of breath. She has also lost a stone in weight over this period. On examination, you note cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. She undergoes a lymph node biopsy and is subsequently diagnosed with diffuse large B cell lymphoma.
Which of the following cytokines would normally be responsible for the proliferation of this cell type?
IL-1
IL-2
IL-5
IL-6
IL8
A 64-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital following a 6-week history of feeling generally unwell and shortness of breath. She has also lost a stone in weight over this period. On examination, you note cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. She undergoes a lymph node biopsy and is subsequently diagnosed with diffuse large B cell lymphoma.
Which of the following cytokines would normally be responsible for the proliferation of this cell type?
IL-1
IL-2
IL-5
IL-6
IL8
IL-6 - main functions include: stimulates proliferation and differentiation of B cells
A 6-year-old boy presents to the GP with recurrent chest infections and poor growth and weight gain.
The patient is referred by the GP to a paediatric clinic, who order further tests including a genetic test for mutations in the CFTR gene to screen for cystic fibrosis. This confirms a single nucleotide mutation in the CFTR gene resulting in a stop codon in place of arginine.
What is the name of this type of mutation?
Frameshift
Missense
Nonsense
Silent
Synonymous
A 6-year-old boy presents to the GP with recurrent chest infections and poor growth and weight gain.
The patient is referred by the GP to a paediatric clinic, who order further tests including a genetic test for mutations in the CFTR gene to screen for cystic fibrosis. This confirms a single nucleotide mutation in the CFTR gene resulting in a stop codon in place of arginine.
What is the name of this type of mutation?
Frameshift
Missense
Nonsense: results in stop codon
Silent
Synonymous
Effect on Vmax of uncompetitive inhibitors:
No change
Decreased
Increased
Effect on Vmax of uncompetitive inhibitors:
No change
Decreased
Increased
which NT does tetanus cause to block at NMJ? [2]
GABA
Glycine
Which cytokine is responsible for differentiating Th0 cells to Th1 cells?
TNF-A
IFN-y
IL-12
IL-4
IL-5
Which cytokine is responsible for differentiating Th0 cells to Th1 cells?
TNF-A
IFN-y
IL-12
IL-4
IL-5
which type of cartilage doesnt have a perichondrium? [1]
fibrocartilage
Which part of an antibody do immune cells bind to?
Disulfide bridge
Heavy chain of antigen binding site
Light chain of antigen binding site
Fc region
Light chain hypervariable region
Which part of an antibody do immune cells bind to?
Disulfide bridge
Heavy chain of antigen binding site
Light chain of antigen binding site
Fc region
Light chain hypervariable region
label 1-4:
1
2
3
4
You are studying enzyme-kinetics before an important exam and come across the Line-Weaver Burk plot of the Michaelis-Menten model. You need to be familiar with the all the abbreviations and their meanings.
What is represented by ‘Km’ on the Line-Weaver Burk plot?
Maximum rate of the catalysed-reaction
Half maximum rate of the catalysed-reaction
Concentration of substrate that leads to half maximal velocity
Concentration of substrate that leads to half maximal velocity
Contratrion of substrate that leads to maximal velocity
You are studying enzyme-kinetics before an important exam and come across the Line-Weaver Burk plot of the Michaelis-Menten model. You need to be familiar with the all the abbreviations and their meanings.
What is represented by ‘Km’ on the Line-Weaver Burk plot?
Maximum rate of the catalysed-reaction
Half maximum rate of the catalysed-reaction
Concentration of substrate that leads to half maximal velocity
Concentration of substrate that leads to half maximal velocity
Contratrion of substrate that leads to maximal velocity
Which one of the following cell types is the main source of tumour necrosis factor-alpha?
Th1 cells
Dendritic cells
Th2 cells
Activated T helper cells
B cells
Macrophages
Which one of the following cell types is the main source of tumour necrosis factor-alpha?
Th1 cells
Dendritic cells
Th2 cells
Activated T helper cells
B cells
Macrophages
what type of receptor is adrenergic?
ion gated
enzyme linked
intracellular
GPCR
what type of receptor is adrenergic?
ion gated
enzyme linked
intracellular
GPCR
which of the following triggers humoral immunity?
NK cells
CD4+ TH1
dendritic cells
CD4+ TH2
CD4+ Th0
which of the following triggers humoral immunity?
