Medicine- Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

Pain, erythema, and swelling below the medial canthus of the left eye, along with purulent discharge from the lacrimal punctum… Dx?

A

acute dacryocystitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

1st line tx of acute dacryocystitis?

A

Oral antibiotics with gram-positive coverage, such as amoxicillin-clavulanate. (Warm compresses and NSAIDs are also used to decrease pain and inflammation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

First-line treatment for patients with PCP who are allergic to sulfa drugs

A

IV clindamycin and oral primaquine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The recommended empiric therapy for sepsis?

A

A regimen of intravenous vancomycin and ceftriaxone covers a broad spectrum of both gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria (including MRSA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Prophylactic medication of choice for a pregnant patient travelling to an area where P. falciparum is endemic and resistance to chloroquine is likely

A

1st choice = Mefloquine

Atovaquone-proguanil would be an equally viable prophylactic medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which microorganism is often associated with insect bite infections and is the most common cause of erysipelas and lymphangitis.

A

Strep pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Initial treatment for febrile neutropenia

A

monotherapy (anti-pseudomonal coverage) - Cefepime, meropenem and Pip-Tazo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the next best test to confirm diagnosis in a patient with suspected primary syphilis and negative VDRL

A

FTA- ABS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What type of conjunctivitis has unremitting discharge and reappears after wiping?

A

Bacterial conjunctivitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What pathogen is the most common cause of bacterial conjunctivitis in adults

A

Staph Aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

1st line treatment for penicillin sensitive ineffective endocarditis

A

IV aqueous penicillin G or IV ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the risk factors for influenza complications and the treatment

A

Age >65, chronic medical conditions and pregnancy

oseltamivir regardless of symptom duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Manifestations of secondary syphillis

A
  1. fever, malaise and sore throat
  2. oral lesions (grey mucous patches)
  3. raised grey genital papules (condylomata lata)
  4. diffuse rash (palms and soles)
  5. lymphadenopathy (epitrochlear) (sailors handshake)
  6. hepatitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Meningococcal vaccination regular schedule?

A
  1. primary vaccination at 11-12

2. booster at 16-21 (if primary was before 16)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Contraindications to yellow fever vaccine

A
  1. allergy to vaccine components (eg. eggs)
  2. AIDs (CD4 <200), stem cell transplant, certain immunodeficiencies
  3. Immunosuppressive therapy (eg, TNF antagonists, high dose steroids)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Recommended Vaccines for chronic liver disease

A

HAV, HBV, Influenza, PPSV23 (then revaccinate at age 65 with PCV13 first then PPSV23) and Tdap

17
Q

Which patients are at highest risk for vertebral osteomyelitis

A

IVDU, Sickle cell patients and immunosuppressed patients

18
Q

Characteristic Features of “break-bone fever” (dengue).

A
  1. Retro-orbital pain, fever, malaise, and myalgia
  2. exanthem and lymphadenopathy
  3. leukopenia and thrombocytopenia
19
Q

A common adverse effect of Idinavir

A

Urolithiasis (crystallization and stone formation) due to poor renal excretion

20
Q

First-line treatment of malignant otitis externa

A

High-dose IV ciprofloxacin

21
Q

With which risk factor are coagulase-negative staphylococci, such as S. epidermidis, most commonly associated?

A

S. epidermidis has the ability to adhere to foreign bodies (e.g., intravenous catheters, pacemakers, prosthetic heart valves) and subsequently form a biofilm.

22
Q

An odontogenic infection and swollen, tender neck in a diabetic patient likely indicates spread of the infection towards the soft tissue of the neck… dx?

A

Ludwig Angina

23
Q

1st line treatment for Otitis externa

A

Topical abx (fluoroquinolone) + steroids (can add acetic acid and water solution to help)

24
Q

What type organism causes infective endocarditis after exposure to a UTI

A

Enterococci

25
Q

What is the best form of diagnosis for PCP

A

Brochoalveolar lavage (dx requires respiratory sample using specialized stains under microscope)

26
Q

Etiology, manifestation and treatment of Cutaneous larva migrans

A

Hookworm (Anclystoma) - barefoot contact in contaminated sand or soil

LE intensely pruritic, migratory reddish brown-tracks

Ivermectin

27
Q

Indications for steroid use along with original treatment for PCP

A

PaO2 <70 or A-a gradient >35

28
Q

Urethritis with negative gram stain and culture

A

Chlamydia

29
Q

Lab findings in a patient with contracted Chickungunya fever

A

Lymphyocytopenia, thrombocytopenia and transaminitis

30
Q

What is the next best step in a patient who is recovering well from treatment with IV ceftriaxone being treated for acute pyelonephritis

A

Switch to oral TMP-SMX after 48hrs of improval and discharge

31
Q

Manifestations of Sporothrix infection

A

Skin papule –> ulceration with nonpurulent odorless drainage
proximal lesions along lymphatic drainage

32
Q

The dendritic corneal ulcer in this patient is a typical feature of which organism

A

Herpes simplex keratitis

33
Q

This diabetic patient presents with lower back pain, elevated ESR, and CRP. These features, together with the x-ray and MRI findings (bone destruction, sequestrum formation and periosteal reaction) indicate what and next best step?

A

Spondylodiscitis (vertebral osteomyelitis)

CT guided Bx to confirm

34
Q

The history of a painless penile lesion, followed by suppurative painful lymphadenopathy 2–4 weeks after the initial lesion has healed

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum.(serotypes L1, L2, and L3 of Chlamydia trachomatis)