FunMed Qs Flashcards
You are studying the effects of HIV on T-lymphocytes. You decide to look at the effects of the virus on T-cells which are in the process of maturation.
A sample of which organ is required to allow you to fulfil the requirements of your study?
Bone marrow
Spleen
Thymus
Peripheral Blood
Lymph nodes
You are studying the effects of HIV on T-lymphocytes. You decide to look at the effects of the virus on T-cells which are in the process of maturation.
A sample of which organ is required to allow you to fulfil the requirements of your study?
Bone marrow
Spleen
Thymus
Peripheral Blood
Lymph nodes
Found in secretions such as saliva, tears and mucous:
IgM
IgA
IgD
IgE
IgG
Found in secretions such as saliva, tears and mucous:
IgM
IgA
IgD
IgE
IgG
which of the following best describes Klinefelter syndrome
45X-
47 XXY
47 XYY
45Y-
which of the following best describes Klinefelter syndrome
45X-
47 XXY
47 XYY
45Y-
Which of the following best describes interphase?
Longest phase of cell cycle
Resting phase of the cycle
Determines the length of the cycle
Centrosome duplication
Shortest phase of cell cycle
Which of the following best describes interphase?
Longest phase of cell cycle
Resting phase of the cycle
Determines the length of the cycle
Centrosome duplication
Shortest phase of cell cycle
what is the difference between hypertrophy and hyperplasia?
hypertrophy: an increase in the size of individual muscle fibres due to synthesis of more contractile proteins within each cel
hyperplasia: an increase in the number of smooth muscle cells
Clostridium are:
Gram-negative rod
Gram-positive cocci
Gram-negative cocci
Gram-positive rod
Clostridium are:
Gram-negative rod
Gram-positive cocci
Gram-negative cocci
Gram-positive rod
Enhance phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses:
IgG
IgD
IgE
IgM
IgA
Enhance phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses:
IgG
IgD
IgE
IgM
IgA
First immunoglobulins to be secreted in response to an infection:
IgM
IgE
IgA
IgG
IgD
First immunoglobulins to be secreted in response to an infection:
IgM
IgE
IgA
IgG
IgD
what type of collagen makes fibrocartilage?
type 1
type 2
type 3
type 4
type 5
what type of collagen makes fibrocartilage?
type 1
type 2
type 3
type 4
type 5
A scientist is studying the role of regulatory proteins in intracellular trafficking. He has isolated and identified various intracellular proteins tagged with mannose-6-phosphate.
These proteins are destined to which of the following organelles?
Lysosome
SER
RER
Nucleus
Mitochondria
A scientist is studying the role of regulatory proteins in intracellular trafficking. He has isolated and identified various intracellular proteins tagged with mannose-6-phosphate.
These proteins are destined to which of the following organelles?
Lysosome - Golgi adds mannose-6-phosphate to proteins for trafficking to lysosomes
SER
RER
Nucleus
Mitochondria
In a laboratory the replication of heat-sensitive strain of Streptococcus pyogenes is studied. An inhibitor to an enzyme that takes part in DNA replication in the lagging strand was added in the gel electrophoresis. It was found that in the leading strand of DNA, replication occurred uninterrupted, but on the lagging strand, replication was interrupted and in fragments.
Which of the following enzyme’s inhibitor was used in this experiment?
Helicase
Ligase
Primase
RNase H
Topoisomerase
In a laboratory the replication of heat-sensitive strain of Streptococcus pyogenes is studied. An inhibitor to an enzyme that takes part in DNA replication in the lagging strand was added in the gel electrophoresis. It was found that in the leading strand of DNA, replication occurred uninterrupted, but on the lagging strand, replication was interrupted and in fragments.
Which of the following enzyme’s inhibitor was used in this experiment?
Helicase
Ligase
Primase
RNase H
Topoisomerase
Cohesin holds sister chromatids together after DNA replication until which phase, when removal of cohesin leads to separation of sister chromatids?
prophase
metaphase
anaphase
telophase
Cohesin holds sister chromatids together after DNA replication until which phase, when removal of cohesin leads to separation of sister chromatids?
prophase
metaphase
anaphase
telophase
A 12-year-old male presents to the emergency department with an asthma attack. During an asthma attack mast cells release histamine when IgE binds to its receptor site found on the mast cell, in turn causing inflammation and bronchoconstriction.
Which component of the receptor site binds with IgE to cause this reaction?
Fc
Fab
CD4
Toll-like
NOD-like
A 12-year-old male presents to the emergency department with an asthma attack. During an asthma attack mast cells release histamine when IgE binds to its receptor site found on the mast cell, in turn causing inflammation and bronchoconstriction.
Which component of the receptor site binds with IgE to cause this reaction?
Fc
Fab
CD4
Toll-like
NOD-like
IgE binds to the Fc receptor sites found on mast and basophils.
Acetylcholine:
Causes renal vasodilation
Major neurotransmitter in pre- and post-ganglionic parasympathetic neurons
Increased in patients with schizophrenia
Levels are depleted in depression
Principal inhibitory neurotransmitter of the spinal cord
Synthesized in the locus ceruleus
Acetylcholine:
Causes renal vasodilation
Major neurotransmitter in pre- and post-ganglionic parasympathetic neurons
Increased in patients with schizophrenia
Levels are depleted in depression
Principal inhibitory neurotransmitter of the spinal cord
Synthesized in the locus ceruleus
Which of the following statements is true regarding autosomal recessive inheritance?
Disease is manifest in every generation
There is a 25% change of two heterozygote parents have a carrier child
Conditions tend be less severe than autosomal dom
All offspring of an affected individual and a non-affected individual will be heterozygote carriers
Examples inlcude HD
Which of the following statements is true regarding autosomal recessive inheritance?
Disease is manifest in every generation
There is a 25% change of two heterozygote parents have a carrier child
Conditions tend be less severe than autosomal dom
All offspring of an affected individual and a non-affected individual will be heterozygote carriers
Examples inlcude HD
A couple come to you seeking genetic counselling. The husband, Felix, is concerned as his sister died at a young age from complications associated with a mitochondrial disease. The wife, Melissa, has no concerning family history. Both parents are cisgender.
They decide to test Felix for this mitochondrial disease, and his results return positive.
What is the likelihood that Felix and Melissa’s first child will be affected by this mitochondrial disease?
0%
25%
50%
50% if female, 0% if male
100%
A couple come to you seeking genetic counselling. The husband, Felix, is concerned as his sister died at a young age from complications associated with a mitochondrial disease. The wife, Melissa, has no concerning family history. Both parents are cisgender.
They decide to test Felix for this mitochondrial disease, and his results return positive.
What is the likelihood that Felix and Melissa’s first child will be affected by this mitochondrial disease?
0%
25%
50%
50% if female, 0% if male
100%
Fixes complement and passes to the fetal circulation:
IgM
IgD
IgA
IgE
IgG
Fixes complement and passes to the fetal circulation:
IgM
IgD
IgA
IgE
IgG
which vertebral levels are the prevertebral ganglia found?
T1-T4
T1-L2
T5-T10
T5-T12
T5-L2
which vertebral levels are the prevertebral ganglia found?
T1-T4
T1-L2
T5-T10
T5-T12
T5-L2
which of the following is a lymphocyte?
- neutrophil
- cytokine
- eosinophil
- monocyte
- NK cells
which of the following is a lymphocyte?
- neutrophil
- cytokine
- eosinophil
- monocyte
- *- NK cells**
A 72-year-old retired biochemist presents to a haemato-oncology clinic for a review of his recent blood tests.
The haematologist explains that glycoproteins on the cell surface membrane of follicular lymphoma cells facilitate the transduction of pro-survival signals from the tumour microenvironment.
Proteins are processed in several stages before their expression on the cell surface membrane.
Given this information, would be the last organelle involved in processing folded glycoproteins before their expression on the cell surface membrane?
Cytoplasmic ribosomes
Golgi apparatus
Lysosome
RER
SER
A 72-year-old retired biochemist presents to a haemato-oncology clinic for a review of his recent blood tests.
The haematologist explains that glycoproteins on the cell surface membrane of follicular lymphoma cells facilitate the transduction of pro-survival signals from the tumour microenvironment.
Proteins are processed in several stages before their expression on the cell surface membrane.
Given this information, would be the last organelle involved in processing folded glycoproteins before their expression on the cell surface membrane?
Cytoplasmic ribosomes
Golgi apparatus
Lysosome
RER
SER
Which cell organelle is involved in the breakdown of oligopeptides?
GA
RER
Peroxisome
Lysosome
SER
Which cell organelle is involved in the breakdown of oligopeptides?
GA
RER
Peroxisome
Lysosome
SER
which of the following are specifically involved in bacterial infection?
eosinophils
basophils
dendritic cells
monocytes
neutrophils
which of the following are specifically involved in bacterial infection?
eosinophils
basophils
dendritic cells
monocytes
neutrophils
The development of cancer involves mutations to genes involved in progression through the cell cycle.
Which of the following sections of the cell cycle takes the least amount of time?
G1
Mitosis
S phase
Anaphase
G2
The development of cancer involves mutations to genes involved in progression through the cell cycle.
Which of the following sections of the cell cycle takes the least amount of time?
G1
Mitosis
S phase
Anaphase
G2
A saturation curve is plotted to show the effect of cyanide on the activity of cytochrome oxidase. Cyanide is a non-competitive inhibitor of cytochrome oxidase.
What effect will cyanide have on the Km of cytochrome oxidase?
Dcrease Km
Decrease Km if Vmax changes
Increase KM
Increase Km if Vmax changes
No effect on Km
A saturation curve is plotted to show the effect of cyanide on the activity of cytochrome oxidase. Cyanide is a non-competitive inhibitor of cytochrome oxidase.
What effect will cyanide have on the Km of cytochrome oxidase?
Dcrease Km
Decrease Km if Vmax changes
Increase KM
Increase Km if Vmax changes
No effect on Km - Km is the substrate concentration at 50% of the enzyme’s maximum reaction rate (Vmax) and is, therefore, a surrogate measure of an enzyme’s affinity for its substrate.
Non-competitive enzyme inhibitors have no effect on Km value
Which of the following is not a tumour suppressor gene?
p53
APC
NF-1
Rb
myc
Which of the following is not a tumour suppressor gene?
p53
APC
NF-1
Rb
myc
myc is an oncogene which encodes a transcription factor:
Mr Green is admitted via the emergency department and found to have a large liver abscess. He undergoes CT guided aspiration and the fluid is sent off for analysis. Initial microscopy demonstrates a large population of neutrophils.
Which of the following cytokines is likely to have been responsible for this cell infiltration?
IL-2
IL-4
IL-5
IL-8
IL-10
Mr Green is admitted via the emergency department and found to have a large liver abscess. He undergoes CT guided aspiration and the fluid is sent off for analysis. Initial microscopy demonstrates a large population of neutrophils.
Which of the following cytokines is likely to have been responsible for this cell infiltration?