NK cells
CD4+ TH1
dendritic cells
CD4+ TH2
CD4+ Th0
The oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the left in:
With decreased 2,3 DPG in transfused rbc
Resp. acidosis
High altitude
Pyrexia
Haemolytic anaemia
The oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the left in:
With decreased 2,3 DPG in transfused rbc
Resp. acidosis
High altitude
Pyrexia
Haemolytic anaemia
which of the following is the step of cytokines making blood vessels more sticky when inflammation initially occurs?
rolling & activation
tethering
diapedesis & migraton
arrest
expansion
which of the following is the step of cytokines making blood vessels more sticky when inflammation initially occurs?
rolling & activation
tethering
diapedesis & migraton
arrest
expansion
A 19-year-old male presents to general practice with a sore throat and fatigue. On examination the GP remarks cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. The GP suspects a diagnosis of mononucleosis. Which of the following malignancies is most associated with Epstein- Barr Virus?
Heptacellular carinoma
Burkitts lymphoma
Oesphageal cancer
Acute lymphoblastic leukameia
Kaposi sarcoma
A 19-year-old male presents to general practice with a sore throat and fatigue. On examination the GP remarks cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. The GP suspects a diagnosis of mononucleosis. Which of the following malignancies is most associated with Epstein- Barr Virus?
Heptacellular carinoma
Burkitts lymphoma
Oesphageal cancer
Acute lymphoblastic leukameia
Kaposi sarcoma
Least abundant isotype in blood serum:
IgA
IgE
IgG
IgD
IgM
Least abundant isotype in blood serum:
IgA
IgE
IgG
IgD
IgM
which of the following link cells to underlying basement membrane?
tight junction
desmosome
hemidesmosome
gap junction
adherens / zonula adherens
which of the following link cells to underlying basement membrane?
tight junction
desmosome
hemidesmosome
gap junction
adherens / zonula adherens
which of the following activates macrophages?
NK cells
CD4+ TH1
dendritic cells
CD4+ TH2
CD4+ Th0
which of the following activates macrophages?
NK cells
CD4+ TH1
dendritic cells
CD4+ TH2
CD4+ Th0
A baby girl is diagnosed with cystic fibrosis following her heel prick test. This disease is caused by a faulty membrane protein called the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator.
Which one of the following determines the tertiary structure of the aforementioned protein?
AA sequence
Interactions between R groups of amino acids
Local H bonds
Peptide bonds
Presecne or abscence of a-helices
A baby girl is diagnosed with cystic fibrosis following her heel prick test. This disease is caused by a faulty membrane protein called the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator.
Which one of the following determines the tertiary structure of the aforementioned protein?
AA sequence
Interactions between R groups of amino acids
Local H bonds
Peptide bonds
Presecne or abscence of a-helices
A 10-year-old male is referred to an oncologist for suspected lymphoma. His symptoms include fever, night sweats, weight loss and lymphadenopathy is present on examination. Molecular testing and histological analysis of a lymph node biopsy suggest a diagnosis of Burkitt’s lymphoma. Which oncogene is associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma
ABL
p53
n-MYC
c-MYC
HER2
A 10-year-old male is referred to an oncologist for suspected lymphoma. His symptoms include fever, night sweats, weight loss and lymphadenopathy is present on examination. Molecular testing and histological analysis of a lymph node biopsy suggest a diagnosis of Burkitt’s lymphoma. Which oncogene is associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma
ABL
p53
n-MYC
c-MYC
HER2
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with monocytes?
Mediates acute and chronic organ rejection
Are responsible for hyperacute organ rejection
Present in tissues and are similar in function to basophils
Involved in the cell-mediated immune response
Involved in phagocytosis of cellular debris and pathogens
Diffferentiates into macrophages
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with monocytes?
Mediates acute and chronic organ rejection
Are responsible for hyperacute organ rejection
Present in tissues and are similar in function to basophils
Involved in the cell-mediated immune response
Involved in phagocytosis of cellular debris and pathogens
Diffferentiates into macrophages
A 37-year-old male presents to his general practitioner with a 3-month history of altered bowel habit, with occasional blood in his stool. After a series of investigations, he is discovered to have bowel cancer, which is successfully treated with a semi-colectomy. As part of his care, it is decided to screen the patient for mutated oncogenes.
What testing method would be used to screen this patient?
