Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 2 UWorld > Medicine U World > Flashcards

Medicine U World Flashcards

0
Q

Where can the murmur for hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy be heard best?

A

-lower left sternal border

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Aortic stenosis in a young pt?

A

-usually due to congenital bicuspid valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Chest pain and aortic stenosis?

A
  • due to increased myocardial oxygen demand

- usually seen with LVH too!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

2 diseases that spherocytes can be seen in?

A
  1. Hereditary spherocytosis

2. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hereditary sphereocytosis v. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia: genetics & coomb’s test?

A
  • spherocytosis: autosomal dominant + negative coomb’s

- AIHA: not hereditary + positive coomb’s test (usually)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Osteomyelitis: what is it? 2 categories?

A
  • inflammatory destruction of bone due to infection
  • categories:
    1. Hematologic spread
    2. Direct spread
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Vertebral osteomyelitis: ssx?

A
  1. low grade fever (high grade fever and chills NOT common)
  2. Elevated ESR
  3. Local tenderness on percussion
  4. Paravertebral muscle spasms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Dx of vertebral osteomyelitis?

A
  • MRI is the best!

- early diagnosis is important! Delay –> epidural abscess and spinal cord compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Most effective and rapid abortive tx for cluster headaches?

A

-100% oxygen!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Dx of diverticulitis?

A

-CT scan of the abdomen is the best, especially is complications of abscess or perforation are suspected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Prefered tx for pts with hyoerthyroidism? 2 contraindications?

A
  • radioactive ablative therapy
  • contraindications:
    1. Pregnancy
    2. Severe opthalmopathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Triad of sx in carcinoid syndrome?

A
  1. Flushing
  2. Valvular heart disease = murmur
  3. Diarrhea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What vitamin/mineral deficiency are pts w/ carcinoid syndrome at risk for? Why?

A
  • Niacin
  • serotonin is formed and released by the neuroendocrine tumor
  • tryptophan is the precursor of serotonin –> tryptophan is also used in the formation of niacin!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What vitamin/mineral deficiency are pts w/ carcinoid syndrome at risk for? Why?

A
  • Niacin
  • serotonin is formed and released by the neuroendocrine tumor
  • tryptophan is the precursor of serotonin –> tryptophan is also used in the formation of niacin!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

3 ssx of niacin deficiency?

A
  1. Diarrhea
  2. Dermatitis
  3. Dementia
    * * 3 Ds!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

4 ssx of acute hemolytic transfusion reaction? When does it occur?

A
  1. Fever
  2. Chills
  3. Flank pain
  4. Hemoglobinuria
    - occurs within an hour of the start of the transfusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the most common rxn to transfused blood products? What is the cause?

A
  • febrile nonhemolytic rxn
  • due to a rxn to cytokines stored in the transfused blood products
  • when blood is stored leukocytes release cytokines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

3 Ssx of febrile nonhemolytic rxn to blood transfusion?

A
  1. Fever
  2. Chills
  3. Malaise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Acute hemolysis that develops after the use of primaquine or sulfa drugs?

A

-G6PD deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

G6PD levels during a hemolytic episode in a deficient ot?

A

-can be normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Reason for the “shifting” of the abdominal pain with acute appendicitis?

A
  • first the pain is visceral bc only the appendix is inflamed, the pain is dull, poorly localized, and constant
  • afferent visceral pain fibers then carry the pain to the spinal cord –> periumbilical pain
  • later peritonitis and inflammation of nearby skeletal muscles results in somatic pain –> pain is well localized to the right lower quadrant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Recurrent bacterial infections in an adult: what can be a cause? Dx?

A
  • humoral immunity defect

- do a quantitative measurement of serum immunoglobulin levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

3 Common precipitants of pseudogout?

A
  1. Trauma
  2. Surgery
  3. Medical illness
    * *can be idiopathic too!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

3 Common precipitants of pseudogout?

A
  1. Trauma
  2. Surgery
  3. Medical illness
    * *can be idiopathic too!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

3 Common precipitants of pseudogout?

A
  1. Trauma
  2. Surgery
  3. Medical illness
    * *can be idiopathic too!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

2 ssx of aortic dissection?

A
  1. Severe chest pain that radiates to the back

2. Widened mediastinum on CXR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

4 Ssx of cardiac tamponade?

A
  1. Hypotension
  2. Tachy
  3. Distended neck veins
  4. Pulsus paradoxis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia: Pathophys? Genetics? Ssx?

A
  • rare, autosomal dominant
  • benign
  • pathophys: abnormal calcium-sensing receptors on parathyroid cells and renal tubules –> hinders the normal calcium-induced PTH suppression that occurs with hypercalcemia
  • ssx:
    1. Asymptomatic hypercalcemia
    2. High-normal to borderline-elevated PTH levels
    3. Very low urine calcium levels (contrast to primary hyperPTH) –> bc defect causes excess calcium reabsorption
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia: Pathophys? Genetics? Ssx?

A
  • rare, autosomal dominant
  • benign
  • pathophys: abnormal calcium-sensing receptors on parathyroid cells and renal tubules –> hinders the normal calcium-induced PTH suppression that occurs with hypercalcemia
  • ssx:
    1. Asymptomatic hypercalcemia
    2. High-normal to borderline-elevated PTH levels
    3. Very low urine calcium levels (contrast to primary hyperPTH) –> bc defect causes excess calcium reabsorption
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Shoulder pain that doesnt decrease with lidocaine injection?

A

-rotator cuff TEAR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

4 Causes of hypokalemia, alkalosis, + normotension?

A
  1. Surreptitious vomiting
  2. Diuretic abuse
  3. Bartter syndrome = defect in thick ascending limb of loop of henley
  4. Gitelman’s syndrome = milder version of bartter’s syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Urine chloride in surreptitious vomiting?

A
  • can be low concentration
  • due to hypovolemia and hypochloremia
  • *can be used to determine that this is the cause of the hypokalemic alkalosis in a normotensive pt
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Location of lesion in hemi-neglect syndrome?

A

-lesion in the right (non-dominant) parietal lobe –> causes the pt to ignore the left side of space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Location of lesion in hemi-neglect syndrome?

A

-lesion in the right (non-dominant) parietal lobe –> causes the pt to ignore the left side of space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Where is tropical sprue endemic to? Minimum amnt of time a pt has to live there to suspect it?

A
  • Puerto Rico

- >1 mnth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

9 Ssx of tropical sprue?

A
  1. Fatty diarrhea
  2. Cramps
  3. Gas
  4. Fatigue
  5. Progressive weight loss
  6. Malabsorption of nutrients –> esp vit B12 and folate –> megaloblastic anemia
  7. Hyperactive bowel sounds
  8. Borboygmi
  9. Flattening of intestinal villi seen on bx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Borborygmi?

A

-a rumbling or gurgling noise made by the movement of fluid and gas in the intestines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Borborygmi?

A

-a rumbling or gurgling noise made by the movement of fluid and gas in the intestines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Unique sfx of rifampin?

A
  • red/orange urine

- benign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Ssx of a intracardiac tumor?

A
  1. Mid-diastolic murmur heard best at the apex
  2. Mass
  3. Low-grade fevers
  4. Weight loss
  5. Weakness due to embolization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What type of intracardiac tumor is most common? Where is it found?

A
  • atrial myxomas

- most commonly found in left atrium (80%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What should you do next if the pt has a high pretest probability of having a DVT according to the Wells score?

A

-next do a compression ultrasonography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What should you do next if the pt has a low pretest probability of having a DVT according to the Wells score?

A

-D-dimer test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What should you do if a pt has an elevated D-dimer test result?

A

-get a compression ultrasonography for suspected DVT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What should you do if a pt has an elevated D-dimer test result?

A

-get a compression ultrasonography for suspected DVT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What should you do if a pt has an elevated D-dimer test result?

A

-get a compression ultrasonography for suspected DVT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What should be done if the D-dimer test result is low?

A

-nothing –> the patient is unlikely to have a DVT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What should be done if a compression ultrasonography is positive for a DVT?

A

-tx w/ heparin and warfarin!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What should be done if a pt with a suspected DVT has a negative compression ultrasonography test?

A
  • nothing –> the pt is unlikely to have a DVT

- if there is still suspicion –> do a contrast venography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

2 Common presenting ssx of pancreatic cancer that is located in the body or the tail?

A
  1. Upper abdominal pain that radiates to the back

2. Weight loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

2 Common presenting ssx of pancreatic cancer that is located in the body or the tail?

A
  1. Upper abdominal pain that radiates to the back

2. Weight loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

3 Common ssx of pancreatic cancer in the head of the pancreas?

A
  1. Steatorrhea
  2. Weight loss
  3. Jaundice
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Labs in a pt with pancreatic cancer?

A
  1. ^^ serum bilirubin
  2. ^^ alk phos
  3. Mild anemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is a useful lab test for the indication of dehydration?

A

-the BUN/creatinine ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What should be asked about in the hx of a pt with a mild asymptomatic elevation of his serum transaminases?

A
  • screen for hepatitis risk factors:
    1. Drug use
    2. Alcohol use
    3. Travel outside US
    4. High-risk sexual practices
    5. Medications on
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

3 symptoms of pulmonary congestion?

A
  1. Exertional dyspnea
  2. Nocturnal cough
  3. Hemoptysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What arrhythmia are pts with mitral stenosis at risk for developing? Why?

A
  • a fib

- bc the LA becomes dilated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Early presentation of herpes zoster?

A
  • constant burning pain without any physical examination abnormalities
  • pain can develop a few days before the rash
  • pain is intense and deep/burning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Early presentation of herpes zoster?

A
  • constant burning pain without any physical examination abnormalities
  • pain can develop a few days before the rash
  • pain is intense and deep/burning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

6 sx of hypercalcemia of malignancy?

A
  1. Confusion
  2. Lethargy
  3. Fatigue
  4. Anorexia
  5. Polyuria
  6. Constipation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Antiarrythmic that causes pulmonary fibrosis?

A

-amioderone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Antiarrythmic that causes pulmonary fibrosis?

A

-amioderone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Antiarrythmic that causes pulmonary fibrosis?

A

-amioderone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Antiarrythmic that causes pulmonary fibrosis?

A

-amioderone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

5 sfx of amioderone?

A
  1. Pulmonary fibrosis
  2. Thyroid dysfctn –> hyper or hypo
  3. Hepatotox
  4. Corneal deposits
  5. Skin discoloration –> smurfs!!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

5 sfx of amioderone?

A
  1. Pulmonary fibrosis
  2. Thyroid dysfctn –> hyper or hypo
  3. Hepatotox
  4. Corneal deposits
  5. Skin discoloration –> smurfs!!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Tx for acute hepatic encephalopathy?

A
  1. Lactulose –> lowers the blood ammonium level

2. Reduced-protein diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Pathogenesis of hepatic encephalopathy?

A
  • reversible decline in neurologic fctn that is precipitated by hepatic damage
  • increased levels of ammonia in the circulation causes inhibitory NT via GABA receptors in the CNS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Pathogenesis of hepatic encephalopathy?

A
  • reversible decline in neurologic fctn that is precipitated by hepatic damage
  • increased levels of ammonia in the circulation causes inhibitory NT via GABA receptors in the CNS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What 4 effects does aldo have on the distal tubukes?

A
  1. Reabsorption of sodium
  2. Volume expansion
  3. Secretion of K+
  4. Secretion of H+
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

4 ssx of primary hyperaldo (Conn’s syndrome)?

A
  1. HTN
  2. Mild hypernatremia
  3. Hypokalemia
  4. Metabolic alkalosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

4 ssx of primary hyperaldo (Conn’s syndrome)?

A
  1. HTN
  2. Mild hypernatremia
  3. Hypokalemia
  4. Metabolic alkalosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What should be given in the initial diagnosis/management of pts with narrow-QRS-complex tachy?

A
  • adenosine!

- slows the sinus rate at the AV node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What 4 things can be seen in an eye exam of a pt with diabetic background, or simple, retinopathy?

A
  1. Microaneurysms
  2. Hemorrhages
  3. Exudates
  4. Retinal edema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is seen on an eye exam in a pt with diabetic pro-proliferative retinopathy?

A
  1. Cotton wool spots
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What can be seen on an eye exam in a pt with diabetic proliferative, or malignant, retinopathy?

A
  1. Newly formed vessels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What js the tx of choice for diabetic retinopathy? What does it do?

A
  • argon laser photocoagulation

- prevents complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

6 ssx of theophylline toxicity?

A
  1. Headache –> CNS stim
  2. Insomnia –> CNS stim
  3. Seizures –> CNS stim
  4. Nausea –> GI disturbance
  5. Vomiting –> GI disturbance
  6. Arrhythmia –> cardiac tox
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

4 ssx of Fibromyalgia?

A
  1. Wide spread musculoskeletal pain
  2. Fatigue when awaking from sleep & in the mid-afternoon
  3. Cognitive difficulties –> esp attention/tasks requiring rapid thought changes
  4. Nonspecific GI sx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Describe the rash of rubella

A
  • erythematous
  • maculopapular
  • starts on the face and progresses to the trunk and extremities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Describe the rash of rubella

A
  • erythematous
  • maculopapular
  • starts on the face and progresses to the trunk and extremities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Typical lymphadenopathy in rubella?

A

-posterior cervical and occipital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

5 Ssx of rubella?

A
  1. Maculopapular erythematous rash that starts on the face and progresses down
  2. Fever - prodromal
  3. Lymphadenopathy –> posterior cervical and occipital - prodromal
  4. Malaise - prodromal
  5. Arthritis –> can be seen in adult women
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Factorial study design?

A
  • 2 or more experimental interventions

- with 2 or more variables that are independently studied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

P value with a 95% confidence interval?

A
  • p value < .05

- does not include the null value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

3 Ssx of nephrotic syndrome?

A
  1. High-range proteinuria
  2. Hypoalbuminemia
  3. Edema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What type of kidney dz is a common complication of hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A
  • nephrotic syndrome –> esp. Minimal change dz

- focal glomerulosclerosis can also occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the most common kidney dz seen with carcinomas? Name 1 exception.

A
  • membranous nephropathy is the most common

- exception = Hodgkin’s lymphoma and minimal change dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the most common kidney dz seen with carcinomas? Name 1 exception.

A
  • membranous nephropathy is the most common

- exception = Hodgkin’s lymphoma and minimal change dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the most common kidney dz seen with carcinomas? Name 1 exception.

A
  • membranous nephropathy is the most common

- exception = Hodgkin’s lymphoma and minimal change dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

6 Ssx of acute prostatitis?

A
  1. Urinary urgency
  2. Dysuria
  3. Positive leukocyte esterase
  4. Pain of the perineal region
  5. Tender prostate
  6. Boggy prostate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What 2 medications are known to cause priapism as a sfx?

A
  1. Trazadone

2. Prazosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

5 Ssx of digoxin toxicity?

A
  1. Nausea
  2. Vomiting
  3. Diarrhea
  4. Vision changes –> blurry vision w/ changes in color
  5. Arrhythmias
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Describe tricuspid regurg murmur

A

-holosystolic murmur that increases with inspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Describe tricuspid regurg murmur

A

-holosystolic murmur that increases with inspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Palpable mass that forms in the epigatrium 4 weeks after the onset of acute pancreatitis?

A

-pancreatic pseudocyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Pancreatic pseudocyst: tx? Complications?

A
  • tx: drainage, only if it lasts for more than 6 wks, or is > 5 cm in diameter, or becomes infected –> otherwise it will resolve spontaneously
  • complication: when the inflammatory process causes an erosion into a blood vessel, can cause hemorrhaging into the pseudocyst
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Pancreatic pseudocyst: what is it? Dx?

A
  • usually associated with chronic pancreatitis, but can be seen with acute too!
  • not a true cyst bc lacks epithelial lining, walled by a thick fibrous capsule
  • filled with inflammatory fluid (amylase, lipase,and enterokinase) and debris –> amylase can leak out and cause elevated serum amylase
  • dx: ultrasound
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Pancreatic pseudocyst: what is it? Dx?

A
  • usually associated with chronic pancreatitis, but can be seen with acute too!
  • not a true cyst bc lacks epithelial lining, walled by a thick fibrous capsule
  • filled with inflammatory fluid (amylase, lipase,and enterokinase) and debris –> amylase can leak out and cause elevated serum amylase
  • dx: ultrasound
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are 2 conditions that chronic GERD predisposes pts to?

A
  1. Barrett’s esophagus
  2. Benign peptic esophageal strictures
    * *both are a consequence of the body’s reparative response
    * *can occur simultaneously
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are 2 conditions that chronic GERD predisposes pts to?

A
  1. Barrett’s esophagus
  2. Benign peptic esophageal strictures
    * *both are a consequence of the body’s reparative response
    * *can occur simultaneously
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Peptic strictures: what are they? What can they be caused by? Ssx? Clinical course?

A
  • can be a result of chronic GERD, radiation exposure, or scleroderma
  • causes slowly progressive dysphagia to solids –> without wt loss of anorexia!
  • as they progress they can block reflux and improve heartburn sx
  • seen as symmetric, circumferential narrowings on endoscopy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Effects of Proteus mirablis in UTIs on the urine pH? Consequence of that?

A
  • causes alkalinization of the urine –> via the urease that it secretes, which hydrolyzes urea to ammonia and CO2
  • ammonia combines with hydrogen to form ammonium –> vv free H+ concentration = alkalinzes urine –> promotes struvite stone formation!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Effects of Proteus mirablis in UTIs on the urine pH? Consequence of that?

A
  • causes alkalinization of the urine –> via the urease that it secretes, which hydrolyzes urea to ammonia and CO2
  • ammonia combines with hydrogen to form ammonium –> vv free H+ concentration = alkalinzes urine –> promotes struvite stone formation!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

4 Clinical features of primary sclerosing cholangitis?

A
  1. Fatigue
  2. Pruritis
  3. Most pts are asymptomatic at dx
  4. 90% of pts have underlying inflammatory bowel dz (esp. UC)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

4 Clinical features of primary sclerosing cholangitis?

A
  1. Fatigue
  2. Pruritis
  3. Most pts are asymptomatic at dx
  4. 90% of pts have underlying inflammatory bowel dz (esp. UC)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Primary sclerosing cholangitis: pathophysiology?

A
  • unknown etiology
  • chronic
  • inflammation, fibrosis, and stricturing of medium-sized and lg intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Primary sclerosing cholangitis: pathophysiology?

A
  • unknown etiology
  • chronic
  • inflammation, fibrosis, and stricturing of medium-sized and lg intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What type of anemia is lead poisoning?

A

-microcytic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the most reliable index for monitoring the response of tx in DKA?

A

-serum anion gap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the most reliable index for monitoring the response of tx in DKA?

A

-serum anion gap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What type of diuretics can have ototoxic sfx?

A

-loop diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Beat-to-beat variations in QRS axis and amplitude?

A

-due to the swinging motion of the heart in the pericardium with pericardial effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Beat-to-beat variations in QRS axis and amplitude?

A

-due to the swinging motion of the heart in the pericardium with pericardial effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What percentage in 1 SD?

A

-68%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What percentage in 1 SD?

A

-68%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What percentage in 2 SDs?

A

-95%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What percentage in 3 SDs?

A

-99.7%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What percentage in 3 SDs?

A

-99.7%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Most common cause of hypercalcemia of malignancy?

A

-parathyroid hormone-related peptide (PTHrP) production by the tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Tx of hepatotoxic effects of acetaminophen overdose?

A
  • measure acetominophen levels of pt after 4 hrs of ingestion
  • match up with the measurement on the Rumack-Matthew nomogram to determine if toxicity is present
  • if toxicity is present, give N-acetylcysteine
  • as long as N-acetylcysteine is administered within 8 hrs of ingestion the outcome will not be affected
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What 2 things should pts with cirrhosis be screened for regularly?

A
  1. Esophageal varices –> via endoscopy

2. Hepatocellular carcinoma –> via ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What effects does alcohol-related heart dz have on the structure of the heart?

A

-causes dilated cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Cardiac effects of amyloidosis?

A

-can cause restrictive cardiomyopathy –> thickened ventricular walls + preserved ventricular dimensions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What deficiency can pre-dispose to anaphylactic rxns to blood transfusions?

A

-IgA deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

2 most common sx of PE?

A
  1. Acute onset of shortness of breath

2. Pleuritic chest pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

How long should a pt be on warfarin for a DVT with a reversible cause? For an idiopathic cause?

A
  • reversible = 3 mnths

- idiopathic = 6-12 mnths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Presentation of renal vein thrombosis?

A
  • sudden onset of:
    1. Abdominal pain
    2. Hematuria
    3. Fever
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What nephrotic syndrome is renal vein thrombosis most common in?

A

-membranous glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What nephrotic syndrome is renal vein thrombosis most common in?

A

-membranous glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What are 2 signs of poor prognosis in a PE?

A
  1. Atrial fibrillation

2. Low oxygen saturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What are 2 signs of poor prognosis in a PE?

A
  1. Atrial fibrillation

2. Low oxygen saturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What are 2 signs of poor prognosis in a PE?

A
  1. Atrial fibrillation

2. Low oxygen saturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What are 2 signs of poor prognosis in a PE?

A
  1. Atrial fibrillation

2. Low oxygen saturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

3 typical features of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?

A
  1. Rapidly progressive dementia
  2. Myoclonus
  3. Sharp, triphasic, synchronous discharges on EEG
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

3 typical features of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?

A
  1. Rapidly progressive dementia
  2. Myoclonus
  3. Sharp, triphasic, synchronous discharges on EEG
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

3 typical features of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?

A
  1. Rapidly progressive dementia
  2. Myoclonus
  3. Sharp, triphasic, synchronous discharges on EEG
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

3 typical features of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?

A
  1. Rapidly progressive dementia
  2. Myoclonus
  3. Sharp, triphasic, synchronous discharges on EEG
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Classic triad of ssx for reactive arthritis?

A
  1. Nongonococcal urethritis
  2. Asymmetric oligoarthritis
  3. Conjunctivitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

First line tx for the acute phase of reactive arthritis?

A

-NSAIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is the most common cause of painless hematuria in adults?

A

-bladder tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

4 ssx of empyema?

A
  1. Fever
  2. Cough –> nonproductive or productive
  3. SOB
  4. Pleuritic chest pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What does an S4 indicate?

A
  • stiff ventricle

- seen with restrictive cardiomyopathy or LVH from prolonged HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Nocardia microbio features?

A
  • gram-positive
  • weakly acid-fast
  • filamentous
  • branching rod
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What medication is contraindicated in a STEMI? Why?

A
  • nifedipine (and other dihydropyridines)
  • causes vasodilation and reflex tachy –> worsens ischemia
  • does not improve survival
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What medication is contraindicated in a STEMI? Why?

A
  • nifedipine (and other dihydropyridines)
  • causes vasodilation and reflex tachy –> worsens ischemia
  • does not improve survival
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What medication is contraindicated in a STEMI? Why?

A
  • nifedipine (and other dihydropyridines)
  • causes vasodilation and reflex tachy –> worsens ischemia
  • does not improve survival
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Heparin and acute MIs?

A

-heparin is indicated in ALL acute MI pts!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Heparin and acute MIs?

A

-heparin is indicated in ALL acute MI pts!

109
Q

Heparin and acute MIs?

A

-heparin is indicated in ALL acute MI pts!

110
Q

3 ways to remove K+ from body in hyperkalemia?

A
  1. Dialysis
  2. Cation exchange resins –> ex. Kayexalate
  3. Diuretics
111
Q

Kayexalate: MOA?

A
  • cation-exchange resin

- acts in the GI tract by promoting exchange of Na+ for K+ = increases the excretion of K+

112
Q

2 cause of hypovolemic hyponatremia?

A
  1. GI losses –> ex. Vomiting, diarrhea

2. Renal losses –> ex. Diuretics

112
Q

2 cause of hypovolemic hyponatremia?

A
  1. GI losses –> ex. Vomiting, diarrhea

2. Renal losses –> ex. Diuretics

113
Q

3 causes of euvolemic hyponatremia?

A
  1. SIADH
  2. Psychogenic polydipsia
  3. HypoTH
114
Q

3 causes of hypervolemic hyponatremia?

A
  1. CHF
  2. Cirrhosis
  3. CKD
115
Q

Most common cause of ascites?

A

-hepatic cirrhosis

115
Q

Most common cause of ascites?

A

-hepatic cirrhosis

116
Q

6 common ssx on presentation of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

A
  1. Chronic progressive dyspnea
  2. Nonproductive cough
  3. Digital clubbing
  4. Dry, end-inspiratory crackles
  5. Restrictive pattern on PFTs
  6. Increased A-a gradient
117
Q

Pathophysiology of lumbar spinal stenosis?

A
  • usually a combination of:
    1. Enlarging osteophytes at the facet joints of vertebrae
    2. Hypertrophy of ligmentum flavum
118
Q

3 Ssx of lumbar spinal stenosis? What aggravates and alleviates sx?

A
  1. Back pain that radiates to buttock and thighs
  2. Numbness
  3. Paresthesias
    - aggravating = walking and extension of lower back
    - alleviating = flexion of lower back
118
Q

3 Ssx of lumbar spinal stenosis? What aggravates and alleviates sx?

A
  1. Back pain that radiates to buttock and thighs
  2. Numbness
  3. Paresthesias
    - aggravating = walking and extension of lower back
    - alleviating = flexion of lower back
119
Q

Lumbar disk herniation: 3 ssx? Aggravating?

A
  1. Lower back pain that might radiate down one leg
  2. Numbness –> maybe
  3. Paresthesias –> maybe
    - aggravating = lumbar flexion and sitting
120
Q

Formula for calculating serum osmolality?

A
  • 2(serum Na) + blood glucose/18 + BUN/2.8
120
Q

Formula for calculating serum osmolality?

A
  • 2(serum Na) + blood glucose/18 + BUN/2.8
121
Q

4 Lab characteristics of hyperglycemic, hyperosmolar non-ketotic coma? Pathogenesis?

A
  1. Very high blood glucose levels
  2. Plasma hyperosmolality
  3. Normal anion gap
  4. Negative serum ketones
    - pathogenesis = pt has enough circulating endogenous insulin to prevent ketoacidosis, but not enough insulin to control and decrease the blood glucose level
122
Q

Ichthyosis vulgaris

A
  • normal skin at birth that progresses to dry, scaly skin
  • hereditary or acquired
  • dry rough skin with horny plates over the extensor surfaces of limbs
123
Q

CSF of bacterial meningitis

A
  1. Elevated WBC
  2. Elevated proteins
  3. Decreased glucose
124
Q

4 ssx of perforated peptic ulcer disease?

A
  1. Chronic epigastric pain that suddenly gets worse and becomes diffuse
  2. Pneumoperitoneum on CXR = free air under the right diaphragm
  3. Rebound tenderness
  4. Guarding
125
Q

Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase score in leukemoid rxns v. Chronic myeloid leukemia?

A
  • leukemoid rxn = elevated

- CML = low

125
Q

Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase score in leukemoid rxns v. Chronic myeloid leukemia?

A
  • leukemoid rxn = elevated

- CML = low

126
Q

Where does pain from acute cholecystitis radiate usually?

A

-to the right scapula

127
Q

Where does pain from acute pancreatitis usually radiate to?

A

-the back, but usually not as high as the scapula

127
Q

Where does pain from acute pancreatitis usually radiate to?

A

-the back, but usually not as high as the scapula

128
Q

Tx of choice for PCP?

A
  • trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

- add steroids in severe cases –> shown to decrease mortality

142
Q

6 Ssx of PCP in an HIV pt?

A
  1. Non-productive cough
  2. Exertional dyspnea
  3. Fever
  4. Severe hypoxia
  5. Bilateral infiltrates in CXR
  6. Normal white count
143
Q

What is the best tx for uncomplicated diverticulosis?

A

-increasing intake if dietary fiber

144
Q

Classic triad of ssx with granulomatosis with polyangitis?

A
  • AKA: Wegener’s
    1. Systemic vasculitis
    2. Upper and lower airway granulomatous inflammation
    3. Glomerulonephritis
145
Q

Tx for acute exacerbations of MS?

A

-high-dose IV glucocorticoids

146
Q

Explain how warfarin can cause hypercoagulation?

A
  • warfarin inhibits the formation of vitamin K dependent clotting factors + protein C & S
  • clotting factors have a half-life of 60 hrs
  • protein C has a half-life of 9 hrs
  • when warfarin is first given it effects protein C production more bc of the shorter half-life, and that can make a pt protein C deficient –> hypercoagulable state –> at higher risk for thrombus formation and skin necrosis
  • *especially common in a pt that has an underlying congenital protein C def!
  • *why warfarin and heparin should both be given at first!
147
Q

Acute tx of hypertensive pts with either type A or B aortic dissections? MOA?

A
  • IV labetalol
  • Bb simultaneously lower heart rt and BP –> decrease stress on aortic wall
  • type B can usually be managed with meds alone
  • type A usually needs surgery eventually
148
Q

What type of lung cancer can be associated with hyperCa? Mnemonic?

A
  • squamous cell carcinoma

- sCa++mous

149
Q

Prophylaxis for PCP that should be given to all transplant pts?

A

-oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

150
Q

What is an “eggshell” calcification of a hepatic cyst on CT scan highly suggestive of? How is it contracted?

A
  • hydatid cyst

- contract echinococcus granulosus infection from the close and intimate contact with dogs

150
Q

What is an “eggshell” calcification of a hepatic cyst on CT scan highly suggestive of? How is it contracted?

A
  • hydatid cyst

- contract echinococcus granulosus infection from the close and intimate contact with dogs

151
Q

What does the p value mean?

A

-the probability that the results occured by chance alone

152
Q

Drug of choice for a pt with hyperTH-related tachy systolic a fib?

A

-a Beta blocker

153
Q

4 Ssx of a tick-borne paralysis?

A
  1. Rapidly progressive ascending paralysis
  2. Absence of fever
  3. Absence of sensory abnormalities
  4. Normal CSF
154
Q

Most common cause of thyroid nodules?

A

-colloid nodules

155
Q

First step in tx of acute variceal bleeding?

A

-aggressive fluid resuscitation –> via establishing vascular access w/ 2 lg bore IV needles or a central line

156
Q

When should a carotid endarterectomy be performed in a symptomatic pt? Asymptomatic?

A
  • symptomatic = 70-99% blockage

- asymptomatic = 60-99%

157
Q

What fungal organism is endemic to the Mississippi and Ohio river valleys?

A
  • histoplasmosis!

- found in soil w/ high concentration of bird and bat droppings

157
Q

What fungal organism is endemic to the Mississippi and Ohio river valleys?

A
  • histoplasmosis!

- found in soil w/ high concentration of bird and bat droppings

158
Q

What hormone do leydig cell tumors typically cause an overproduction of?

A

-estrogen

159
Q

Serum Sodium and specific gravity of urine in primary polpydipsia?

A
  • AKA: psychogenic polydypsia
  • hyponatremic
  • maximally dilute urine = low specific gravity
160
Q

What 3 meds can be given for an acute migraine attack?

A
  1. Chlorpromazine
  2. Prochlorperazine
  3. Metoclopramide
161
Q

Fungal organism that is endemic in Central and South US?

A

-coccidiomycosis!

162
Q

4 Ssx of chronic mesenteric ischemia?

A
  1. Chronic abdominal pain
  2. Weight loss
  3. Food aversion
  4. Associated atherosclerosis dz (ex history if MI, etc.)
163
Q

Relative risk and association?

A
  • an RR > 1 = positive association
  • an RR < 1 = negative association
  • the higher the RR, the stronger the association
163
Q

Relative risk and association?

A
  • an RR > 1 = positive association
  • an RR < 1 = negative association
  • the higher the RR, the stronger the association
164
Q

Pts with hemachromatosis and cirrhosis are at a higher risk for an infection with which organism?

A

-listeria monocytogenes

164
Q

Pts with hemachromatosis and cirrhosis are at a higher risk for an infection with which organism?

A

-listeria monocytogenes

164
Q

Pts with hemachromatosis and cirrhosis are at a higher risk for an infection with which organism?

A

-listeria monocytogenes

165
Q

2 iron-loving bacteria?

A
  1. Yersinia enterocolitica

2. Vibrio vulnificus

166
Q

What 3 groups of pts are at a higher risk of osteomyelitis?

A
  1. IV drug users
  2. Sickle cell anemia pts
  3. Immunosuppressed pts
166
Q

What 3 groups of pts are at a higher risk of osteomyelitis?

A
  1. IV drug users
  2. Sickle cell anemia pts
  3. Immunosuppressed pts
167
Q

Describe the pain with vertebral osteomyelitis

A
  • tenderness to gentle percussion over the spinous process involved
  • pain is not relieved w/ rest
168
Q

5 common manifestations of hypercalcemia?

A
  1. Severe constipation
  2. Anorexia
  3. Weakness
  4. Increased urination
  5. Neurologic abnormalities (ex confusion, lethargy, etc)
169
Q

What is the major electrolyte disturbance seen in multiple myeloma?

A

-hypercalcemia

170
Q

CSF in Guillain-Barre Syndrome?

A
  • high protein concentration
  • normal cell count (both WBCs and RBCs)
  • normal glucose
171
Q

Fluphenazine, what is it? How can it cause hypothermia?

A
  • “typical” antipsychotic drug that is more potent than haloperidol
  • can cause hypothermia by disrupting thermoregulation and the body’s shivering mechanism
172
Q

6 Risk factors for developing pancreatic Ca?

A
  1. Family hx
  2. Chronic pancreatitis
  3. Smoking
  4. DM
  5. Obesity
  6. Diet high in fat
173
Q

Ginseng and warfarin?

A

-known to decrease the serum concentration of warfarin

174
Q

4 Drugs that can potentiate the anticoagulant effects of warfarin?

A
  1. Acetaminophen
  2. NSAIDs
  3. Amioderone
  4. Antibiotics
175
Q

4 Steps to tx of ascities?

A
  1. Na and H2O restriction
  2. Spironolcatone
  3. Loop diuretic
  4. Frequent abdominal paracentesis
176
Q

3 Causes for osmolar gap metabolic acidosis?

A
  1. Acute methanol poisoning
  2. Acute ethanol poisoning
  3. Acute ethylene glycol poisoning
176
Q

3 Causes for osmolar gap metabolic acidosis?

A
  1. Acute methanol poisoning
  2. Acute ethanol poisoning
  3. Acute ethylene glycol poisoning
177
Q

What are envelope-shaped crystals in the urine made of? When can they be seen?

A
  • calcium oxalate crystals

- seen in pts with ethylene glycol poisoning

178
Q

5 Ssx of poor respiratory drive?

A
  1. Decreased breath sounds
  2. Absent wheezing
  3. Decreased mental status
  4. Marked hypoxia with cyanosis
  5. Elevated or normal PaCO2
178
Q

5 Ssx of poor respiratory drive?

A
  1. Decreased breath sounds
  2. Absent wheezing
  3. Decreased mental status
  4. Marked hypoxia with cyanosis
  5. Elevated or normal PaCO2
178
Q

5 Ssx of poor respiratory drive?

A
  1. Decreased breath sounds
  2. Absent wheezing
  3. Decreased mental status
  4. Marked hypoxia with cyanosis
  5. Elevated or normal PaCO2
178
Q

5 Ssx of poor respiratory drive?

A
  1. Decreased breath sounds
  2. Absent wheezing
  3. Decreased mental status
  4. Marked hypoxia with cyanosis
  5. Elevated or normal PaCO2
179
Q

Which hyperTH pts are most likely to develop hypoTH after radioactive iodine tx?

A

-grave’s pts bc their whole gland is hyperactive

180
Q

What is the most feared complication of a retropharyngeal abscess?

A

-spread of the infection to the mediastinum –> leads to acute necrotizing mediastinitis

181
Q

Which neck space infection carries the highest risk of mediastinal involvement?

A

-retropharyngeal space

182
Q

4 Main criteria for determining brain death?

A
  1. Absent cranial nerve reflexes
  2. Fixed and dilated pupils
  3. No spontaneous breaths
  4. Agreement of 2 physicians
183
Q

Multiple system atrophy 5 Ssx?

A
  1. Parkinonism
  2. Orthostatic hypotension
  3. Impotence
  4. Incontinence
  5. Other autonomic sx
183
Q

Multiple system atrophy 5 Ssx?

A
  1. Parkinonism
  2. Orthostatic hypotension
  3. Impotence
  4. Incontinence
  5. Other autonomic sx
184
Q

AFP and B-HCG in seminomatous and non-seminatous germ cell tumors?

A
  • seminomatous = elevated B-HCG only

- nonseminomatous = elevated B-HCG and AFP

185
Q

Most serious side effect of hydroxychloroquine? What does it tx?

A
  • can cause retinopathy! –> send pt for eye exams every 6 mnths!
  • can be used to tx isolated joint and skin involvement of SLE
186
Q

What is an acid-fast stain that shows oocytes in stool suggestive of?

A

-cryptosporidium parvum

187
Q

Cryptosporidium parvum: what does it cause?

A

-major cause of chronic diarrhea in HIV pts with CD4 counts <180

187
Q

Cryptosporidium parvum: what does it cause?

A

-major cause of chronic diarrhea in HIV pts with CD4 counts <180

188
Q

Effects if pregnancy on respiration?