IL-2
IL-4
IL-5
IL-8
IL-10
IL-8 - main functions include: neutrophil chemotaxis
what do B cells, when activated, turn into? [2]
memory cells
plasma cells
which cells target cellular cytoplasms?
CD4 cells
CD8 cells
dendritic cells
t cell depedent macrophages
plasma cells
which cells target cellular cytoplasms?
CD4 cells
CD8 cells
dendritic cells
t cell depedent macrophages
plasma cells
and NK cells !
p53 stops cells entering which phase of the cell cycle?
G1
G2
S1
M1
M2
p53 stops cells entering which phase of the cell cycle?
G1
G2
S1
M1
M2
which system can you find NANCs in? [2]
GI tract [1]
blood vessels [1]
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with CD4?
Found on thymocytes, T cells, and some natural killer cells that acts as a ligand for CD58 and CD59 and is involved in signal transduction and cell adhesion
Co-receptor for MHC class II
The signalling component of the T cell receptor complex
Unique marker for natural killer cells
MHC molecule that presents lipid molecules
Co-receptor for MHC class I
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with CD4?
Found on thymocytes, T cells, and some natural killer cells that acts as a ligand for CD58 and CD59 and is involved in signal transduction and cell adhesion
Co-receptor for MHC class II
The signalling component of the T cell receptor complex
Unique marker for natural killer cells
MHC molecule that presents lipid molecules
Co-receptor for MHC class I
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with mast cells?
Involved in the cell-mediated immune response
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class II molecules
Kidney shaped nucleus
Primary phagocytic cell in acute inflammation
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class I molecules
Releases histamine during allergic response
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with mast cells?
Involved in the cell-mediated immune response
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class II molecules
Kidney shaped nucleus
Primary phagocytic cell in acute inflammation
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class I molecules
Releases histamine during allergic response
which of the following best describes edwards syndrome?
trisomy 21
trisomy 18
trisomy 13
trisomy 11
trisomy 10
which of the following best describes edwards syndrome?
trisomy 21
trisomy 18
trisomy 13
trisomy 11
trisomy 10
what is the main source of genetic variation between generations? [1] when does it occur? [1]
crossing over in prophase or metaphase
A neonate presents with hypotonia and seizures and, after a series of investigations, is diagnosed with Zellweger syndrome, a peroxisomal disorder.
What function do these organelles primarily perform?
Breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccahrides
Catabolism of long chain fatty acids
Degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged wtih ubiquitin
Lipid synthesis
Production of lysosomal enzymes
A neonate presents with hypotonia and seizures and, after a series of investigations, is diagnosed with Zellweger syndrome, a peroxisomal disorder.
What function do these organelles primarily perform?
Breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccahrides
Catabolism of long chain fatty acids
Degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged wtih ubiquitin
Lipid synthesis
Production of lysosomal enzymes
Enterococci are:
Gram-negative rod
Gram-positive rod
Gram-positive cocci
Gram-negative cocci
Enterococci are:
Gram-negative rod
Gram-positive rod
Gram-positive cocci
Gram-negative cocci
which type of transport protein is heterozygous in structure? [1]
which type of transport proteins are in homologous structure? [2]
which type of transport protein is heterozygous in structure? [1]
enyzme
which type of transport proteins are in homologous structure? [2]
GPCR, nicotinic
A 45-year-old primigravida enters the clinic. The triple screen blood test revealed an increased risk of Down’s syndrome. Further investigations are performed including amniocentesis where a prenatal diagnosis of Down’s syndrome is made.
Which genetic abnormalities most commonly causes this condition?
Deletion
Insertion
Mosiacism
Nondisjunction
Robertsonian translocation
A 45-year-old primigravida enters the clinic. The triple screen blood test revealed an increased risk of Down’s syndrome. Further investigations are performed including amniocentesis where a prenatal diagnosis of Down’s syndrome is made.
Which genetic abnormalities most commonly causes this condition?
Deletion
Insertion
Mosiacism
Nondisjunction
Robertsonian translocation
A 38-year-old female is seen in clinic regarding her treatment options following recently been diagnosed with Huntington’s disease. The doctor explains that Huntington’s disease is caused by excess triplets of DNA units called nucleotides.
What is the biochemical composition of these DNA units?
One sugar, one amine and one phosphate molecule
Two sugars, one amine and one phosphate molecule
One sugar, two amines, one phosphate molecule
One sugar, two amines, two phosphate molecules
Two sugards, two amines, three phosphate molecules
A 38-year-old female is seen in clinic regarding her treatment options following recently been diagnosed with Huntington’s disease. The doctor explains that Huntington’s disease is caused by excess triplets of DNA units called nucleotides.
What is the biochemical composition of these DNA units?
One sugar, one amine and one phosphate molecule
Two sugars, one amine and one phosphate molecule
One sugar, two amines, one phosphate molecule
One sugar, two amines, two phosphate molecules
Two sugards, two amines, three phosphate molecules
A nucleotide is made up of one sugar, one amine and one phosphate
You are a junior doctor working in orthopaedics. Whilst on a ward round, you see a patient who underwent a hemiarthroplasty 3 days ago for a broken hip. Unfortunately, they have now developed a bacterial infection of the surgical site. You consider the patient’s immune response to the bacteria which are causing this infection.
Which of the following immune-mediated processes would be occurring to help the patient fight this infection?
Eosinophuls would destroy the bacteria
IgG would enhance the phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses
IgM would dimerise to form a hexamer and activate complement system
Macrophages would produce antibodies
Neutrophils would coordinate the destruction of any parasites which may be present
You are a junior doctor working in orthopaedics. Whilst on a ward round, you see a patient who underwent a hemiarthroplasty 3 days ago for a broken hip. Unfortunately, they have now developed a bacterial infection of the surgical site. You consider the patient’s immune response to the bacteria which are causing this infection.
Which of the following immune-mediated processes would be occurring to help the patient fight this infection?
Eosinophuls would destroy the bacteria
IgG would enhance the phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses
IgM would dimerise to form a hexamer and activate complement system
Macrophages would produce antibodies
Neutrophils would coordinate the destruction of any parasites which may be present
Enhance phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses - IgG
Q1) What is the most abundant cell in scar tissue?
a. Adipocytes
b. Endothelial cells
c. Fibroblasts
d. Macrophages
e. Neutrophils
Q1) What is the most abundant cell in scar tissue?
a. Adipocytes
b. Endothelial cells
c.Fibroblasts
d. Macrophages
e. Neutrophils
In a cell, what is the function of the nucleus?
Ribosome production
Site of N-linked glycosylation
Catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids
Degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged with ubiquitin
Translation of RNA into proteins
DNA maintenance and RNA transcription
In a cell, what is the function of the nucleus?
Ribosome production
Site of N-linked glycosylation
Catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids
Degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged with ubiquitin
Translation of RNA into proteins
DNA maintenance and RNA transcription
Which of the following is responsible for activating macrophages?
Interferon-y (IFN-y)
Histamine
TNF-a
IL-1
IL-6
Which of the following is responsible for activating macrophages?
Interferon-y (IFN-y)
Histamine
TNF-a
IL-1
IL-6
Q4) Briefly explain how antibodies help prevent bacterial infections? [4]
Antibodies are critical for defence against pathogens, especially extracellular bacteria:
- Bind to them to increase their uptake by phagocytes (for example, macrophages or neutrophils),
- or to induce their killing by complement activation
- or by cellular components of the immune system (antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity, ADCC).
- Block infection by preventing the binding of pathogens to critical receptors on host cells and can neutralise the activity of toxins that cause disease.
Expresses CD4 cells & a major source IL-2
Mast cells
Helper T cells
Neutrophils
Monocytes
B cells
Cytotoxic T cells
Expresses CD4 cells & a major source IL-2
Mast cells
Helper T cells
Neutrophils
Monocytes
B cells
Cytotoxic T cells
describe the structure of collagen [3]
Triple helical structure formed by 3 peptide chains
: ▪every 3rd amino acid is glycine
▪Gly-X-Y (proline-hydroxyproline)
most commonly amplified oncogene? [1]
c MYC one
which of the following best describes patau syndrome?
trisomy 21
trisomy 18
trisomy 13
trisomy 11
trisomy 10
which of the following best describes patau syndrome?
trisomy 21
trisomy 18
trisomy 13
trisomy 11
trisomy 10
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with macrophages?
Most common type of white blood cell
Involved in phagocytosis of cellular debris and pathogens
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class I molecules
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class II molecules
Defends against protozoan and helminthic infections
Granules contain myeloperoxidase and lysozyme
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with macrophages?
Most common type of white blood cell
Involved in phagocytosis of cellular debris and pathogens
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class I molecules
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class II molecules
Defends against protozoan and helminthic infections
Granules contain myeloperoxidase and lysozyme
A 2-year-old child attends the GP surgery with chicken pox. The mother is concerned as her eldest daughter, who had chicken pox when she was 3, is about to sit the 11+ exam and she is worried she may become ill. The GP reassures the mother that she is unlikely to become infected in this case. Which of the following cells is a constituent of ‘adaptive immunity’ and will have a role in preventing a second episode of chicken pox?
NK cells
B cells
Neutrophils
Hepatocytes
Goblet cells
A 2-year-old child attends the GP surgery with chicken pox. The mother is concerned as her eldest daughter, who had chicken pox when she was 3, is about to sit the 11+ exam and she is worried she may become ill. The GP reassures the mother that she is unlikely to become infected in this case. Which of the following cells is a constituent of ‘adaptive immunity’ and will have a role in preventing a second episode of chicken pox?
NK cells
B cells
Neutrophils
Hepatocytes
Goblet cells
A 16-year-old boy presents with learning disabilities and obesity. He is diagnosed with Prader-Willi syndrome. His mother has read on-line that the disease is closely linked to Angelman syndrome.
What is the major genetic determinant which separates the two conditions?
Pleiotropy
Heteroplasmy
Mosaicism
Robertsonian translocation
Genetic imprinting
A 16-year-old boy presents with learning disabilities and obesity. He is diagnosed with Prader-Willi syndrome. His mother has read on-line that the disease is closely linked to Angelman syndrome.
What is the major genetic determinant which separates the two conditions?
Pleiotropy
Heteroplasmy
Mosaicism
Robertsonian translocation
Genetic imprinting
Genetic imprinting is defined as a difference in phenotype dependent on whether the mutation is maternal or paternal origin
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with neutrophils?
Present in tissues and are similar in function to basophils
Diffferentiates into macrophages
Defends against protozoan and helminthic infections
Acts as an antigen presenting cell
Granules contain myeloperoxidase and lysozyme
Major source of IL-2
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with neutrophils?
Present in tissues and are similar in function to basophils
Diffferentiates into macrophages
Defends against protozoan and helminthic infections
Acts as an antigen presenting cell
Granules contain myeloperoxidase and lysozyme
Major source of IL-2
ras is mutated to k-ras by which type of mutation?
point mutation: causes GTP to be permentely bound to it and allows pathway to be perm switched on
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with macrophages?
Kidney shaped nucleus
Acts as an antigen presenting cell
Primary phagocytic cell in acute inflammation
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class II molecules
Major source of IL-2
Defends against protozoan and helminthic infections
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with macrophages?
Kidney shaped nucleus
Acts as an antigen presenting cell
Primary phagocytic cell in acute inflammation
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class II molecules
Major source of IL-2
Defends against protozoan and helminthic infections
An 8-month-old baby girl is brought into the GP surgery with her mother. They both recently moved to the UK and her mother is concerned that her daughter’s appearance seems different from some of the other children in her daycare centre.
On examination, her daughter appears well. Although, it is noted that she has a shortened neck and a protruding tongue. There are a number of white spots visible in her iris.
What is the most common cytogenetic cause of this patient’s diagnosis?
Autosomal recessive
Mitochondrial inheritance
Mosiacism
Nondisjunction
Robertsonian translocation
An 8-month-old baby girl is brought into the GP surgery with her mother. They both recently moved to the UK and her mother is concerned that her daughter’s appearance seems different from some of the other children in her daycare centre.
On examination, her daughter appears well. Although, it is noted that she has a shortened neck and a protruding tongue. There are a number of white spots visible in her iris.
What is the most common cytogenetic cause of this patient’s diagnosis?
Autosomal recessive
Mitochondrial inheritance
Mosiacism
Nondisjunction: Nondisjunction is the commonest cause of Down’s syndrome
Robertsonian translocation
5% of cases of Down’s syndrome are secondary to a Robertsonian translocation and 1% of cases are secondary to mosaicism. Down’s syndrome is not inherited via autosomal recession or mitochondrial inheritance.
A 64-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital following a 6-week history of feeling generally unwell and shortness of breath. She has also lost a stone in weight over this period. On examination, you note cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. She undergoes a lymph node biopsy and is subsequently diagnosed with diffuse large B cell lymphoma.
Which of the following cytokines would normally be responsible for the proliferation of this cell type?
IL-1
IL-2
IL-5
IL-6
IL8
A 64-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital following a 6-week history of feeling generally unwell and shortness of breath. She has also lost a stone in weight over this period. On examination, you note cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. She undergoes a lymph node biopsy and is subsequently diagnosed with diffuse large B cell lymphoma.
Which of the following cytokines would normally be responsible for the proliferation of this cell type?
IL-1
IL-2
IL-5
IL-6
IL8
IL-6 - main functions include: stimulates proliferation and differentiation of B cells
A 6-year-old boy presents to the GP with recurrent chest infections and poor growth and weight gain.
The patient is referred by the GP to a paediatric clinic, who order further tests including a genetic test for mutations in the CFTR gene to screen for cystic fibrosis. This confirms a single nucleotide mutation in the CFTR gene resulting in a stop codon in place of arginine.
What is the name of this type of mutation?
Frameshift
Missense
Nonsense
Silent
Synonymous
A 6-year-old boy presents to the GP with recurrent chest infections and poor growth and weight gain.
The patient is referred by the GP to a paediatric clinic, who order further tests including a genetic test for mutations in the CFTR gene to screen for cystic fibrosis. This confirms a single nucleotide mutation in the CFTR gene resulting in a stop codon in place of arginine.
What is the name of this type of mutation?
Frameshift
Missense
Nonsense: results in stop codon
Silent
Synonymous
Effect on Vmax of uncompetitive inhibitors:
No change
Decreased
Increased
Effect on Vmax of uncompetitive inhibitors:
No change
Decreased
Increased
which NT does tetanus cause to block at NMJ? [2]
GABA
Glycine
Which cytokine is responsible for differentiating Th0 cells to Th1 cells?
TNF-A
IFN-y
IL-12
IL-4
IL-5
Which cytokine is responsible for differentiating Th0 cells to Th1 cells?
TNF-A
IFN-y
IL-12
IL-4
IL-5
which type of cartilage doesnt have a perichondrium? [1]
fibrocartilage
Which part of an antibody do immune cells bind to?
Disulfide bridge
Heavy chain of antigen binding site
Light chain of antigen binding site
Fc region
Light chain hypervariable region
Which part of an antibody do immune cells bind to?
Disulfide bridge
Heavy chain of antigen binding site
Light chain of antigen binding site
Fc region
Light chain hypervariable region
label 1-4:
1
2
3
4
You are studying enzyme-kinetics before an important exam and come across the Line-Weaver Burk plot of the Michaelis-Menten model. You need to be familiar with the all the abbreviations and their meanings.
What is represented by ‘Km’ on the Line-Weaver Burk plot?
Maximum rate of the catalysed-reaction
Half maximum rate of the catalysed-reaction
Concentration of substrate that leads to half maximal velocity
Concentration of substrate that leads to half maximal velocity
Contratrion of substrate that leads to maximal velocity
You are studying enzyme-kinetics before an important exam and come across the Line-Weaver Burk plot of the Michaelis-Menten model. You need to be familiar with the all the abbreviations and their meanings.
What is represented by ‘Km’ on the Line-Weaver Burk plot?
Maximum rate of the catalysed-reaction
Half maximum rate of the catalysed-reaction
Concentration of substrate that leads to half maximal velocity
Concentration of substrate that leads to half maximal velocity
Contratrion of substrate that leads to maximal velocity
Which one of the following cell types is the main source of tumour necrosis factor-alpha?
Th1 cells
Dendritic cells
Th2 cells
Activated T helper cells
B cells
Macrophages
Which one of the following cell types is the main source of tumour necrosis factor-alpha?
Th1 cells
Dendritic cells
Th2 cells
Activated T helper cells
B cells
Macrophages
what type of receptor is adrenergic?
ion gated
enzyme linked
intracellular
GPCR
what type of receptor is adrenergic?
ion gated
enzyme linked
intracellular
GPCR
which of the following triggers humoral immunity?
NK cells
CD4+ TH1
dendritic cells
CD4+ TH2
CD4+ Th0
which of the following triggers humoral immunity?
NK cells
CD4+ TH1
dendritic cells
CD4+ TH2
CD4+ Th0
The oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the left in:
With decreased 2,3 DPG in transfused rbc
Resp. acidosis
High altitude
Pyrexia
Haemolytic anaemia
The oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the left in:
With decreased 2,3 DPG in transfused rbc
Resp. acidosis
High altitude
Pyrexia
Haemolytic anaemia
which of the following is the step of cytokines making blood vessels more sticky when inflammation initially occurs?
rolling & activation
tethering
diapedesis & migraton
arrest
expansion
which of the following is the step of cytokines making blood vessels more sticky when inflammation initially occurs?
rolling & activation
tethering
diapedesis & migraton
arrest
expansion
A 19-year-old male presents to general practice with a sore throat and fatigue. On examination the GP remarks cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. The GP suspects a diagnosis of mononucleosis. Which of the following malignancies is most associated with Epstein- Barr Virus?
Heptacellular carinoma
Burkitts lymphoma
Oesphageal cancer
Acute lymphoblastic leukameia
Kaposi sarcoma
A 19-year-old male presents to general practice with a sore throat and fatigue. On examination the GP remarks cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. The GP suspects a diagnosis of mononucleosis. Which of the following malignancies is most associated with Epstein- Barr Virus?
Heptacellular carinoma
Burkitts lymphoma
Oesphageal cancer
Acute lymphoblastic leukameia
Kaposi sarcoma
Least abundant isotype in blood serum:
IgA
IgE
IgG
IgD
IgM
Least abundant isotype in blood serum:
IgA
IgE
IgG
IgD
IgM
which of the following link cells to underlying basement membrane?
tight junction
desmosome
hemidesmosome
gap junction
adherens / zonula adherens
which of the following link cells to underlying basement membrane?
tight junction
desmosome
hemidesmosome
gap junction
adherens / zonula adherens
which of the following activates macrophages?
NK cells
CD4+ TH1
dendritic cells
CD4+ TH2
CD4+ Th0
which of the following activates macrophages?
NK cells
CD4+ TH1
dendritic cells
CD4+ TH2
CD4+ Th0
A baby girl is diagnosed with cystic fibrosis following her heel prick test. This disease is caused by a faulty membrane protein called the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator.
Which one of the following determines the tertiary structure of the aforementioned protein?
AA sequence
Interactions between R groups of amino acids
Local H bonds
Peptide bonds
Presecne or abscence of a-helices
A baby girl is diagnosed with cystic fibrosis following her heel prick test. This disease is caused by a faulty membrane protein called the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator.
Which one of the following determines the tertiary structure of the aforementioned protein?
AA sequence
Interactions between R groups of amino acids
Local H bonds
Peptide bonds
Presecne or abscence of a-helices
A 10-year-old male is referred to an oncologist for suspected lymphoma. His symptoms include fever, night sweats, weight loss and lymphadenopathy is present on examination. Molecular testing and histological analysis of a lymph node biopsy suggest a diagnosis of Burkitt’s lymphoma. Which oncogene is associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma
ABL
p53
n-MYC
c-MYC
HER2
A 10-year-old male is referred to an oncologist for suspected lymphoma. His symptoms include fever, night sweats, weight loss and lymphadenopathy is present on examination. Molecular testing and histological analysis of a lymph node biopsy suggest a diagnosis of Burkitt’s lymphoma. Which oncogene is associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma
ABL
p53
n-MYC
c-MYC
HER2
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with monocytes?
Mediates acute and chronic organ rejection
Are responsible for hyperacute organ rejection
Present in tissues and are similar in function to basophils
Involved in the cell-mediated immune response
Involved in phagocytosis of cellular debris and pathogens
Diffferentiates into macrophages
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with monocytes?
Mediates acute and chronic organ rejection
Are responsible for hyperacute organ rejection
Present in tissues and are similar in function to basophils
Involved in the cell-mediated immune response
Involved in phagocytosis of cellular debris and pathogens
Diffferentiates into macrophages
A 37-year-old male presents to his general practitioner with a 3-month history of altered bowel habit, with occasional blood in his stool. After a series of investigations, he is discovered to have bowel cancer, which is successfully treated with a semi-colectomy. As part of his care, it is decided to screen the patient for mutated oncogenes.
What testing method would be used to screen this patient?
Centrifugation
Electron microscopy
Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay
PCR
Western blot
A 37-year-old male presents to his general practitioner with a 3-month history of altered bowel habit, with occasional blood in his stool. After a series of investigations, he is discovered to have bowel cancer, which is successfully treated with a semi-colectomy. As part of his care, it is decided to screen the patient for mutated oncogenes.
What testing method would be used to screen this patient?
Centrifugation
Electron microscopy
Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay
PCR: Polymerase chain reactions are used to detect mutated oncogenes
Western blot
During cell division, at what stage do sister chromatids move to opposite ends of the cell?
Prometaphase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase
Cytokinesis
During cell division, at what stage do sister chromatids move to opposite ends of the cell?
Prometaphase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase
Cytokinesis
which of the following are contain cadherins?
tight junction
desmosome
hemidesmosome
gap junction
which of the following are contain cadherins?
tight junction
desmosome
hemidesmosome
gap junction
which is the most potent APC?
neutrophil
plasma cell
dendritic cell
macrophages
monocytes
which is the most potent APC?
neutrophil
plasma cell
dendritic cell
macrophages
monocytes
The complement cascade can be activated via antibody-antigen complex formation via the classical pathway.
Which of the following antibody serotypes is most effective in performing this function?
IgA
IgD
IgE
IgG
IgM
The complement cascade can be activated via antibody-antigen complex formation via the classical pathway.
Which of the following antibody serotypes is most effective in performing this function?
IgA
IgD
IgE
IgG
IgM
IgM is a pentamer which has the highest complement activation capacity
which of the following is purely involved in adaptive immunity?
natural T killer cell
B cell
basophil
neutrophil
monocyte
which of the following is purely involved in adaptive immunity?
natural T killer cell
B cell
basophil
neutrophil
monocyte
which of the following binds to bacteria cell wall, changes the charge of the cell wall and causes it to rupture?
polymyxins
glycopeptide antiobiotics
penicillin
which of the following binds to bacteria cell wall, changes the charge of the cell wall and causes it to rupture?
polymyxins
glycopeptide antiobiotics
penicillin
p53 activates p21, which activates CDK2 to inibit which two cyclins? [2]
cyclins A & E
Which of the following cells is a constituent of ‘innate immunity?’
Hepatocytes
NK cells
B cells
Goblet cells
T cells
Which of the following cells is a constituent of ‘innate immunity?’
Hepatocytes
NK cells
B cells
Goblet cells
T cells
NK cells promote the destruction of cells harboring pathogens and are a component of the innate response.
B cells are responsible for antibody production and are a component of the adaptive response. T helper cells ‘help’ B cells by encouraging the production of specific antibodies.
what plane of section is this image?
coronal
transverse
sagitall
oblique
para-sagittal
what plane of section is this image?
coronal
transverse
sagitall
oblique
para-sagittal
Which type of membrane receptor is activated by muscarinic acetylcholine?
G protein-coupled receptor
Guanylate cyclase receptor
Ligand-gated ion channel receptor
Non-receptor tyrosine kinase
Receptor tyrosine kinase
Which type of membrane receptor is activated by muscarinic acetylcholine?
G protein-coupled receptor
Guanylate cyclase receptor
Ligand-gated ion channel receptor
Non-receptor tyrosine kinase
Receptor tyrosine kinase
A middle-aged man goes to see his GP about a recent high cholesterol reading. The GP knows he could help reduce this man’s cholesterol by giving him a class of drug called a statin.
Which of the following enzymes is the target of these drugs?
Cartinine-palmitoyl transferase I
Cartinine-palmitoyl transferase II
Acetyl-CoA carboxoylase
HMG-CoA synthase
HMG-CoA reductase
A middle-aged man goes to see his GP about a recent high cholesterol reading. The GP knows he could help reduce this man’s cholesterol by giving him a class of drug called a statin.
Which of the following enzymes is the target of these drugs?
Cartinine-palmitoyl transferase I
Cartinine-palmitoyl transferase II
Acetyl-CoA carboxoylase
HMG-CoA synthase
HMG-CoA reductase
A 10-year-old boy presents with an itchy rash on his elbows. The rash is red and there are excoriation marks. He has a past history of hay fever and has generally dry skin. The GP diagnoses him with eczema and he is prescribed hydrocortisone. The GP also explains that there are certain triggers which the boy may be hypersensitive to, including dust. Which antibody is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity?
IgG
IgA
IgD
IgE
IgM
A 10-year-old boy presents with an itchy rash on his elbows. The rash is red and there are excoriation marks. He has a past history of hay fever and has generally dry skin. The GP diagnoses him with eczema and he is prescribed hydrocortisone. The GP also explains that there are certain triggers which the boy may be hypersensitive to, including dust. Which antibody is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity?
IgG
IgA
IgD
IgE
IgM
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with basophils?
Are responsible for hyperacute organ rejection
Defends against protozoan and helminthic infections
Involved in the cell-mediated immune response
Multi-lobed nucleus
Releases histamine during allergic response
Kidney shaped nucleus
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with basophils?
Are responsible for hyperacute organ rejection
Defends against protozoan and helminthic infections
Involved in the cell-mediated immune response
Multi-lobed nucleus
Releases histamine during allergic response
Kidney shaped nucleus
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with helper T cells?
Involved in phagocytosis of cellular debris and pathogens
Kidney shaped nucleus
Induce apoptosis in virally infected and tumour cells
Major source of IL-2
Major cell of the humoral immune response
Differentiated from B cells
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with helper T cells?
Involved in phagocytosis of cellular debris and pathogens
Kidney shaped nucleus
Induce apoptosis in virally infected and tumour cells
Major source of IL-2
Major cell of the humoral immune response
Differentiated from B cells
what is the exact point mutation that causes ras gene to be mutagenic?
- single nucleotide exchange GGC TO GTC in bladder cancers (glycine -> valine)
name a receptor, when overexpressed causes cancer? [1]
HER2
which of the following do you find immediately deep to tight junction?
desmosome
hemidesmosome
gap junction
adherens / zonula adherens
which of the following do you find immediately deep to tight junction?
desmosome
hemidesmosome
gap junction
adherens / zonula adherens
which leukocyte’s granules contain histamine and heparin?
eosinophils
basophils
dendritic cells
monocytes
neutrophils
which leukocyte’s granules contain histamine and heparin?
eosinophils
basophils
dendritic cells
monocytes
neutrophils
Q5) What is the difference between naïve and memory T-lymphocyte cells? [2]
- Memory T-cells do not require costimulatory signals from APCs to become activated in response to an infection and
- respond more quickly to antigenic stimulation (proliferate faster and reach higher numbers than naïve T-cells following antigenic stimulation).
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with cytotoxic T cells?
Are responsible for hyperacute organ rejection
Granules contain myeloperoxidase and lysozyme
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class II molecules
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class I molecules
Major source of IL-2
Differentiated from B cells
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with cytotoxic T cells?
Are responsible for hyperacute organ rejection
Granules contain myeloperoxidase and lysozyme
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class II molecules
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class I molecules
Major source of IL-2
Differentiated from B cells
name 4 derivatives from cholesterol [4]
- steroid hormones
- sex hormones
- vitamin D
- bile salts
which of the following detects vibration of skin?
meissner
ruffini
merkel
pancinian
which of the following detects vibration of skin?
meissner
ruffini
merkel
pancinian
A 25-year-old woman who immigrated from Papua New Guinea with her parents as a child is coming for preconception counselling. Both her parents are known to be sickle cell trait carriers, and she is worried about her future child as she has seen sickle cell disease in others as a child. Her partner is known to also be a sickle cell trait carrier. Sickle cell disease is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.
What is the chance that the woman is a carrier of the sickle cell trait?
0%
12.5%
25%
50%
75%
A 25-year-old woman who immigrated from Papua New Guinea with her parents as a child is coming for preconception counselling. Both her parents are known to be sickle cell trait carriers, and she is worried about her future child as she has seen sickle cell disease in others as a child. Her partner is known to also be a sickle cell trait carrier. Sickle cell disease is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.
What is the chance that the woman is a carrier of the sickle cell trait?
0%
12.5%
25%
50%
75%
For autosomal recessive conditions, if both parents are carriers (heterozygote) there is a 50% chance of having a carrier (heterozygote) child
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with plasma cells?
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class I molecules
Present in tissues and are similar in function to basophils
Are responsible for hyperacute organ rejection
Differentiated from B cells
Major cell of the humoral immune response
Diffferentiates into macrophages
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with plasma cells?
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class I molecules
Present in tissues and are similar in function to basophils
Are responsible for hyperacute organ rejection
Differentiated from B cells
Major cell of the humoral immune response
Diffferentiates into macrophages
describe Turner syndrome?
Turner syndrome -(45, X) Loss of X chr: 1/5000 females. 99% lost spon. in preg. short. abscence of menstruation (amenorrhea). congenital heart d: 20%. webbed neck
which type of collagen does osteogenesis imperfecta occur in? [1]
type 1 (think bones !)
which of the following allow the passage of ions and small molecules between cells?
tight junction
desmosome
hemidesmosome
gap junction
adhering belt / zonula adherens
which of the following allow the passage of ions and small molecules between cells?
tight junction
desmosome
hemidesmosome
gap junction
adhering belt / zonula adherens
In terms of DNA mutations, missense:
A mutation that results in a stop codon
A mutation that does not change the amino acid, often base change in 3rd position of codon
A point mutation that changes the amino acid sequence, which in turn may make the protein non-functional
Caused by insertion or deletion of a number of nucleotides which results in the subsequent reading of the DNA ‘downstream’ being completely wrong
In terms of DNA mutations, missense:
A mutation that results in a stop codon
A mutation that does not change the amino acid, often base change in 3rd position of codon
A point mutation that changes the amino acid sequence, which in turn may make the protein non-functional
Caused by insertion or deletion of a number of nucleotides which results in the subsequent reading of the DNA ‘downstream’ being completely wrong
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with CD8?
Receptor for Epstein-Barr virus
Found on cytotoxic T cells
Interacts with B7 on antigen presenting cell as costimulation signal
Found on thymocytes, T cells, and some natural killer cells that acts as a ligand for CD58 and CD59 and is involved in signal transduction and cell adhesion
Found on helper T cells
Co-receptor for MHC class II
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with CD8?
Receptor for Epstein-Barr virus
Found on cytotoxic T cells
Interacts with B7 on antigen presenting cell as costimulation signal
Found on thymocytes, T cells, and some natural killer cells that acts as a ligand for CD58 and CD59 and is involved in signal transduction and cell adhesion
Found on helper T cells
Co-receptor for MHC class II
Which one of the following is associated with the G2 phase of the cell cycle?
Under influence of p53
Synthesis of DNA, RNA and histones
Determines length of cell cycle
Quiescence
Centrosome duplication
Cells increase in size
Which one of the following is associated with the G2 phase of the cell cycle?
Under influence of p53
Synthesis of DNA, RNA and histones
Determines length of cell cycle
Quiescence
Centrosome duplication
Cells increase in size
During a rotation in the colorectal surgical department, you spend a morning observing a colonoscopy list. Many of the patients who come during the morning are sufferers of the genetic condition Hereditary Non-Polyposis Colorectal Cancer (HNPCC) who are being screened to try to catch any development of colorectal cancer early in the presentation.
You know that a high percentage of those who express this genetic mutation will develop colorectal cancer, although this is not the same with all genetic mutations.
What is the genetics term used to describes the above?
Heterogenicity
Inheritance
Penetrance
Prevalence
Punnet Diagram
During a rotation in the colorectal surgical department, you spend a morning observing a colonoscopy list. Many of the patients who come during the morning are sufferers of the genetic condition Hereditary Non-Polyposis Colorectal Cancer (HNPCC) who are being screened to try to catch any development of colorectal cancer early in the presentation.
You know that a high percentage of those who express this genetic mutation will develop colorectal cancer, although this is not the same with all genetic mutations.
What is the genetics term used to describes the above?
Heterogenicity
Inheritance
Penetrance
Prevalence
Punnet Diagram
which of the following is a hemidesmosome?
A
B
C
D
E
which of the following is a hemidesmosome?
A
B
C
D
E
what is this structure? [1]
Midbrain [1]
which of the following best describes: ‘portion of antigen that is recognised and bound by a receptor on an immune cell”
immunogen
epitope
immunoglobin
antibody
IL-2
which of the following best describes: ‘portion of antigen that is recognised and bound by a receptor on an immune cell”
immunogen
epitope
immunoglobin
antibody
IL-2
What type of receptor does this adrenaline act on?
Enzyme linked receptor
GPRC
Internal receptor
Ion channel-linked receptor
Voltage-sensitve ion channel
What type of receptor does this adrenaline act on?
Enzyme linked receptor
GPRC
Internal receptor
Ion channel-linked receptor
Voltage-sensitve ion channel
A 66-year-old woman undergoes surgery for ovarian cancer and subsequently starts adjuvant chemotherapy including paclitaxel. The mechanism of action of this drug is to disrupt tubulin, a protein which forms microtubules.
What is the best description of the normal function of these structures?
Biosynthesis of the lipid membrane
Faciliating vesicle docking with other organelles
Guide movement during intracellular transport and help bind internal organelles
Maintain the cells shape and help with DNA translation
Transport of substances across the cell membrane
A 66-year-old woman undergoes surgery for ovarian cancer and subsequently starts adjuvant chemotherapy including paclitaxel. The mechanism of action of this drug is to disrupt tubulin, a protein which forms microtubules.
What is the best description of the normal function of these structures?
Biosynthesis of the lipid membrane
Faciliating vesicle docking with other organelles
Guide movement during intracellular transport and help bind internal organelles
Maintain the cells shape and help with DNA translation
Transport of substances across the cell membrane
Fixes complement but does not pass to the fetal circulation:
IgE
IgA
IgD
IgM
IgG
Fixes complement but does not pass to the fetal circulation:
IgE
IgA
IgD
IgM
IgG
IgE:
Transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis
Least abundant isotype in blood serum
Fixes complement but does not pass to the fetal circulation
First immunoglobulins to be secreted in response to an infection
Fixes complement and passes to the fetal circulation
Pentamer when secreted
IgE:
Transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis
Least abundant isotype in blood serum
Fixes complement but does not pass to the fetal circulation
First immunoglobulins to be secreted in response to an infection
Fixes complement and passes to the fetal circulation
Pentamer when secreted
Which one of the following best describes the function of the p53 gene?
Inhibits angiogenesis
Oncogene
Encodes proteins which regulate cell cycle
Encodes proteins which activate of NK cells
Encodes proteins which directly repair damaged DNA
Which one of the following best describes the function of the p53 gene?
Inhibits angiogenesis
Oncogene
Encodes proteins which regulate cell cycle
Encodes proteins which activate of NK cells
Encodes proteins which directly repair damaged DNA
p53 - plays a crucial role in the cell cycle, preventing entry into the S phase until DNA has been checked and repaired
Collagen is the major component of connective tissues that make up several body parts, including tendons, ligaments, skin and muscles. Its protein structure is primarily due to interactions between the R groups of the amino acids that make up the protein.
What level of protein structure does this refer to?
Primary structure
Secondary strucutre
Tertairy structure
Quaternary structure
Quinary structure
Collagen is the major component of connective tissues that make up several body parts, including tendons, ligaments, skin and muscles. Its protein structure is primarily due to interactions between the R groups of the amino acids that make up the protein.
What level of protein structure does this refer to?
Primary structure
Secondary strucutre
Tertairy structure
Quaternary structure
Quinary structure
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with monocytes?
Major cell of the humoral immune response
Involved in phagocytosis of cellular debris and pathogens
Kidney shaped nucleus
Most common type of white blood cell
Granules contain myeloperoxidase and lysozyme
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class I molecules
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with monocytes?
Major cell of the humoral immune response
Involved in phagocytosis of cellular debris and pathogens
Kidney shaped nucleus
Most common type of white blood cell
Granules contain myeloperoxidase and lysozyme
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class I molecules
which of the following detects pressure & texture of skin?
meissner
ruffini
merkel
pancinian
which of the following detects pressure & texture of skin?
meissner
ruffini
merkel
pancinian
when does cyclin B work?
G1
Interphase
G2
S1
S2
when does cyclin B work?
G1
Interphase
G2
S1
S2
A 3-year-old girl is seen in a clinic by a family doctor. She has just returned from South Africa and has presented with severe sunburn on her face and arms. She has always had freckles on face, arms and legs. The parents describe that her skin becomes worse when she goes out in the sun.
On examination, she has dry and scaly skin and has irregular dark spots on the skin.
Keeping in mind the most likely diagnosis, what is the underlying cause of her condition?
Defect in mismatch repair
Defect in excision repair
Defect in nucleotide excision repair
Vitamin C deficiency
Vitamin B7 deficiency
A 3-year-old girl is seen in a clinic by a family doctor. She has just returned from South Africa and has presented with severe sunburn on her face and arms. She has always had freckles on face, arms and legs. The parents describe that her skin becomes worse when she goes out in the sun.
On examination, she has dry and scaly skin and has irregular dark spots on the skin.
Keeping in mind the most likely diagnosis, what is the underlying cause of her condition?
Defect in mismatch repair
Defect in excision repair
Defect in nucleotide excision repair - A defect in nucleotide excision repair is found in xeroderma pigmentosum
Vitamin C deficiency
Vitamin B7 deficiency
Ehlers Danlos syndrome is classically caused by defects in collagen type V. What is the most common type of collagen?
Collagen Type I
Collagen Type II
Collagen Type III
Collagen Type IV
Collagen Type V
Ehlers Danlos syndrome is classically caused by defects in collagen type V. What is the most common type of collagen?
Collagen Type I
Collagen Type II
Collagen Type III
Collagen Type IV
Collagen Type V
Which one of the following is one of the main functions of tumour necrosis factor-alpha?
Neutrophil chemotaxis
Acute inflammation
Stimulates differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 cells
Activates macrophages
Stimulates growth and differentiation of T cell response
Activates NK cells
Which one of the following is one of the main functions of tumour necrosis factor-alpha?
Neutrophil chemotaxis
Acute inflammation
Stimulates differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 cells
Activates macrophages
Stimulates growth and differentiation of T cell response
Activates NK cells
Which of the following best describes mitosis?
Longest phase of cell cycle
Resting phase of the cycle
Determines the length of the cycle
Centrosome duplication
Shortest phase of cell cycle
Which of the following best describes mitosis?
Longest phase of cell cycle
Resting phase of the cycle
Determines the length of the cycle
Centrosome duplication
Shortest phase of cell cycle
how do you calculate the proportion of pop. that needs to be vaccinated to eliminate virus?
1-1/Ro
Mediates type 1 hypersensitivity reactions:
IgM
IgE
IgD
IgG
IgA
Mediates type 1 hypersensitivity reactions:
IgM
IgE
IgD
IgG
IgA
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with mast cells?
Acts as an antigen presenting cell
Are responsible for hyperacute organ rejection
Differentiated from B cells
Granules contain histamine and heparin
Most common type of white blood cell
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class II molecules
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with mast cells?
Acts as an antigen presenting cell
Are responsible for hyperacute organ rejection
Differentiated from B cells
Granules contain histamine and heparin
Most common type of white blood cell
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class II molecules
diaphragm attaches to the spine at:
T10
T11
T12
L1
L2
diaphragm attaches to the spine at:
T10
T11
T12
L1
L2
what does the appendix connect to? [1]
cecum
Acts as an antigen presenting cell:
Plasma cells
B cells
Helper T cells
Natural killer cells
Monocytes
Neutrophils
Acts as an antigen presenting cell:
Plasma cells
B cells
Helper T cells
Natural killer cells
Monocytes
Neutrophils
which of the following link cytoskeletons of adjacent cells to form strong cohesive epithelium? [2]
tight junction
desmosome
hemidesmosome
gap junction
adherens
which of the following link cytoskeletons of adjacent cells to form strong cohesive epithelium?
tight junction
desmosome
hemidesmosome
gap junction
adhering belt / zonula adherens
which of the following muscarinic receptor is located in eye / lungs / gut?
M1
M2
M3
M4
m5
which of the following muscarinic receptor is located in eye / lungs / gut?
M1
M2
M3
M4
m5
what cell type is this?
eosinophils
basophils
lymphocyte
monocytes
neutrophils
what cell type is this?
eosinophils
basophils
lymphocyte
monocytes
neutrophils
which of the following contain integrins?
tight junction
desmosome
hemidesmosome
gap junction
which of the following contain integrins?
tight junction
desmosome
hemidesmosome
gap junction
Two male patients with Marfan syndrome are reviewed in clinic. Both have confirmed mutations in the same gene, FBN1, on chromosome 15.
While the patients are closely matched in age, one is noted to have severe skeletal abnormalities, including marked thoracic lordosis and pectus excavatum, while the other has a near-normal skeletal examination.
Which genetic term best accounts for the differences in phenotype between these two individuals?
Aneuploidy
Anticipation
Expressivity
Penetrance
X-inactivation
Two male patients with Marfan syndrome are reviewed in clinic. Both have confirmed mutations in the same gene, FBN1, on chromosome 15.
While the patients are closely matched in age, one is noted to have severe skeletal abnormalities, including marked thoracic lordosis and pectus excavatum, while the other has a near-normal skeletal examination.
Which genetic term best accounts for the differences in phenotype between these two individuals?
Aneuploidy
Anticipation
Expressivity
Penetrance
X-inactivation
In genetics, expressivity describes the extent to which a genotype shows its phenotypic expression in an individual
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with plasma cells?
Are responsible for hyperacute organ rejection
Produces large amounts of antibody specific to a particular antigen
Major source of IL-1
Expresses CD8
Multi-lobed nucleus
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class II molecules
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with plasma cells?
Are responsible for hyperacute organ rejection
Produces large amounts of antibody specific to a particular antigen
Major source of IL-1
Expresses CD8
Multi-lobed nucleus
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class II molecules
how do you calculate the proportion of the population sus. to virus (aka epidemic threshold)?
1/Ro
Ro = av. number of new transmissions per case over infectious period in sus or non vaccinated pop
Which cell is responsible for the production of IL-1?
Neutrophils
Basophils
Eosinophils
T cells
Macrophages
Which cell is responsible for the production of IL-1?
Neutrophils
Basophils
Eosinophils
T cells
Macrophages
In a cell, what is the function of the nucleolus?
DNA maintenance and RNA transcription
Breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccharides
Ribosome production
Translation and folding of new proteins
Aerobic respiration. Contains mitochondrial genome as circular DNA
Translation of RNA into proteins
In a cell, what is the function of the nucleolus?
DNA maintenance and RNA transcription
Breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccharides
Ribosome production
Translation and folding of new proteins
Aerobic respiration. Contains mitochondrial genome as circular DNA
Translation of RNA into proteins
which of the following is a desmosome?
A
B
C
D
E
which of the following is a desmosome?
A
B
C
D
E
which of the following best describes Klinefelter syndrome
45X-
47 XXY
47 XYY
45Y-
which of the following best describes Klinefelter syndrome
45X-
47 XXY
47 XYY
45Y-
label A-E
What usually stimulates platelet production?
Thrombopoetin
IL-5
EPO
Granulocyte-colony stimulating factor
IL-4
What usually stimulates platelet production?
Thrombopoetin
IL-5
EPO
Granulocyte-colony stimulating factor
IL-4
which of the following is a gap junction?
A
B
C
D
E
which of the following is a gap junction?
A
B
C
D
E
which of the following are moves into tissue and becomes a macrophage?
eosinophils
basophils
dendritic cells
monocytes
neutrophils
which of the following are moves into tissue and becomes a macrophage?
eosinophils
basophils
dendritic cells
monocytes
neutrophils
what do beta-lactam antibiotics target? [1]
bacteria cell wall synthesis
describe structure of a proteoglycan? [1]
core protein attached to glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) [1]
what is the arrow pointing to in the lamina propria of the gastric mucosa?
smooth muscle cells
endothelial cells
plasma cells
lymphocytes
fibroblasts
what is the arrow pointing to in the lamina propria of the gastric mucosa?
smooth muscle cells
endothelial cells
plasma cells
lymphocytes
fibroblasts
A 16-year-old patient is brought into GP by her mother with concerns that she has not yet entered puberty. The patient states that she experiences bullying amongst her peers as a result of her appearance, short height and the weight she has recently put on despite eating very little. She reports low mood and no longer experiencing joy from the activities she used to like. She informs you that she is the only girl in her class to not have experienced periods. She is also concerned that her breasts have not developed, and her nipples are widely spaced apart.
On examination, the patient has a webbed neck. Examination of the oropharynx reveals a high-arched palate. The patient is referred to a paediatrician, who subsequently refers the patient to the genetics team. As part of their assessment, the genetics team order a karyotype.
Given the likely diagnosis, what results would be expected from the karyotype?
Trisomy 13
Trisomy 18
Trisomy 21
45, XO
47, XX7
A 16-year-old patient is brought into GP by her mother with concerns that she has not yet entered puberty. The patient states that she experiences bullying amongst her peers as a result of her appearance, short height and the weight she has recently put on despite eating very little. She reports low mood and no longer experiencing joy from the activities she used to like. She informs you that she is the only girl in her class to not have experienced periods. She is also concerned that her breasts have not developed, and her nipples are widely spaced apart.
On examination, the patient has a webbed neck. Examination of the oropharynx reveals a high-arched palate. The patient is referred to a paediatrician, who subsequently refers the patient to the genetics team. As part of their assessment, the genetics team order a karyotype.
Given the likely diagnosis, what results would be expected from the karyotype?
Trisomy 13
Trisomy 18
Trisomy 21
45, XO - Turner syndrome - 45,XO
47, XX7
what controls T cell expansion? [1]
Il-2
which of the following is located presynaptically?
- alpha 1
- alpha 2
- beta 1
- beta 2
- beta 3
which of the following is located presynaptically?
- alpha 1
- *- alpha 2**
- beta 1
- beta 2
- beta 3
Acetylcholine:
Principal excitatory neurotransmitter of the cortex
Major neurotransmitter in preganglionic sympathetic neurons
Made in the substantia nigra pars reticulata
Causes renal vasodilation
Levels are elevated in anxiety
Increased in patients with schizophrenia
Acetylcholine:
Principal excitatory neurotransmitter of the cortex
Major neurotransmitter in preganglionic sympathetic neurons
Made in the substantia nigra pars reticulata
Causes renal vasodilation
Levels are elevated in anxiety
Increased in patients with schizophrenia
which of the following contain claudlins?
tight junction
desmosome
hemidesmosome
gap junction
which of the following contain claudlins?
tight junction
desmosome
hemidesmosome
gap junction
A 28-year-old female is pregnant and attends her 20-week anomaly scan. During her appointment, she is informed that her baby is a boy.
What is his chromosomal arrangement?
23 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes (XY)
22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes (XX)
24 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes (XY)
22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes (XY)
23 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes (XX)
A 28-year-old female is pregnant and attends her 20-week anomaly scan. During her appointment, she is informed that her baby is a boy.
What is his chromosomal arrangement?
23 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes (XY)
22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes (XX)
24 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes (XY)
22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes (XY)
23 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes (XX)
DNA ligase:
Unwinds the DNA at the replication fork
Removes RNA primers and replaces them with DNA
Seals up the fragments
Fluoroquinolones inhibit this enzyme
Elongates the leading strand of DNA in a 5’-3’ direction
Prevents supercoiling during replication
DNA ligase:
Unwinds the DNA at the replication fork
Removes RNA primers and replaces them with DNA
Seals up the fragments
Fluoroquinolones inhibit this enzyme
Elongates the leading strand of DNA in a 5’-3’ direction
Prevents supercoiling during replication
which nuclei in the hypothalamus recieve information regarding:
a) warm temperatures [1]
b) cold temperatures [2]
- preoptic area (POA) monitors core temperature: recieves input from warm receptors from skin and and internal receptors
- paraventricular (PVN) and dorsomedial hypothalamic (DMH) nuclei: recieve input from cold
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with B cells?
Defends against protozoan and helminthic infections
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class I molecules
Expresses CD28
Major source of IL-2
Acts as an antigen presenting cell
Produces large amounts of antibody specific to a particular antigen
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with B cells?
Defends against protozoan and helminthic infections
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class I molecules
Expresses CD28
Major source of IL-2
Acts as an antigen presenting cell
Produces large amounts of antibody specific to a particular antigen
A 4-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her mother with a sore throat. She has a rare immunodeficiency syndrome where she has low levels of CD4 T cells, which is caused by a deficiency in the molecule that stimulates their proliferation by presenting bacterial antigens.
What is most likely to be deficient?
Antibodies
MHC Class I
MHC Class II
Interferon
ILs
A 4-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her mother with a sore throat. She has a rare immunodeficiency syndrome where she has low levels of CD4 T cells, which is caused by a deficiency in the molecule that stimulates their proliferation by presenting bacterial antigens.
What is most likely to be deficient?
Antibodies
MHC Class I
MHC Class II
Interferon
ILs
which vertebral levels are the paravertebral ganglia found?
T1-T4
T1-L2
T5-T10
T5-T12
T5-L2
which vertebral levels are the paravertebral ganglia found?
T1-T4
T1-L2
T5-T10
T5-T12
T5-L2
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with helper T cells?
Granules contain myeloperoxidase and lysozyme
Mediates acute and chronic organ rejection
Multi-lobed nucleus
Produces large amounts of antibody specific to a particular antigen
Bi-lobed nucleus
Expresses CD8
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with helper T cells?
Granules contain myeloperoxidase and lysozyme
Mediates acute and chronic organ rejection
Multi-lobed nucleus
Produces large amounts of antibody specific to a particular antigen
Bi-lobed nucleus
Expresses CD8
In terms of DNA mutations, frameshift:
A point mutation that changes the amino acid sequence, which in turn may make the protein non-functional
A mutation that results in a stop codon
Caused by insertion or deletion of a number of nucleotides which results in the subsequent reading of the DNA ‘downstream’ being completely wrong
A mutation that does not change the amino acid, often base change in 3rd position of codon
In terms of DNA mutations, frameshift:
A point mutation that changes the amino acid sequence, which in turn may make the protein non-functional
A mutation that results in a stop codon
Caused by insertion or deletion of a number of nucleotides which results in the subsequent reading of the DNA ‘downstream’ being completely wrong
A mutation that does not change the amino acid, often base change in 3rd position of codon
describe Turner syndrome?
Turner syndrome -(45, X) Loss of X chr: 1/5000 females. 99% lost spon. in preg. short. abscence of menstruation (amenorrhea). congenital heart d: 20%. webbed neck
which of the following control paracellular diffusion & prevents exchange of intrinsic proteins and lipids between apical and basolateral plasma membrane?
tight junction
desmosome
hemidesmosome
gap junction
adherens
which of the following control paracellular diffusion & prevents exchange of intrinsic proteins and lipids between apical and basolateral plasma membrane?
tight junction
desmosome
hemidesmosome
gap junction
adhering belt / zonula adherens
Folding of newly synthesized polypeptides in the crowded cellular environment requires the assistance of so-called molecular WHAT proteins
chaperone proteins
which cyclin allows cell cycle to continue to mitosis?
cyclin A
cyclin B
cyclin D
cyclin E
cyclin F
which cyclin allows cell cycle to continue to mitosis?
cyclin A
cyclin B
cyclin D
cyclin E
cyclin F
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with eosinophils?
Releases histamine during allergic response
Multi-lobed nucleus
Major source of IL-1
Are responsible for hyperacute organ rejection
Defends against protozoan and helminthic infections
Kidney shaped nucleus
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with eosinophils?
Releases histamine during allergic response
Multi-lobed nucleus
Major source of IL-1
Are responsible for hyperacute organ rejection
Defends against protozoan and helminthic infections
Kidney shaped nucleus
how many ATPs are used [1] and produced [1] in glycolysis?
2 used
4 produced
which chromosmes udergo crossing in Robertsonian translocation for downs syndrome?
14 & 21
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with neutrophils?
Produces large amounts of antibody specific to a particular antigen
Induce apoptosis in virally infected and tumour cells
Are responsible for hyperacute organ rejection
Defends against protozoan and helminthic infections
Kidney shaped nucleus
Primary phagocytic cell in acute inflammation
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with neutrophils?
Produces large amounts of antibody specific to a particular antigen
Induce apoptosis in virally infected and tumour cells
Are responsible for hyperacute organ rejection
Defends against protozoan and helminthic infections
Kidney shaped nucleus
Primary phagocytic cell in acute inflammation
A newly born baby is diagnosed with Down syndrome. The geneticist confirms that there is the presence of two genetically different populations of cells in the body 46,XY and 47,XY,+21.
What process has resulted in the development of Down syndrome in this child?
Non-disjunction
Robertsonian translocation
Mosiacism
Non-penetrance
Haploidy
A newly born baby is diagnosed with Down syndrome. The geneticist confirms that there is the presence of two genetically different populations of cells in the body 46,XY and 47,XY,+21.
What process has resulted in the development of Down syndrome in this child?
Non-disjunction
Robertsonian translocation
Mosiacism
Non-penetrance
Haploidy
which of the following is a tight junction?
A
B
C
D
E
which of the following is a tight junction?
A
B
C
D
E
A 54-year-old female presents to see her GP as she has just been diagnosed with breast cancer. The underlying pathology of malignancy involves a failure of apoptosis. Where do the receptors which induce apoptosis occur within cells?
Nucleus
SER
RER
Rb
Membrane
A 54-year-old female presents to see her GP as she has just been diagnosed with breast cancer. The underlying pathology of malignancy involves a failure of apoptosis. Where do the receptors which induce apoptosis occur within cells?
Nucleus
SER
RER
Rb
Membrane
Which of the following structures is/are derived from the neural crest?
Facial and skull bones
Kidneys, ureters, gonads
Anterior pituitary
Spinal cord
Bones (except facial and skull)
Thyroid, parathyroid, thymus
Which of the following structures is/are derived from the neural crest?
Facial and skull bones
Kidneys, ureters, gonads
Anterior pituitary
Spinal cord
Bones (except facial and skull)
Thyroid, parathyroid, thymus
which of the following blocks D-Ala binding in bacterial cell wall and therefore stops it forming cross links by forming H-bonds between the D-ala
polymyxins
glycopeptide antiobiotics
penicillin
which of the following blocks D-Ala binding in bacterial cell wall and therefore stops it forming cross links by forming H-bonds between the D-ala
polymyxins
glycopeptide antiobiotics
penicillin
Most of the signals carried within the brain are excitatory, with a neurotransmitter causing activation of the post-synaptic neurone. Glutamate is the most important excitatory neurotransmitter within the brain.
Activation of which of the following receptors by glutamate causes immediate activation of the post-synaptic neurone?
Nicotinic receptor
Alpha-2 receptor
Beta-3 receptor
AMPA receptor
NMDA receptor
Most of the signals carried within the brain are excitatory, with a neurotransmitter causing activation of the post-synaptic neurone. Glutamate is the most important excitatory neurotransmitter within the brain.
Activation of which of the following receptors by glutamate causes immediate activation of the post-synaptic neurone?
Nicotinic receptor
Alpha-2 receptor
Beta-3 receptor
AMPA receptor
NMDA receptor
what plane of section is this image?
coronal
transverse
sagitall
oblique
para-sagittal
what plane of section is this image?
coronal
transverse
sagitall
oblique
para-sagittal
which part of antibody dictates its function after binding to antigen?
FAB region
Fc region
which part of antibody dictates its function after binding to antigen?
FAB region
Fc region: determines if its IgE / M etc
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with helper T cells?
Granules contain histamine and heparin
Major cell of the humoral immune response
Expresses CD4
Expresses CD8
Kidney shaped nucleus
Releases histamine during allergic response
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with helper T cells?
Granules contain histamine and heparin
Major cell of the humoral immune response
Expresses CD4
Expresses CD8
Kidney shaped nucleus
Releases histamine during allergic response
Which cell organelle is involved in the synthesis of lipids?
GA
SER
Ribosome
RER
Nucleolus
Which cell organelle is involved in the synthesis of lipids?
GA
SER
Ribosome
RER
Nucleolus
Mediates acute and chronic organ rejection:
Mast cells
Natural killer cells
Neutrophils
Monocytes
B cells
Cytotoxic T cells
Mediates acute and chronic organ rejection:
Mast cells
Natural killer cells
Neutrophils
Monocytes
B cells
Cytotoxic T cells
which of the following is the step of where leukocytes move through BV wall to site of inflammation?
rolling & activation
tethering
diapedesis & migraton
arrest
expansion
which of the following is the step of where leukocytes move through BV wall to site of inflammation?
rolling & activation
tethering
diapedesis & migraton
arrest
expansion
which of the following is an inhibatory adrenergic receptor?
- alpha 1
- alpha 2
- beta 1
- beta 2
- beta 3
which of the following is an inhibatory adrenergic receptor?
- alpha 1
- *- alpha 2**
- beta 1
- beta 2
- beta 3
Which of the following acts by stimulating CD4 and CD8 T-cell proliferation and differentiation into effector T cells and memory T cells?
IL-1
IL-2
IL-4
IL-5
IL-6
Which of the following acts by stimulating CD4 and CD8 T-cell proliferation and differentiation into effector T cells and memory T cells?
IL-1
IL-2
IL-4
IL-5
IL-6
which of the following is an adherens molecule?
A
B
C
D
E
which of the following is a gap junction?
A
B
C
D
E
what plane of section is this image?
coronal
transverse
sagitall
oblique
para-sagittal
what plane of section is this image?
coronal
transverse
sagittal
oblique
para-sagittal
which of the following does integrin belong to?
collagen
glycoprotein
elastin
proteoglycan
which of the following does integrin belong to?
collagen
glycoprotein
elastin
proteoglycan
what test do u use to see if can lyse blood? [1]
Lance field antigen
You are a foundation year 2 doctor who has been asked to have blood testing to assess for antibodies to the novel coronavirus (COVID-19) as part of a hospital-wide screening programme. You ask the phlebotomist which antibody is being assessed for, and he informs you that it is an IgG antibody test.
Which of the following best describes the role of this antibody?
Enhances phagocytosis of the novel coroanvirus
First immunglobin released upon contraction of the novel coranvirus
Provides immunity to parasites
secreteted in urogeneital tract in response of the novel covid
transferred through breast milk to provide neonatal protection from the novel covid
You are a foundation year 2 doctor who has been asked to have blood testing to assess for antibodies to the novel coronavirus (COVID-19) as part of a hospital-wide screening programme. You ask the phlebotomist which antibody is being assessed for, and he informs you that it is an IgG antibody test.
Which of the following best describes the role of this antibody?
Enhances phagocytosis of the novel coroanvirus
First immunglobin released upon contraction of the novel coranvirus
Provides immunity to parasites
secreteted in urogeneital tract in response of the novel covid
transferred through breast milk to provide neonatal protection from the novel covid
which of the following detects light touch of skin?
meissner
ruffini
merkel
pancinian
which of the following detects light touch of skin?
meissner
ruffini
merkel
pancinian
Q2) There are two types of MHC proteins, which are important for T-cell activation. Class I and Class II. Class I proteins are expressed and displayed by all nucleated cells in the body. Class II are less widely distributed and are only found on the surfaces of cells that present antigens to CD4 cells.
Which of the following cell types would not display MHC type I on its surface?
A B-cells
B Dendritic cell
C Endothelia cell
D Erythrocyte
E Macrophages
Q2) There are two types of MHC proteins, which are important for T-cell activation. Class I and Class II. Class I proteins are expressed and displayed by all nucleated cells in the body. Class II are less widely distributed and are only found on the surfaces of cells that present antigens to CD4 cells.
Which of the following cell types would not display MHC type I on its surface?
A B-cells
B Dendritic cell
C Endothelia cell
D Erythrocyte
E Macrophages
which of the following acts a substatrate for transpeptidase & blocks it working?
polymyxins
glycopeptide antiobiotics
penicillin
which of the following acts a substatrate for transpeptidase & blocks it working?
polymyxins
glycopeptide antiobiotics
penicillin
Which of the following cells are responsible for secreting Il-6?
B-cells
Basophils
Macrophages
NK cells
Neutrophils
Which of the following cells are responsible for secreting Il-6?
B-cells
Basophils
Macrophages
NK cells
Neutrophils
Which cells, derived from pluripotent haematopoietic stem cells, are responsible for mediating the production of antigen-specific immunoglobulins
T cells
Mast cells
Dendritic cells
B cells
Goblet cells
Which cells, derived from pluripotent haematopoietic stem cells, are responsible for mediating the production of antigen-specific immunoglobulins
T cells
Mast cells
Dendritic cells
B cells
Goblet cells
B cells are responsible for antibody production. When the body is invaded by a previously unknown pathogen, T helper cells ‘help’ B cells by encouraging the production of specific antibodies.
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with macrophages?
Major source of IL-1
Expresses CD4
Expresses CD28
Granules contain myeloperoxidase and lysozyme
Present in tissues and are similar in function to basophils
Most common type of white blood cell
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with macrophages?
Major source of IL-1
Expresses CD4
Expresses CD28
Granules contain myeloperoxidase and lysozyme
Present in tissues and are similar in function to basophils
Most common type of white blood cell
A 30-year-old male presents to his GP with a painless, swollen lymph node. Bloods are taken, which show a raised white cell count, and he is referred to oncology. On further testing, he is diagnosed with follicular lymphoma.
What is gene is most likely to be mutated in this type of cancer?
C-MYC
RET
Rb
MTS-1
BCL-2
A 30-year-old male presents to his GP with a painless, swollen lymph node. Bloods are taken, which show a raised white cell count, and he is referred to oncology. On further testing, he is diagnosed with follicular lymphoma.
What is gene is most likely to be mutated in this type of cancer?
C-MYC
RET
Rb
MTS-1
BCL-2
what are the vertebral levels for:
greater splanchnic nerves
lesser spachnic nerves
what are the vertebral levels for:
greater splanchnic nerves: T5-9
lesser spachnic nerves: T10-12
A 6-month old boy is diagnosed with phenylketonuria. He has started to develop mental retardation and reduced hair and skin pigmentation.
What is the term used to describe the presence of the variety of phenotypic traits in this patient?
Pleitropy
Heteroplasmy
Mosaicism
Non-disjunction
Robertsonian translocation
A 6-month old boy is diagnosed with phenylketonuria. He has started to develop mental retardation and reduced hair and skin pigmentation.
What is the term used to describe the presence of the variety of phenotypic traits in this patient?
Pleitropy = a condition where a single mutation causes more than one observable phenotypic effect. A well known example is PKU
Heteroplasmy
Mosaicism
Non-disjunction
Robertsonian translocation
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with natural killer cells?
Present in tissues and are similar in function to basophils
Induce apoptosis in virally infected and tumour cells
Major cell of the humoral immune response
Defends against protozoan and helminthic infections
Granules contain myeloperoxidase and lysozyme
Involved in phagocytosis of cellular debris and pathogens
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with natural killer cells?
Present in tissues and are similar in function to basophils
Induce apoptosis in virally infected and tumour cells
Major cell of the humoral immune response
Defends against protozoan and helminthic infections
Granules contain myeloperoxidase and lysozyme
Involved in phagocytosis of cellular debris and pathogens
Which one of the following amino acids is present in all types of collagen?
Alanine
Aspartime
Glycine
Tyrosine
Cysteine
Which one of the following amino acids is present in all types of collagen?
Alanine
Aspartime
Glycine
Tyrosine
Cysteine
In a cell, what is the function of the lysosome?
Steroid, lipid synthesis
Breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccharides
Translation of RNA into proteins
Modifies, sorts, and packages these molecules that are destined for cell secretion
Catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids
Manufacture of lysosomal enzymes
In a cell, what is the function of the lysosome?
Steroid, lipid synthesis
Breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccharides
Translation of RNA into proteins
Modifies, sorts, and packages these molecules that are destined for cell secretion
Catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids
Manufacture of lysosomal enzymes
DNA sequence Amino Acid Sequence
Original AAA GCC AAA lys, ala, lys
Mutation AAA ACC ATT lys, thr, lys,
What mutation has occurred?
Deletion
Insertion
Inversion
Missense
Nonsense
DNA sequence Amino Acid Sequence
Original AAA GCC AAA lys, ala, lys
Mutation AAA ACC ATT lys, thr, lys,
What mutation has occurred?
Deletion
Insertion
Inversion
Missense - a point mutation that changes the amino acid sequence, which in turn may make the protein non-functional
Nonsense
A 17-year-old man attends the GP complaining of intermittent shortness of breath, associated with dusty environments and exercise. He adds that his symptoms are worse at night and that he has a past medical history of eczema.
Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following cells is most likely to be responsible for mediating the immune reaction causing his symptoms?
Macrophages
NK cells
Neutrophils
Th1 helper cells
Th2 helper cells
A 17-year-old man attends the GP complaining of intermittent shortness of breath, associated with dusty environments and exercise. He adds that his symptoms are worse at night and that he has a past medical history of eczema.
Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following cells is most likely to be responsible for mediating the immune reaction causing his symptoms?
Macrophages
NK cells
Neutrophils
Th1 helper cells
Th2 helper cells
asthma is driven by the overproduction of:
IL-1
IL-2
IL-4
IL-6
1L-12
asthma is driven by the overproduction of:
IL-1
IL-2
IL-4
IL-6
1L-12
Which of these cells express IgE receptors on their cell surface?
T cells
Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Mast cells
Macrophages
Which of these cells express IgE receptors on their cell surface?
T cells
Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Mast cells
Macrophages
which of the following contain connexins?
tight junction
desmosome
hemidesmosome
gap junction
which of the following contain connexins?
tight junction
desmosome
hemidesmosome
gap junction
which of the following triggers cell mediated immunity?
NK cells
CD4+ TH1
dendritic cells
CD4+ TH2
CD4+ Th0
which of the following triggers cell mediated immunity?
NK cells
CD4+ TH1: produces TNF-a and IFN-y which triggers cell mediated immunity
dendritic cells
CD4+ TH2
CD4+ Th0
The oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the right in which of the following scenarios?
Hypothermia
Resp. alkolosis
Low altitude
Decreased 2,3 DPG in transfused red cells
Chonic iron deficiency anaemia
The oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the right in which of the following scenarios?
Hypothermia
Resp. alkolosis
Low altitude
Decreased 2,3 DPG in transfused red cells
**Chonic iron deficiency anaemia
Mnemonic to remember causes of right shift of the oxygen dissociation curve:
CADET face RIGHT
C O2
A cidosis
2,3-DPG
E xercise
T emperature**
Which interleukin is responsible for the proliferation of B cells?
IL-1
IL-2
IL-3
IL-4
IL-5
Which interleukin is responsible for the proliferation of B cells?
IL-1
IL-2
IL-3
IL-4
IL-5
which of the following detects stretching of skin?
meissner
ruffini
merkel
pancinian
which of the following detects stretching of skin?
meissner
ruffini
merkel
pancinian
Provides localized protection on mucous membranes:
IgG
IgD
IgA
IgE
IgM
Provides localized protection on mucous membranes:
IgG
IgD
IgA
IgE
IgM
which are the largest type of wbc?
eosinophils
basophils
lymphocyte
monocytes
neutrophils
which are the largest type of wbc?
eosinophils
basophils
lymphocyte
monocytes
neutrophils
what controls T cell clonal expansion ?
IL-1
IL-2
IL-3
IL-4
IL-5
what controls T cell clonal expansion ?
IL-1
IL-2
IL-3
IL-4
IL-5
A 64-year-old female attends a clinic for assessment after presenting to her GP with a lump in her right breast. A mammography and breast tissue biopsy confirm the presence of an invasive ductal carcinoma.
Which of the following oncogenes is most associated with this condition?
ABL1
N-MYC
RET
BCL-2
HER2
A 64-year-old female attends a clinic for assessment after presenting to her GP with a lump in her right breast. A mammography and breast tissue biopsy confirm the presence of an invasive ductal carcinoma.
Which of the following oncogenes is most associated with this condition?
ABL1
N-MYC
RET
BCL-2
HER2
which of the following do laminin and fibronectin belong to?
collagen
glycoprotein
elastin
proteoglycan
which of the following do laminin and fibronectin belong to?
collagen
glycoprotein
elastin
proteoglycan
In a cell, what is the function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
Ribosome production
Translation of RNA into proteins
Steroid, lipid synthesis
Translation and folding of new proteins
Breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccharides
Modifies, sorts, and packages these molecules that are destined for cell secretion
In a cell, what is the function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
Ribosome production
Translation of RNA into proteins
Steroid, lipid synthesis
Translation and folding of new proteins
Breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccharides
Modifies, sorts, and packages these molecules that are destined for cell secretion
Which one of the following best describes the gross mechanism of action of quinolones?
Inhibits cell wall formation
Damages DNA
Inhibits DNA synthesis
Inhibits RNA synthesis
Inhibits protein synthesis by acting on the 30S subunit of ribosomes
Inhibits protein synthesis by acting on the 50S subunit of ribosomes
Which one of the following best describes the gross mechanism of action of quinolones?
Inhibits cell wall formation
Damages DNA
Inhibits DNA synthesis
Inhibits RNA synthesis
Inhibits protein synthesis by acting on the 30S subunit of ribosomes
Inhibits protein synthesis by acting on the 50S subunit of ribosomes
Which one of the following is associated with the S phase of the cell cycle?
Under influence of p53
Synthesis of DNA, RNA and histones
Determines length of cell cycle
Quiescence
Centrosome duplication
Cells increase in size
Which one of the following is associated with the S phase of the cell cycle?
Under influence of p53
Synthesis of DNA, RNA and histones
Determines length of cell cycle
Quiescence
Centrosome duplication
Cells increase in size
A new chemotherapeutic drug is being trialed which acts on the phase of the cell cycle which determines cell cycle length.
At which stage of the cell cycle will this drug most likely act to achieve this effect?
G0 phase
G1 phase
G2 phase
M phaase
S phase
A new chemotherapeutic drug is being trialed which acts on the phase of the cell cycle which determines cell cycle length.
At which stage of the cell cycle will this drug most likely act to achieve this effect?
G0 phase
G1 phase
G2 phase
M phaase
S phase
The G1 phase is the initial growth phase of the cell. It is under the influence of p53. Through the action of several different regulatory proteins, it determines the overall length of the cell cycle. Different cells in different tissues have variable cell cycle lengths e.g. skin cells replicate more quickly than hepatocytes.
Binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils:
IgE
IgD
IgG
IgM
IgA
Binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils:
IgE
IgD
IgG
IgM
IgA
Which one of the following genes protects against neoplasms?
sis
p53
ras
myc
src
Which one of the following genes protects against neoplasms?
sis
p53
ras
myc
src
Major cell of the humoral immune response:
Neutrophils
Helper T cells
Macrophages
B cells
Natural killer cells
Plasma cells
Major cell of the humoral immune response:
Neutrophils
Helper T cells
Macrophages
B cells
Natural killer cells
Plasma cells
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with neutrophils?
Most common type of white blood cell
Granules contain histamine and heparin
Major source of IL-2
Defends against protozoan and helminthic infections
Mediates acute and chronic organ rejection
Acts as an antigen presenting cell
Which one of the following functions/properties is most associated with neutrophils?
Most common type of white blood cell
Granules contain histamine and heparin
Major source of IL-2
Defends against protozoan and helminthic infections
Mediates acute and chronic organ rejection
Acts as an antigen presenting cell
which molecule causes transcription to occur?
DNA polymerase I
RNA polymerase I
DNA polymerase II
RNA polyermase II
which molecule causes transcription to occur?
DNA polymerase I
RNA polymerase I
DNA polymerase II
RNA polyermase II
what is structure of aspirin like in
i) stomach [1]
ii) blood [1]
what is structure of aspirin like in
i) stomach [1] R-COOH. lipid soluble
ii) blood [1] R-COO- water soluble
(i) Briefly explain how acute respiratory acidosis is compensated within the body [2 marks]
kidneys: excrete more hydrogen and retain bicarbonate
respiratory system compensates for metabolic acidosis by expelling CO2 at a faster rate (breathing rate increase).
How does the renal system compensate for conditions of respiratory acidosis? [1]
How does the renal system compensate for conditions of respiratory alkalosis? [1]
By excreting more H+ in urine and retaining more HCO-3
By retaining more H+ and excreting more HCO-3 in urine.
What happens to blood pH levels during hyperventilation? Why? [1]
What happens to blood pH levels during rebreathing? Why? [1]
They rise because more CO2 is being expelled from the blood, resulting in less H+ generation and thus higher pH levels. [1]
They fall because more CO2 is being retained in the blood, resulting in more H+ generating and thus lower pH levels. [1]
Explain how the renal system compensates for metabolic acidosis and alkalosis? [2]
define hyptonia [1]
decreased resting tone (tension) of the muscle and decreased resistance to passive movement
name 3 things that can influence drug activity [3]
the absolute amount of drug given;
the pharmaceutical preparation;
the reversibility of drug action;
the half-life of the drug;
the slope of the concentration-response curve;
the activity of metabolites,
the influence of disease on drug elimination.
or
Method of Administration
Dosage
Body Weight
Age
Tolerance
Type of Drug
what is the aim of phase 1 biotransformation metabolism [1]
how does this occur? [1]
- biotransformation: drug becomes smaller and more water soluble so the kidney can remove it
- add a polar group: oxidation (and hydrolysis or reduction)
what happens in phase 2 metabolism [1]
synthesis (stick a group onto drug to make it more soluble)
liver takes big chem (e.g. glucose) adds it onto drug
- is able to be excreted
what is the definition of a prodrug [1]
A prodrug is a medication or compound that, after administration, is metabolized (i.e., converted within the body) into a pharmacologically active drug.
label A-D stages of cancer development:
A
B
C
D
label A-D stages of cancer development:
A: hyperplasia
B: metaplasia
C: dysplasia
D: anaplasia
name two ways that cancer can be caused by mutations to transcription factors [2]
- *C-MYC overexpression:** breast / colon cancer
- *C-MYC translocation**: burkitt lymphoma
k-ras mutation is a form of cancer occuring by which mechanism:
growth factors
growth factors receptors
signal transduction
transcription factors
anti-apoptic factors
k-ras mutation is a form of cancer occuring by which mechanism:
growth factors
growth factors receptors
signal transduction
transcription factors
anti-apoptic factors
b-cell leukameia is a form of cancer that occurs by mutatations to:
growth factors
growth factors receptors
signal transduction
transcription factors
anti-apoptic factors
b-cell leukameia is a form of cancer that occurs by mutatations to:
growth factors
growth factors receptors
signal transduction
transcription factors
anti-apoptic factors: bcl2; 14 & 18 translocatio
burkitt lymphoma is caused by the translocation of which chromomes? [2]
14 & 18
name two types of antibiotics that interfere with DNA replication in bacteria [2]
- Fluroquinolones: taret topoisomerases in resp. and urinary tract infections
- Trimethoprim: target nucleotide synthesis
what type of molecule is elastin?
polypeptide
glycoprotein
proteoglycan
oligosaccahride
what type of molecule is elastin?
polypeptide
glycoprotein
proteoglycan
oligosaccahride