Centrifugation
Electron microscopy
Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay
PCR
Western blot
A 37-year-old male presents to his general practitioner with a 3-month history of altered bowel habit, with occasional blood in his stool. After a series of investigations, he is discovered to have bowel cancer, which is successfully treated with a semi-colectomy. As part of his care, it is decided to screen the patient for mutated oncogenes.
What testing method would be used to screen this patient?
Centrifugation
Electron microscopy
Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay
PCR: Polymerase chain reactions are used to detect mutated oncogenes
Western blot
During cell division, at what stage do sister chromatids move to opposite ends of the cell?
Prometaphase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase
Cytokinesis
During cell division, at what stage do sister chromatids move to opposite ends of the cell?
Prometaphase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase
Cytokinesis
which of the following are contain cadherins?
tight junction
desmosome
hemidesmosome
gap junction
which of the following are contain cadherins?
tight junction
desmosome
hemidesmosome
gap junction
which is the most potent APC?
neutrophil
plasma cell
dendritic cell
macrophages
monocytes
which is the most potent APC?
neutrophil
plasma cell
dendritic cell
macrophages
monocytes
The complement cascade can be activated via antibody-antigen complex formation via the classical pathway.
Which of the following antibody serotypes is most effective in performing this function?
IgA
IgD
IgE
IgG
IgM
The complement cascade can be activated via antibody-antigen complex formation via the classical pathway.
Which of the following antibody serotypes is most effective in performing this function?
IgA
IgD
IgE
IgG
IgM
IgM is a pentamer which has the highest complement activation capacity
which of the following is purely involved in adaptive immunity?
natural T killer cell
B cell
basophil
neutrophil
monocyte
which of the following is purely involved in adaptive immunity?
natural T killer cell
B cell
basophil
neutrophil
monocyte
which of the following binds to bacteria cell wall, changes the charge of the cell wall and causes it to rupture?
polymyxins
glycopeptide antiobiotics
penicillin
which of the following binds to bacteria cell wall, changes the charge of the cell wall and causes it to rupture?
polymyxins
glycopeptide antiobiotics
penicillin
p53 activates p21, which activates CDK2 to inibit which two cyclins? [2]
cyclins A & E
Which of the following cells is a constituent of ‘innate immunity?’
Hepatocytes
NK cells
B cells
Goblet cells
T cells
Which of the following cells is a constituent of ‘innate immunity?’
Hepatocytes
NK cells
B cells
Goblet cells
T cells
NK cells promote the destruction of cells harboring pathogens and are a component of the innate response.
B cells are responsible for antibody production and are a component of the adaptive response. T helper cells ‘help’ B cells by encouraging the production of specific antibodies.
what plane of section is this image?
coronal
transverse
sagitall
oblique
para-sagittal
what plane of section is this image?
coronal
transverse
sagitall
oblique
para-sagittal
Which type of membrane receptor is activated by muscarinic acetylcholine?
G protein-coupled receptor
Guanylate cyclase receptor
Ligand-gated ion channel receptor
Non-receptor tyrosine kinase
Receptor tyrosine kinase
Which type of membrane receptor is activated by muscarinic acetylcholine?
G protein-coupled receptor
Guanylate cyclase receptor
Ligand-gated ion channel receptor
Non-receptor tyrosine kinase
Receptor tyrosine kinase
A middle-aged man goes to see his GP about a recent high cholesterol reading. The GP knows he could help reduce this man’s cholesterol by giving him a class of drug called a statin.
Which of the following enzymes is the target of these drugs?
Cartinine-palmitoyl transferase I
Cartinine-palmitoyl transferase II
Acetyl-CoA carboxoylase
HMG-CoA synthase
HMG-CoA reductase
A middle-aged man goes to see his GP about a recent high cholesterol reading. The GP knows he could help reduce this man’s cholesterol by giving him a class of drug called a statin.
Which of the following enzymes is the target of these drugs?
Cartinine-palmitoyl transferase I
Cartinine-palmitoyl transferase II
Acetyl-CoA carboxoylase
HMG-CoA synthase
HMG-CoA reductase
A 10-year-old boy presents with an itchy rash on his elbows. The rash is red and there are excoriation marks. He has a past history of hay fever and has generally dry skin. The GP diagnoses him with eczema and he is prescribed hydrocortisone. The GP also explains that there are certain triggers which the boy may be hypersensitive to, including dust. Which antibody is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity?
IgG
IgA
IgD
IgE
IgM
A 10-year-old boy presents with an itchy rash on his elbows. The rash is red and there are excoriation marks. He has a past history of hay fever and has generally dry skin. The GP diagnoses him with eczema and he is prescribed hydrocortisone. The GP also explains that there are certain triggers which the boy may be hypersensitive to, including dust. Which antibody is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity?
IgG
IgA
IgD
IgE
IgM
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with basophils?
Are responsible for hyperacute organ rejection
Defends against protozoan and helminthic infections
Involved in the cell-mediated immune response
Multi-lobed nucleus
Releases histamine during allergic response
Kidney shaped nucleus
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with basophils?
Are responsible for hyperacute organ rejection
Defends against protozoan and helminthic infections
Involved in the cell-mediated immune response
Multi-lobed nucleus
Releases histamine during allergic response
Kidney shaped nucleus
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with helper T cells?
Involved in phagocytosis of cellular debris and pathogens
Kidney shaped nucleus
Induce apoptosis in virally infected and tumour cells
Major source of IL-2
Major cell of the humoral immune response
Differentiated from B cells
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with helper T cells?
Involved in phagocytosis of cellular debris and pathogens
Kidney shaped nucleus
Induce apoptosis in virally infected and tumour cells
Major source of IL-2
Major cell of the humoral immune response
Differentiated from B cells
what is the exact point mutation that causes ras gene to be mutagenic?
- single nucleotide exchange GGC TO GTC in bladder cancers (glycine -> valine)
name a receptor, when overexpressed causes cancer? [1]
HER2
which of the following do you find immediately deep to tight junction?
desmosome
hemidesmosome
gap junction
adherens / zonula adherens
which of the following do you find immediately deep to tight junction?
desmosome
hemidesmosome
gap junction
adherens / zonula adherens
describe Turner syndrome?
Turner syndrome -(45, X) Loss of X chr: 1/5000 females. 99% lost spon. in preg. short. abscence of menstruation (amenorrhea). congenital heart d: 20%. webbed neck
which of the following is a hemidesmosome?
A
B
C
D
E
which of the following is a hemidesmosome?
A
B
C
D
E
what is this structure? [1]
Midbrain [1]
when does cyclin B work?
G1
Interphase
G2
S1
S2
when does cyclin B work?
G1
Interphase
G2
S1
S2
what cell type is this?
eosinophils
basophils
lymphocyte
monocytes
neutrophils
what cell type is this?
eosinophils
basophils
lymphocyte
monocytes
neutrophils
which of the following contain integrins?
tight junction
desmosome
hemidesmosome
gap junction
which of the following contain integrins?
tight junction
desmosome
hemidesmosome
gap junction
which of the following is a desmosome?
A
B
C
D
E
which of the following is a desmosome?
A
B
C
D
E
label A-E
which of the following is a gap junction?
A
B
C
D
E
which of the following is a gap junction?
A
B
C
D
E
what is the arrow pointing to in the lamina propria of the gastric mucosa?
smooth muscle cells
endothelial cells
plasma cells
lymphocytes
fibroblasts
what is the arrow pointing to in the lamina propria of the gastric mucosa?
smooth muscle cells
endothelial cells
plasma cells
lymphocytes
fibroblasts
describe Turner syndrome?
Turner syndrome -(45, X) Loss of X chr: 1/5000 females. 99% lost spon. in preg. short. abscence of menstruation (amenorrhea). congenital heart d: 20%. webbed neck
which of the following is a tight junction?
A
B
C
D
E
which of the following is a tight junction?
A
B
C
D
E
what plane of section is this image?
coronal
transverse
sagitall
oblique
para-sagittal
what plane of section is this image?
coronal
transverse
sagitall
oblique
para-sagittal
which of the following is an adherens molecule?
A
B
C
D
E
which of the following is a gap junction?
A
B
C
D
E
what plane of section is this image?
coronal
transverse
sagitall
oblique
para-sagittal
what plane of section is this image?
coronal
transverse
sagittal
oblique
para-sagittal
which of the following contain connexins?
tight junction
desmosome
hemidesmosome
gap junction
which of the following contain connexins?
tight junction
desmosome
hemidesmosome
gap junction
label A-D stages of cancer development:
A
B
C
D
label A-D stages of cancer development:
A: hyperplasia
B: metaplasia
C: dysplasia
D: anaplasia