A

-progesterone is present in high concentrations in the serum –> has direct stimulatory effect on the dorsal resp group of the medullary resp center

189
Q

Where are bronchiogenic cysts usually found?

A

-middle mediastinum

189
Q

Where are bronchiogenic cysts usually found?

A

-middle mediastinum

189
Q

Where are bronchiogenic cysts usually found?

A

-middle mediastinum

190
Q

Indinavir: what is it? Sfx?

A
  • protease inhibitor for HIV

- crystal-induced nephropathy can be a side effects

190
Q

Indinavir: what is it? Sfx?

A
  • protease inhibitor for HIV

- crystal-induced nephropathy can be a side effects

191
Q

5 features if Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome?

A
  1. False + VDRL
  2. Prolonged PTT
  3. Thrombocytopenia
  4. Tendency for spontaneous abortions
  5. Arterial and venous thromboses are common
191
Q

5 features if Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome?

A
  1. False + VDRL
  2. Prolonged PTT
  3. Thrombocytopenia
  4. Tendency for spontaneous abortions
  5. Arterial and venous thromboses are common
192
Q

Aspiration of a fibrocystic breast mass?

A
  • fluid should be clear

- removing the fluid should cause a disappearance of the mass

193
Q

Fibrocystic breast disease?

A
  • rubbery. Firm, mobile breast mass
  • mass gets more tender during menses
  • common in young females
194
Q

What 3 cancers are more likely to cause solitary brain mets?

A
  1. Breast
  2. Colon
  3. Renal cell carcinoma
195
Q

What 2 types of cancer are more likely to cause multiple brain mets?

A
  1. Lung cancer

2. Malignant melanoma

195
Q

What 2 types of cancer are more likely to cause multiple brain mets?

A
  1. Lung cancer

2. Malignant melanoma

196
Q

Blastomycosis: where is it endemic to? 3 general characteristics of ssx?

A
  • endemic to Great Lakes and Ohio and Mississippi River basins
    1. Skin lesions
    2. Lytic bone lesions
    3. Pulmonary sx that can resemble TB on CXR
197
Q

Tx for mucormycosis? Commonly infects?

A
  • aggressive surgical debridement + amphotericin B

- often seen in diabetics with DKA

198
Q

What is bronchialveolar lavage most useful in detecting?

A
  1. Pulmonary malignancy

2. Opportunistic infections

199
Q

2 Ssx of agranulocytosis?

A
  1. Fever
  2. Sore throat
    - w/in 90 days of starting a med that is known to cause agranulocytosis (ex. Antithyroid drugs)
200
Q

What is a serious sfx of antithyroid drugs? 2 Ssx?

A
  • agranulocytosis
    1. Fever
    2. Sore throat
201
Q

When should you suspect GERD when an adult presents with asthma sx?

A
  1. Worse after meals
  2. Worse after exercise
  3. Worse after lying down
202
Q

Light’s criteria for determining if a fluid is an exudate?

A
  • fluid must have at least one of these:
    1. Pleural fluid protein/serum protein ration > 0.5
    2. Pleural fluid lactate dehydrogenase/ serum LDH > 0.6
    3. Pleural fluid LDH > 2/3 of the upper limit of normal for serum LDH
203
Q

Live vaccines and HIV pts?

A
  • should be avoided
  • EXCEPTION: MMR vaccine can be given if the pt has a CD4 count > 200/micro-L and no evidence or hx of an AIDS-defining illness
204
Q

Chronic and barrett’s esophagus are both a risk for what condition?

A

-adenocarcinoma of the esophagus

205
Q

What arrhythmia can be specifically caused by digitalis toxicity?

A

-atrial tachy + AV block

206
Q

Isoniazid and Liver?

A
  • can cause hepatitis, a more sever hepatotoxicity, or minor subclinical hepatic injury
  • 10-20% of pts develop mild aminotransferase elevation in the first few weeks of tx –> self-limited and resolves w/out tx
207
Q

Presentation of ventricular free wall rupture?

A
  • usually occurs 5-14 days after an acute MI
  • acute onset of chest pain
  • profound shock
  • rapid progression to pulseless activity
  • death
208
Q

What to tell a ot who finds a tick on them?

A

-remove it with tweezers

209
Q

Who is at the greatest risk of prerenal azotemia? Why?

A
  • elderly pts, esp those who are bed ridden

- due to decreased thirst response and decreased ability to self-administer fluids

210
Q

Tx of premature atrial beats?

A
  • nothing

- they are completely benign.

211
Q

3 Ssx of angioedema?

A

Rapid onset of:

  1. Non-inflammatory edema of the face, limbs, and genitalia
  2. Laryngeal edema
  3. Edema of the bowels resulting in colicky abdominal pain
212
Q

Pathophysology of angioedema?

A
  • C1 inhibitor deficiency –> elevated levels C2b and bradykinin (edema-producing factors)
  • can be inherited or acquired
  • can be caused by ACEi
213
Q

Best screening test for primary hyperaldo?

A

-early-morning plasma aldo concentration to plasma renin activity ratio

214
Q

Definition of heat stroke?

A
  • core temp > 40*C

- altered mental status

214
Q

Definition of heat stroke?

A
  • core temp > 40*C

- altered mental status

215
Q

4 Complications of heat stroke?

A
  1. Rhabdomyolysis
  2. Renal failure
  3. ARDS
  4. Coagulopathic bleeding
216
Q

What can be heard on the lung exam of a pt with idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

A

-“velcro-like” inspiratory crackles

217
Q

CXR findings with sarcoidosis?

A
  1. Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy

2. Diffuse interstitial infiltrates

217
Q

CXR findings with sarcoidosis?

A
  1. Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy

2. Diffuse interstitial infiltrates

218
Q

Hemorrhages v. Infarcts on CT brain scans?

A
  • hemorrhage = hyperdense

- infarct = hypodense

219
Q

Clinical association with enterococci and infective endocarditis?

A

-nosocomial UTI (usually via instrumentation or cath)

220
Q

Clinical association with staph aureus and infective endocarditis?

A
  1. Prosthetic valves
  2. Intravascular catheters
  3. Implanted devices
  4. IV drug use
221
Q

Clinical associations with viridans strep and infective endocarditis?

A
  1. Dental procedures

2. Respiratory tract procedures that involve incision &/or bx

222
Q

Clinical associations with strep bovis and infective endocarditis?

A
  1. Colon carcinoma

2. Inflammatory bowel dz

222
Q

Clinical associations with strep bovis and infective endocarditis?

A
  1. Colon carcinoma

2. Inflammatory bowel dz

223
Q

Clinical associations with fungi and infective endocarditis?

A
  1. Immunocomp hosts
  2. Chronic indwelling caths
  3. Prolonged antibiotic tx
223
Q

Clinical associations with fungi and infective endocarditis?

A
  1. Immunocomp hosts
  2. Chronic indwelling caths
  3. Prolonged antibiotic tx
223
Q

Clinical associations with fungi and infective endocarditis?

A
  1. Immunocomp hosts
  2. Chronic indwelling caths
  3. Prolonged antibiotic tx
224
Q

Antibodies in Eaton-Lambert syndrome?

A

-autoantibodies against voltage-gated calcium channels in the PREsynaptic motor nerve terminal

225
Q

What is Eatin-Lambert syndrome associated with?

A

-small cell carcinoma of the lung

256
Q

5 Ssx of Lewy body dementia?

A
  1. Alterations in consciousness
  2. Disorganized speech
  3. Visual hallucinations
  4. Extrapyramidal symptoms
  5. Relatively early compromise of executive functions
257
Q

What can hemothorax lead to? Tx?

A
  • can lead to empyema –> blood is an excellent growth medium for the growth of bacteria
  • tx: surgery, thick pleural peel and pus need to be removed and the chest needs to be drained
258
Q

Cause of pneumonia that occurs in a pt with a recent influenza infection?

A

-staph aureus

259
Q

First thing to do in a pt with suspected infective endocarditis?

A
  • obtain blood cultures from separate venipuncture sites over a specified period of time
  • do BEFORE tx with antibiotics!
264
Q

The main essential ssx of alveolar hypoventillation?

A

-elevated PaCO2 of 50-80 mmHg

265
Q

Equation to determine A-a gradient? Normal?

A

(PAO2-PaO2)

-normal < 15 –> but value will increase with age, so anything > 30 = abnormal

266
Q

4 Causes of alveolar hypoventilation?

A
  1. Pulmonary/thoracic disease = COPD, obstructive sleep apnea, obesity, scoliosis
  2. Neuromuscular dz = MG, Lambert-Eaton syndrome, Guillain-Barre syndrome
  3. Drug-induced = anesthetics, narcotics,sedatives
  4. Primary central nervous system dysfunction = brainstem lesion, infection, stroke
267
Q

Bladder cancer screening recommendations?

A

-recommended against bc of low incidence and low predictive value of screening tests –> even in pts with risk factors!

267
Q

Bladder cancer screening recommendations?

A

-recommended against bc of low incidence and low predictive value of screening tests –> even in pts with risk factors!

268
Q

Renal compensation for respiratory alkalosis?

A

-kidney tries to hold onto more H+ & excrete more bicarb –> urine will be alkalinized

269
Q

Most common form of kidney damage seen in HIV pts?

A
  • collapsing focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis
  • AKA HIV-related nephropathy
  • typical presentation:
    1. Heavy proteinuria
    2. Rapid development of renal failure
    3. Can occur even with normal CD4 and viral load
270
Q

Associated condition with acanthosis?

A
  1. Insulin resistance

2. gI malignancy

271
Q

Associated conditions with multiple skin tags?

A
  1. Insulin resistance
  2. Pregnancy
  3. Crohn’s disease (perianal)
272
Q

2 Skin conditions associated with HIV infection?

A
  1. Severe seborreic dermatitis

2. Sudden-onset severe psoriasis

273
Q

What is the associated condition with an explosive onset of multiple itchy seborrheic keratoses?

A
  1. GI malignancy
274
Q

What are 2 skin conditions associated with GI malignancy?

A
  1. Acanthosis nigricans

2. Explosive onset of multiple itchy seborrheic keratoses

275
Q

Presentation of oral leukoplakia?

A

-white patches or plaques over the oral mucosa that cannot be scraped off

276
Q

Risk factors for oral leukoplasia? What can it progress to?

A
  • risk factors:
    1. Smokeless tobacco
    2. Alcohol use
  • can progress to squamous carcinoma
277
Q

How to calculate number needed to treat?

A

-inverse of absolute risk reduction = risk without drug/exposure - risk without drug/exposure

278
Q

What is sympathetic opthamlmia? Pathophysiology?

A
  • AKA: “spared eye injury”
  • damage of one eye (the sympathetic eye) after a penetrating injury to the other eye via immune mediated inflammation
  • caused by an immunologic mechanism that involves the recognition of “hidden” antigens
278
Q

What is sympathetic opthamlmia? Pathophysiology?

A
  • AKA: “spared eye injury”
  • damage of one eye (the sympathetic eye) after a penetrating injury to the other eye via immune mediated inflammation
  • caused by an immunologic mechanism that involves the recognition of “hidden” antigens
279
Q

3 Ssx of diabetes insipidus?

A
  1. Polyuria
  2. Polydipsia
  3. Excretion of dilute urine in the presence of elevated serum osmolality
280
Q

2 Ssx of primary polydipsia?

A
  1. Dilute plasma

2. Dilute urine

281
Q

3 Ssx of SIADH?

A
  1. Hyponatremia
  2. Low serum osmolality
  3. Inappropriately high urine osmolality = highly concentrated urine
282
Q

Formula for anion gap calculation? Normal?

A
  • AG = measured cations - measured anions
  • AG = Na+ - (HCO3- + Cl-)
  • normal = 6-12
283
Q

What drugs can be used to tx/prevent chemo-induced nausea and vomiting?

A
  • serotonin antagonists that block 5HT3 receptors

- ex. Odansetron

284
Q

Which skin cancer tends to be found above the upper lip on the face? Which is found on the lower lip and below on the face?

A
  • upper = basal cell

- lower = squamous cell

285
Q

Typical presentation of a vitamin K deficient pt?

A
  • pt who has been NPO for a prolonged period of time and receiving broad-spectrum antibiotics
  • prolonged PT and PTT, but PT is more elevated
286
Q

Myasthenia crisis: what is it? Tx?

A
  • weakness of respiratory and pharyngeal muscles

- tx: endotracheal intubation and withdrawal of anticholinesterases for several days

287
Q

3 Possible Reasons for an elevated hematocrit in a competitive athlete?

A
  1. Exogenous androgens
  2. Autologous blood transfusions
  3. EPO abuse
288
Q

What are autologous blood transfusions?

A
  • removal of multiple units of blood several weeks before a competitive event and then transfusing them back into the athlete a few days before the event
  • net effect: increased hematocrit, oxygen-carrying capacity, and performance
  • can be seen in competitive athletes
289
Q

Where do Mallory-Weiss tears occur?

A

-submucosal arteries of the distal esophagus and proximal stomach

290
Q

4 Characteristics/ssx of Creutzfeldt-Jakob dz?

A
  1. Older pt (50-70 yrs)
  2. Rapidly progressing dementia
  3. Myoclonus
  4. Periodic synchronous bi or triphasic sharp wave complexes on EEG
291
Q

What should all sickle cell pts be supplemented with daily? Why?

A
  • folic acid –> prevent macrocytic anemia

- folate deficiency can occur bc of increased RBC turnover and increased consumption of folate in bone marrow

315
Q

2 Herpes simplex keratitis signs on exam?

A
  1. Corneal vesicles

2. Dendritic ulcers

316
Q

5 Sx of herpes simplex keratitis?

A
  1. Pain
  2. Photophobia
  3. Blurred vision
  4. Tearing
  5. Redness
317
Q

What 4 things can precipitate a reoccurrence of herpes simplex keratitis?

A
  1. Sun exposure
  2. Outdoor occupation
  3. Fever
  4. Immunodeficiency
318
Q

What is seen on epithelial scrapings in a pt with herpes simplex keratitis?

A

-multi-nucleated giant cells

319
Q

What electrolyte disturbance is seen with DKA? Why?

A
  • hyperkalemia
  • paradoxical though, bc the body potassium reserves are depleted
  • potassium moves out of the cell when H+ moves in –> so intracellular K+ is low, esp since insulin is needed to push K+ back into the cells
320
Q

What is choriocarcinoma! When can it be seen?

A
  • a form of gestational trophoblastic disease
  • can occur after:
    1. Normal gestation
    2. Molar pregnancy –> most common
    3. Abortion
321
Q

Triad of ssx in all types of gestational trophoblastic disease?

A
  1. Irregular vaginal bleeding
  2. Enlarged uterus
  3. Pelvic pain
322
Q

How long is normal to have irregular vaginal bleeding post partum for? What should you be concerned about if it is longer?

A
  • < 8 weeks is normal

- if longer, be concerned about gestational trophoblastic disease

323
Q

What are the 2 malignant forms of gestational trophoblastic disease? Are they local or metastatic?

A
  1. Gestational trophoblastic neoplasm –> locally invasive

2. Choriocarcinoma –> highly metastatic –> esp to lungs (presents w/ pulmonary sx & hemoptysis)

324
Q

What is the best way to confirm the dx of a choriocarcinoma?

A

-quantitative Beta HCG level

325
Q

FEV1/FVC ratio in obstructive v restrictive lung dz?

A
  • obstructive < 80%

- restrictive > 80%

326
Q

What is the first thing you do when managing a pt with suspected temporal arteritis?

A
  • HIGH DOSE STEROIDS!!!!

- do not wait to tx!!

327
Q

Tx for a fib in an unstable pt?

A

-immediate cardioversion with DC

328
Q

Bug responsible for osteomyelitis in pts with nail puncture wound?

A

-pseudomonas aeruginosa

329
Q

Most common cause of osteomyelitis in adults and children?

A

-staph aureus

330
Q

Gentamicin: what type of drug is it? What 2 sfx does that class have? What can gentamicin cause?

A
  • aminoglycoside
  • can cause:
    1. Ototoxicity
    2. Nephrotoxicity
  • gentamicin can cause severe vestibulotoxicity that can result in potentially permanent vertigo and ataxia
331
Q

Triad of ssx in post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis? When can it occur?

A
  1. Periorbital swelling
  2. Hematuria
  3. Oliguria
    - can be seen 10-20 days after strep throat or skin infections
332
Q

What drug can be used tk limit ventricular remodeling following an MI?

A

-an ACEi

333
Q

Dacryocystitis: what is it? Who is it usually seen in? 6 Ssx?

A

-infection of lacrimal sac
-usually seen in infants and adults > 40 yrs
-ssx:
1. Sudden onset of pain
2. Redness in medial canthal region of eye
3. Purulent discharge from punctum
Less common:
4. Fever
5. Prostration
6. Elevated WBCs

334
Q

2 Common organisms that cause dacryocystitis?

A
  1. Staph aureus

2. Beta-hemolytic strep

335
Q

Tx for symptomatic sarcoidosis?

A

-glucocorticoids

336
Q

Hepatitis A and B vaccinations during pregnancy?

A
  • both are safe during pregnancy!

- should both be given if someone has hep C

337
Q

Rubella vaccination and conception?

A

-previously women were advised not to get pregnant within 3 mnths of vaccination, but there is no proof for that, so no recommendations now

338
Q

Septic embolic and infectious endocarditis?

A
  • in right sided endocarditis (IV drug users) can send emboli to lungs
  • in left sided endocarditis can send emboli to blood rich organs (ex brain, kidneys, liver, & spleen)
  • septic emboli predispose to abscess formation
339
Q

Tx for TTP-HUS?

A
  • plasmapheresis = plasma exchange

- do ASAP!

340
Q

TTP-HUS: what is it? Pathophysiology?

A
  • thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura-hemolytic uremic syndrome
  • thought to be due to a deficiency or autoantibodies against a specific von Willebrand factor-cleaving protease –> causes an accumulation of lg vWf multimers + platele aggregation
341
Q

Pneumonitis and colitis in a post-bone marrow transplant pt?

A

-Cytomegalo virus!

342
Q

How is chloride-sensitive metabolic alkalosis classified? What is the most common pathophysiology?

A
  • urinary chloride < 20 mEq/day
  • common pathophys = usually due to an ECF volume contraction –> causes an increase in mineralocorticoid action –> bicarb retention, H+ and K+ loss –> urinary chloride level remains low bc the kidneys are retaining NaCl and water
  • can be seen with thiazide or loop diuretics, or loss of gastric secretions (ex surreptitious vomiting - bulemia)
343
Q

What drug should be avoided in acute glaucoma? Why?

A
  • atropine

- it can dilate the pupil and make the glaucoma worse!

344
Q

4 Drugs that can be used to tx acute glaucoma?

A
  1. Mannitol
  2. Acetazolamide
  3. Pilocarpine
  4. Timolol
345
Q

Question

A

20

345
Q

What type of dz is chagas dz? What organism is it caused by?

A
  • chronic protozoal dz

- caused by Trypanosoma cruzi

346
Q

What causes isolated systolic HTN?

A

-decreased elasticity in the arterial wall

347
Q

What is Waldenstrom’s Macroglobulinemia?

A
  • rare
  • chronic
  • plasma cell neoplasm
  • abnormal plasma cells multiply out-of-control and invade the bone marrow, lymph nodes, and spleen
  • excess IgM in blood –> causes hyperviscosity of blood
348
Q

7 Major Ssx of Waldenstrom’s Macroglobulinemia?

A
  1. Increased size of spleen, liver, and some lymph nodes
  2. Tiredness, due to anemia
  3. Tendency to bleed and bruise easily
  4. Night sweats
  5. Headache and dizziness
  6. Various visual problems
  7. Pain and numbness in extremities due to predominantly demyelinating sensorimotor neuropathy
349
Q

Immunoglobulins seen increased in multiple myeloma?

A

-IgG or IgA

350
Q

Formula for attributable risk percent (ARP)?

A

ARP = (RR-1)/RR

351
Q

What is a t-test used for?

A

-compares the means of 2 groups

352
Q

What test is used to compare the means of 2 groups?

A

-T-test

353
Q

What is the ANOVA test used for?

A

-comparing 3 or more means

354
Q

What test can be used to compare 3+ means?

A

-ANOVA

356
Q

What is the best way to dx polymyositis?

A

-muscle bx

357
Q

What is polymyositis? How does it typically present? Which 2 groups of muscles are usually spared?

A
  • inflammatory muscle dz
  • presents with slowly progressive proximal wkness of lower extremities
  • soares:
    1. Muscles of mastication
    2. Facial expression muscles
358
Q

6 Indications for hemodialysis?

A
  1. Refractory hyperkalemia
  2. Volume overload or pulmonary edema not responding to diuretics
  3. Refractory metabolic acidosis (pH <7.2)
  4. Uremic pericarditis
  5. Uremic encephalopathy or neuropathy
  6. Coagulation due to renal failure
359
Q

Most important initial step in tx a pt w/ DKA?

A

-give normal saline and regular insulin

360
Q

Mucopurulent urethral discharge in a pt with multiple partners?

A

-Chlamydia

361
Q

What is the most common site of colon cancer mets?

A

-the liver

362
Q

Why can alcoholics have hypocalcemia?

A

-excessive alcohol consumption –> predisposes to chronic pancreatitis –> malabsorption of vit D

363
Q

Pathophysiology of Lithium-induced DI? Tx?

A
  • lithium accumulation in the kidneys directly damages the renal tubules
  • tx:
    1. Amiloride –> prevents further lithium accumulation in the renal tubules
    2. IV Normal saline –> for severe dehydration and hypotension
364
Q

Organism that most commonly causes pneumonia in nursing homes?

A

-strep pneumo

365
Q

2 Tx for cellulitis with systemic ssx?

A
  1. Nafcillin

2. Cefazolin

366
Q

What is the basic problem in nephrotic syndromes, and what 3 things can that lead to?

A
  • problem: massive loss of protein in the urine that the liver can’t keep up with by making more albumin
  • consequences:
    1. Edema
    2. Hyperlipidemia
    3. Hypercoagulability w/ thrombosis (esp in renal vein)
367
Q

Tx for MS exacerbation?

A

-corticosteroids

368
Q

2 best first line long term tx for MS?

A
  1. Glatiramer

2. Beta-interferon

369
Q

Pt on chronic suppressive MS tx who develops worsening neurological deficits and new white-matter hypodense lesions on MRI?

A

-most likely cause by chronic med Natalizumab

370
Q

What is Natalizumab sometimes associated with causing in MS pts?

A

-PML = progressive multipack leukoencephalopathy

Step 2 UWorld (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions