Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Boards > Memorization > Flashcards

Memorization Flashcards

0
Q

Plasmin

A

Breaks down fibrin, fibrinogen and degrades coag factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

CD28

A

Molecule necessary for T cell activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Factor V Leiden

A

Produces a factor V resistant to degradation by protein C –> hypercoaguable states!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Acanthocyte

A

Spiny RBCS seen in liver disease and abetalipoproteinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Basophilic stippling

A

Seen in thalassemia, anemia of chronic disease and lead poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Bite cells

A

G6PD Deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Burton’s line, Ab colic, foot/wrist drop, encephalopathy

A

Lead poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

X linked for deficiency in ALA synthase

A

Sideroblastic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Child with megaloblastic anemia that can’t be cured with b12 or folate

A

Orotic aciduria

Mutation in uridine monophosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Fanconi’s anemia

A

DNA repair defect - cause of aplastic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

X-linked, back pain and hbglobinuria

A

G6PD defiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Auto recessive, decreased ATP, rigid RBCs

A

Pyruvate kinase deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Glu to Lys on B globin gene

A

HbC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Painful abdomen, port wine colored urine, polyneuropathy, psycho, precipitated by drugs

A

Acute intermittent porphyria
Accumulation of porphobilinogen, ALA, uroporphyrin
Defective porphobilinogen deaminase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Most common porphyria
Tea colored urine
Blistering cutaneous photosensitivity

A

Porphyria cutanea tarda

Defective uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Defect in GP1B

A

Bernard soulier

Defective platelet adhesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Defect in GpIIa/IIIb

A

Glanzman’s thrombasthenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Anti-GpIIa/IIIb antibodies

A

ITP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Deficiency of ADAMTS 13

A

TTP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

T(8;14), c-myc

A

Burkitt lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

T(11;14) , cyclin D1, CD 5+, associated with chronic inflammatory states

A

Mantle cell lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

T(14;18), b-cl2

A

Follicular lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

T(15;17)

A

M3 AML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

T(9;22)

A

CML or ALL subtype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

S100+, CD1a+, birbeck granules

A

Langerhans histiocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Where does the upper body and lateral breast drain?

A

Axillary lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What lymph nodes does the stomach drain to?

A

Celiac nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What lymph nodes do the duodenum, jejunum drain to?

A

Superior mesenteric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What lymph nodes does the sigmoid colon drain to?

A

Colic to inferior mesenteric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which lymph nodes does the rectum drain to?

A

Internal iliac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which lymph nodes does the anal canal drain to?

A

Superficial inguinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which lymph nodes do the testes,scrotum, superficial thigh drain to?

A

Superficial inguinal

Testes to superficial inguinal and then para aortic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Where does the lateral foot drain to?

A

Popliteal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does the right lymphatic duct drain?

A

The right arm, right chest, right half of the head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Where are T cells found in the spleen?

A

In the periarterial lymphatic sheath within the white pulp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the encapsulated organisms?

A 
Shin Skis
Strep pneumo
H. Flu
Neisseria meningitidis
Salmonella
Klebsiella
Group B strep
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What can be seen postsplenectomy?

A

Howelljolly bodies
Target cells
Thrombocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Where does the thymus originate from embryologically?

A

The 3rd brachial pouch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What does MHC I bind?

A

TCR and CD8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which cells express MHC I?

A

All uncleared cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What kind of immunity does MHC I mediate?

A

Viral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What does MHC II bind?

A

TCR and CD4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which cells express MHC II?

A

APC Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which disease is associated with HLA A3?

A

Hemochromatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

B27

A

Psoriasis
Ankylosing spondylitis
IBD
Reiter’s syndrome - conjunctivitis, urethritis, arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

DQ2/DQ8

A

Celiac disease

46
Q

DR2

A

MS, hay fever, SLE, Goodpasture’s

47
Q

DR3

A

DM I

Graves

48
Q

DR4

A

RA

DM I

49
Q

DR 5

A

Pernicious anemia

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

50
Q

Which cytokines are NK cells activated by?

A

IL-2
IL-12
IFN-b
IFN-a

51
Q

Which 2 antibodies activate complement?

A

IgM and IgG

52
Q

Where does negative selection occur in the thymus?

A

Medulla - non reactive to self, the ones that are active to self undergo apoptosis
Become CD8 or CD4

53
Q

What does IL-12 do?

A

Causes differentiation of CD4 T cell to become Th1

Activates NK CELLS

54
Q

What does IL-4 do?

A

Causes differentiation of helper T cell to become th2

55
Q

What are the costimulatory signals for naive T cell activation?

A

B7 and CD28

56
Q

What needs to happen for B cell activation?

A 
Presentation by B cell on MHC II to t helper 
Bind CD40 to CD40L on T cell --> cytokines determine class switching needed for the antibody production
57
Q

What does th1 secrete?

A

IFN-gamma to activate macrophage

58
Q

What do macrophages secrete to activate lymphocytes?

A

IL-1 and TNF-a

59
Q

What do th2 cells secrete?

A 
IL-4
IL-5
IL-10
IL-13 
To activate eosinophils and promote IgE production
60
Q

What are th1 cells inhibited by?

A

IL-4 and IL-10

61
Q

What are th2 cells inhibited by?

A

INF-gamma

62
Q

What is perforin?

A

Helps deliver content of granules into target cells

63
Q

What is granzyme?

A

Serine protease

Activates apoptosis in target cell

64
Q

What is granulysin?

A

Anti microbial that induces apoptosis

65
Q

What markers to regulatory T cells express?

A

CD3, CD4, CD 25

66
Q

Which cytokines do regulatory T cells secrete?

A

IL-10 and TGF-b - non inflammatory

67
Q

What is the most abundant antibody?

A

IgG

68
Q

What is the lowest antibody in the serum?

A

IgE

69
Q

What defends us against gram negative bacteria?

A

MAC complex

70
Q

What does C3b do?

A

Opsonization

71
Q

What do C3a, C5a do?

A

Anaphylaxis

72
Q

What does C5a do?

A

Neutrophil chemotaxis

73
Q

What happens in the alternative pathway for complement activation?

A

C3b binds the bacterial surface

74
Q

What happens in the lectin pathway?

A

Complement is activated by lectin or mannose or other sugars on a microbial surface
Use MBL and MASP1 and 2 to make C1 like complex that will cleave C4

75
Q

What is the C3 convertase in the lectin and classic pathway?

A

C4b2a

76
Q

What is the C3 convertase in the alternative pathway?

A

C3bBb

77
Q

What is the C5 convertase in the classic and lectin pathway?

A

C4bC2a3b

78
Q

What is the C5 convertase in the alternative pathway?

A

C3bBb3b

79
Q

What is the classic complement pathway activated by?

A

IgM and IgG antigen-antibody complexes

80
Q

What is the function of IL-1?

A

Pyrogen
Acute inflammation
Activates endothelium to express adhesion molecules
Induces chemokine secretion

81
Q

What is the function of IL-2?

A

Stimulates T cells

82
Q

What is the function of IL-3?

A

Stimulates BM stem cells

83
Q

What is the function of IL-4?

A

Stimulates IgE production and IgG

Stimulates differentiation in Th2

84
Q

What is the function of IL-5?

A

Stimulates IgA production and eosinophils

85
Q

What is the function of IL-8?

A

Neutrophil recruitment

86
Q

What is the function of IL-12?

A

Induces differentiation of Th1 cells

Activates NK cells

87
Q

What is the function of TNF-a?

A

Mediates septic shock - causes vascular leakage and leukocytes recruitment
Also responsible for cachexia in cancer

88
Q

What is the function of INF-a?

A

Activates macrophages and Th1 cells
Suppresses Th2
Increasing MHC I and II presentation of all cells
Increasing antigen presentation in all cells

89
Q

What is the function of IL-10?

A

Inhibit activated T cells

90
Q

What is the function of interferon a and b?

A

Inhibiting viral protein synthesis by induction of ribonuclease that inhibits viral protein synthesis by degrading viral mRNA

91
Q

What are the B cell markers?

A

CD19, 20, 21
CD40
MHC II
B7

92
Q

What is the B cell marker used by EBV?

A

CD21

93
Q

What are the markers for macrophages?

A 
CD14
CD40
MHC II 
B7
Fc 
C3b receptors
94
Q

What are the markers for NK cells?

A

CD16 - binds Fc of IgG

CD56- unique!

95
Q

What is the auto antibody associated with SLE?

A

Antinuclear
Anti-dsDNA
anti-smith

96
Q

Anti-CCP

A

RA

97
Q

Anti histone

A

Drug induced lupus

98
Q

Anti centromere

A

CREST syndrome

Scleroderma

99
Q

Anti-Scl-70 (DNA topoisomerase I)

A

Diffuse scleroderma

100
Q

Antimitochondrial

A

Primary biliary cirrhosis

101
Q

IgA endomysial

IgA anti-transglutaminase

A

Celiac

102
Q

Anti-basement membrane

A

Goodpasture’s

103
Q

Anti-desmoglein

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

104
Q

Antimicrosomal

Antithyroglobulin

A

Hashimoto’s

105
Q

Anti-Jo 1
Anti-SRP
Anti- mi2

A

Polymyositis

Dermatomyositis

106
Q

Anti-SSA (anti-ro)

Anti-SSA (anti-la)

A

Sjogren’s

107
Q

Anti-u1 RNP

A

Mixed CT disease

108
Q

Anti-smooth muscle

A

Autoimmune hepatitis

109
Q

Anti-glutamate decarboxylase

A

Type I DM

110
Q

C-Anca

A

Wegener’s

111
Q

P-Anca

A

Microscopic polyangitis, Churg-Strauss

112
Q

Live attenuated vaccines

A 
Measles
Mumps
Rubella
Polio (Sabin)
Varicella
Yellow fever
113
Q

Inactivates vaccines

A

Cholera
Hep A
Polio (Salk)
Rabies

Boards (24 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions