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mental dental > MD PEDIATRIC > Flashcards

MD PEDIATRIC Flashcards

1
Q

what are stages of tooth development and time?

A

initation stage ( 6 weeks )

bud stage ( 8 weeks)

Cap stage (9 weeks)

Bell stage ( 11 weeks)

Maturation ( 14+ week)

eruption

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2
Q

all primary teeth and permanent molars arise from what tissue ?

A

DENTINAL LAMINA !!

BUD STAGE

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3
Q

what stage does enamel begin to develop? how long does it take to get to this stage?

A

CAP STAGE ( after bud stage): enamel organ that makes enamel

  • dentinal papilla: rest of tooth bud creates dentin and pulp
  • Dental follicle: surrounding sac surrounds dentinal papilla and enamil organ ​

9 weeks

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4
Q

what is the dental follicle?

A

Sac of cells surrounds both the enamel organ and the dental papilla (creates dentin and pulp)

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5
Q

what stage follows cap stage and what is being created?

A

Inner cell layer (IEE) : ameloblasts

Dental Papilla: odontoblasts (dentin making)

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6
Q

what are the stages of BELL stage?

A

Histodifferntiation: IEE -> ameloblasts ; Dental papilla -> odontoblasts

Morphodifferntiation: shape and size of crown determined during this process

Apposition: odontoblasts: deposit dentin matrix (collagen) ; ameloblasts: deposit enamel matrix; Cervical Loop: IEE and OEE join (HERS and epi rests of Malassez)

IEE + OEE = REE ( functional epithelium)

Maturation : depsit enamel and dentin; calcification begins at cusp tips and goes down

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7
Q

what is the longestr stage of tooth development?

A

maturation ( bell stage)

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8
Q

how long does it take to complete maturation of primary tooth crown?

A

2 years

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9
Q

how long does it take to complete permanent tooth crown ?

A

4-5 years

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10
Q

SUMMARY OF ERUPTED TOOTH

A

Enamel organ: emloblasts -> enamel

Dental Papilla: odontoblasts -> dentin; central cells-> pulp

Dental Follicle: cementoblsts -> cementum; osteoblasts -> alveolar bone ; fibroblasts -> PDL

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11
Q

calcification order :

central incisors

lateral incisors

canines

first molars

second molars

A

central Incisors : 14 weeks

First molar: 15 weeks

Lateral incisors: 16 weeks

Canines: 17

second molars: 18 weeks

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12
Q

development order

calcification order :

central incisors

lateral incisors

canines

first molars

second molars

A

central inciros ( mandibular first) : 6-7

lateral incisors ( max first) : 7-8

first molars: 9-11

canine: 10-12

second molars : 10-12

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13
Q
A
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14
Q

primary tooth development?

A
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15
Q

permanent tooth development

A
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16
Q

most common supernumery teeth?

A

mesiodens ( middle ebtween 8 and 9)

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17
Q

most common missing teeth order?

A

3rd molars

mandibular 2nd PM

maxillary Laterals

Maxillary second PM

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18
Q

most common congenitally missing primary tooth?

A

Maxillary Lateral Incisor

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19
Q

which one affects cap stage/ bell stage?

microdontia

fusion

gemination

macrodontia

A

Bell: Micro and Macro

Cap: FUsion and Gemination

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20
Q

patient walks in count was one less than normal. what do they have?

A

FUSION

always anterior

2 buds merge into 1 tooth

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21
Q

patient comes in with normal count of teeth. what is this called? what happens during it?

A

gemination !

  • 2 crown 1 root

tooth count normal

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22
Q

patient has tooth with extra cusp. what is this ?

dens invaginatus

dens evaginatus

tauradontism

dilaceration

A

dens Evaginatus :

talon cusp, has pulp, dentin , enamel ( dont extract)

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23
Q

patient walks in and radiographs shows a tooth growing inside anotherl . what does this patient have? what causes this ? what tooth mostly found in?

dens invaginatus

dens evaginatus

tauradontism

dilaceration

A

dens invaginatus ( dens in dente)

caused by invagination of IEE

permanent maxillary lateral

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24
Q

what does this radiograph show an image of ?

A

taurodotism

elongated pulp chamber and short roots

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25
Q

what does this show an image of and what causes it ?

A

DILACERATION

traumatic injury to primary tooth

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26
Q

patient walks in with this radiograph. what do they have?

amelogenesis imperfects

dentinogenesis imperfects

regional odontodysplashia

enamel hypoplasia

A

dentinogenesis imperfects ( no pulp)

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27
Q

a patient walks in with blue scelera in her eye. this is a feature of what?

amelogenesis imperfects

dentinogenesis imperfects

regional odontodysplashia

enamel hypoplasia

A

dentinogenesis imperfecta

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28
Q

what does this patient have?

amelogenesis imperfects

dentinogenesis imperfects

regional odontodysplashia

enamel hypoplasia

A

amelogenesis imperfecta :

alteration of enamel

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29
Q

what does this patient have?

amelogenesis imperfects

dentinogenesis imperfects

regional odontodysplashia

dentin dysplasia

concreasence

enamel hypoplasia

A

dentin dysplasia !!

chevron pup;s, short roots, messed up dentin

short roots: type 1

Chevron pulps: type 2

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30
Q

what does this patient have?

amelogenesis imperfects

dentinogenesis imperfects

regional odontodysplashia

dentin dysplasia

concreasence

enamel hypoplasia

A

REGIONAL ODONTODYSPLASIA

ghost teeth

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31
Q

after extraction. adjacent teeth look as though fused together by cementum. what is this

concreascance

fusion

gemination

A

concreascene

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32
Q

difference between

gemination

fusion

concreascence

A

fusion: 2 buds / 1 tooth ( one less)

gemination (one root 2 crown ( normal)

concr: adjacent fuse togehter

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33
Q

patient walks in with this. what is this condition?

amelogenesis imperfects

dentinogenesis imperfects

regional odontodysplashia

dentin dysplasia

concreasence

enamel hypoplasia

A

ENAMEL HYPOPLASIA

turners hypoplasia

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34
Q

patient walks in with this. what is this condition?

amelogenesis imperfects

dentinogenesis imperfects

regional odontodysplashia

dentin dysplasia

concreasence

enamel hypoplasia

A

enamel hypoplasia

congenital syphilis ( hutchinsons incisors and mulberry molars)

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35
Q

difference between primary and secondary mandibular first enamel in terms of

  • enamel
  • pulp
  • rootsa
A

primary:

thinner enamel

bigger pulp

more divergent roots

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36
Q

this tooth is widest anterior tooth M->D direction and only ant tooth where width is bigger than height

A

primary maxillary central inciros

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37
Q

this tooth is widest anterior tooth FL direction

A

primary maxillary canine

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38
Q

what has longer and sharper cusps

  • primary maxillary canine
  • permanent maxillary canine
  • primary mandibular canine
A

PRIMARY MAX CANINE

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39
Q

this tooth resemebles oermanent maxillary 1st premolar

A

primary max 1st molar

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40
Q

this tooth has most prominent MF cervical ridge of max primary teeth

A

primary maxillary 1st molar ( resembles perm max 1st PM)

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41
Q

wides FL of ALL primary teeth and what does it resemble?

A

PRIMARY MAX 2ND MOLAR

resembles perm max 1st molar

last primary tooth to erupt

onlyp rimary tooth with cusp of carabelli, oblique ridge, and DL groove

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42
Q

this is the only primary tooth with cusp of carabelli, Oblique Rirdge , and DL groove

A

primary max 2nd molar

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43
Q

this primary tooth has smallest FL

A

primary mandivular central incisor

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44
Q

this tooth is the most symmetrical tooth !

A

Primary Mand Central Incis.

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45
Q

this is the most unique tooth in dentition.

has ML ice cream cone cusp which is highest and sharpest, 4 cusps and 4 pulp horns, CEJdips more on mesial half resulting in S shape cervical

A

Primary mand 1st molar ***

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46
Q

which cusp is the largest and highest on primary 1st mandibular molar ?

A

MB : LARGEST

ML: HIGHEST AND SHARPEST

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47
Q

this tooth has widest MD in whole dentition

A

prim. mand. 2nd molar

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48
Q

how many cusps and roots of primary mandibular 2nd molar

A

2 roots and 2 canals

prim mand 1st: 4 cusps 3 pulp horns

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49
Q

this tooth crown resembles perm mand 1st molar

A

primary mand second molar

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50
Q

primary tooth amalgam depth and isthmus width

A

depth: 1.5 mm

isthmus width: 1/3

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51
Q

area of primary tooth where composite rstoration most common failure

A

gingival margin

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52
Q

stainless steel crown for teeth affected by caries that extend where?

direction youre suppose to seat SSC?

A

past axial line angles

lingual to buccal

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53
Q

patient walks in and has caries on primary incisors is worried about ESTHETICS. what rsetorative procedure should be done?

A

strip crown

for primary incisors w/ proximal caries

1 mm incisal reduction !!

54
Q

child walks in with R/L under tooth with pain, mobiity. what does this mean?

A

furcation r/l sign of necrosis for a primary pulp

55
Q

what material should you use for Indirect pulp cap

A

CaOH or RMGI

56
Q

when doing a procedure, accidentily have pinpoint pulp exposure on primary tooth. how shouls this be fixed and what is complication that could happen?

A

CaOH directly on pulp

RMGI placed over as restoration

INTERNAL ROOT RESORPTION

57
Q

PULPOTOMY is for what type of pulp and what material should be used ?

A

VITAL and restorable primary tooth with exposure

Formocresol: coagulation

ZOE for BU

SSC for coverage

formecrosl -> ZOE -> SSC

58
Q

PELPECTOMY PROCEDURE:

what type of pulp? what tooth to not do on? material

A

NECROTIC and RESTORABLE teeth ( non resotrable= extraction)

Primary first molars: acessory canals

basically RCT but using ZOE

59
Q

under what circumstance to EXT primary tooth

A

necrotic 1st molar

nonresotrable

root resorption ( except secondary primary molar so acts as space maintaner)

60
Q

procedure for primary first molar with furcation ?

A

extraction

61
Q

procedure for primary second molar with furcation ?

A

pulpectomy

62
Q

procedure for tooth with no furcation involvement but endo sympms

63
Q

WHAT IS THE PRIMATE SPACE ON MAND AND MAX?? ***

WHEN IS IT GONE?

A

Max: M to canine ( lat incisor and canine)

Mand: D to canine ( 1st molar and canine)

64
Q

WHAT IS LEEWAY SPACE

A

difference in size of the mesiodistal crown widths of the primary canines and molars compared with that of their permanent successors (canine, first and second premolars

primary = more

upper: 2.5 mm

lower : 1.5 ,,

65
Q

interdental space is caused by what? **

A

growth of dental arches !!! ( Board ?)

66
Q

what is the ugly duckling stage? age? **

A

preceeds eruption of max canines ( 7-11 y/o)

67
Q

match the terms:

space management

Space maintanence

Space Regaining

Reactive, Retroactive, Proactive

A

mange: proactive ( manage and hold leeway space)
maint: reactive
regaining: retro (want 3 mm max)

68
Q

primary incisor loss causes what? and how to fix it?

A

localized space loss

kiddie partial for speech and esthetics

69
Q

primary canine loss? how to fix it?

A

cause lingual collapse of incisors and loss of arch ength

LOWER LINGIAL ARCH or NANCE from perm first molars

70
Q

when to use LLHA? and what teeth do they wrap around?

A

PRIMARY CANINE LOSS

permanent first molars !

71
Q

what to use for primary first molar loss ?

A

BAND AND LOOP

LLHA or NANCE

72
Q

what to use when primary second molar is lost?

A

DISTAL SHOE : from primary first molar to unerupted permanent 1st molar

LLHA or NANCE: if permanent first molar is already erupted

73
Q

when do we use :

LLHA? NANCE? Distal Shoe? band and loop

A

LLHA or nance: if Perm first molar erupted

BAND AND LOOP : primary fitst molar loss

DISTAL SHOE : primary second molar loss

74
Q

average tooth pierces bone with how much root formation?

75
Q

average tooth pierces gingiva with how much root formation?

76
Q

rule of 7 with primary molar lost?

A

lost before 7: eruption of PM delayyed

Lost after 7: PM accelerated

77
Q

space closure accours within ____ months after tooth loss

A

first 6 months

78
Q

lingual eruption of teeth. how to treat?

A

double row of teeth: resolve on their own

79
Q

(ectopic eruption) patient walks in with their teeth erupting laterally. what procedure should be done?

A

extract contralateral primary lateral teeth asap to avoid midline deviation

80
Q

patient walks in. his molars are out of occlusion and have a hollow sound when tapped. what does patient have and treatment?

A

ANKYLOSED PRIMARY MOLARS

no tmnt necessary

81
Q

healthy gingiva in children vs adults color?

A

children: reddish due to thinner epithelium less keratinization, grater vascularity

Adults: coral pink

82
Q

children vs adults healthy gingiva features:

contour

A

kids: rounded and rolled margins due to edema
adults: knife edged

83
Q

children vs adults healthy gingiva features:

texture

A

kids: flabby
adults: firm and resilient

84
Q

children vs adults healthy gingiva features:

sulcus

A

kids: deeper

Adults: less deep

85
Q

gingivits in children is induced by what?

A

plaque!!!!!

86
Q

parents should participate in kids oral hygiene until what age

A

8 !!! b/c manual dexterity

87
Q

what is ANUG? tmnt?

A

acute necrotizing ulverative gingivitis

A; painful fever

N: dying tissue

U: pseudomembrane

G: bleeding, inflammed gums, blunted papilla

tx: Debridement, oxidizing mouth rinse, AB

88
Q

what is RAG?

A

reduced attached gingiva

atached gingiva: best gingiva

89
Q

most common cause of inadequate attached gingiva?

A

labial eruption path

90
Q

kid walks in with bump on crest of alveolar ridge. what is this and tx?

A

eruption cyst

txx: nothing, simple surgical excision if symptomatic

91
Q

tx for this high frenum?

A

CLOSE SPACE FIRST!

THEN FRNECTOMY !

92
Q

PREPUBERTAL PERIODONTITIS INVOLVES WHAT TEETH FIRST?

tx?

A

PRIMARY MOLARS

tx: debridement and AB

93
Q

most common teeth for trauma in children?

overjet in children?

A

maxillary anteriors

> 6 mm ( usually)

94
Q

concussion or subluxation of teeth.

what is it and what is tx?

A

mobility of tooth but no displacement ( luxators loosen teeth)

no tmnt

95
Q

child walks in tooth pushed in. what is this?

tx?

issue with this?

A

INTRUSION

tx: none: spont erupt

can damage permanent teeth

  • hypoplasia: during apposition
  • hypocalc: during calcification
  • dilaceration: during toot formation
96
Q

child walks in and tooth pulling out. what does patient have?

tx?

A

EXTRUSION of primary teeth

TX: extruded more than 3mm = extraction

if patient seen before PA blood clot then REPOSITION and FLEXIBLE splint 1-2 weeks

97
Q

patient has avulsion of primary tooth.

tx > and < than 30 minutes?

A

<30: replant, flexible splint 1-2 weeks, soft diet, AB, endo tmnt

> 30: extract and space maint.

98
Q

crown fracture of primary tooth. what to do if in enamel only?

enamel and dentin?

E and D and P ?

******

A

E: smooth

D: restore

EDP:

pulpotomy: if vital

Pulpectomy: non vital

extract: if pathologic root resorption

99
Q

a child walks in with root fracture. what to do if its in the apical half?

coronal half?

A

apical: no tmnt
coronal: rigid splint or ext

100
Q

what is damaged in internal root resorption?

External root resorption?

A

IRR: odontoblastic layer in pulp

ERR: cementoblastic layer in PDL

101
Q

age of most common child abuse and neglect?

102
Q

dentist suspect child is being abused or neglected. he has no proof. what should the dentist do? **

A

by law they have to report it !!!!

103
Q

what is the frankl rating scale?

A

1: definitely negative

2= negative resistence

3= positive acceptance

4 = definitely positive

104
Q

this is a no-tmnt dental visit to be introduced to dental setting

A

familiarization

105
Q

the knee-toknee exam is for what patients?

where is the childs head?

A

infants <2 y/o

Head: in DENTISTS lap

106
Q

when should reinforcement be ?

A

immediate and specific to desirable behavior !

107
Q

punish with the purpose of extinguishing or imporving negative behavior is caleld what?

what patients does this not work on?

defiant

ucnontrolled

timid

tense cooperative

whining

A

Aversive Conditioning

not for timid and tense-cooperative

palce hand over mouth to gain attention of uncontrolled patient

108
Q

ADHD more common in M or F?

age appears?

most common meds?

A

M

3-6

methylphenidate ( ritalin)

atomexetin (straterra)

aphetamine (aderall)

109
Q

patient with repetitive behavior and heightened sense of light and sound usually has what?

110
Q

MAX RECOMMENDED DOSE OF ANESTHETIC? **

111
Q

nitrous sedation in children steps

A
  • fil bag w/ O2 and place on patients nose with flow rate 4-6 L/min
  • inc 10% increments to about 30% for operative procedures
  • after stopping lungs fill with nitrous so give patients 100% O2 3-5 minutes
112
Q

MOST COMMON COMPLICATION OF NITROUS SEDATION?

113
Q

what is minimum alveolar concentration ( MAC) ?

Mac of nitrous oxide?

A

conc required to render 50% of patients immobile

105%

114
Q

is asthma a contraindication to nitrous ?

A

No !!! mild to moderate asthma is okay

115
Q

3 contraindications to nitrous?

A

<2 y/o

uncooperative

wheezing episode (asthma is okay tho)

116
Q

4 stages of anesthesia?

A

1 paresthesia

2 vasomotor (warm)

3 Drift

4 Dream” eyes closed, jaw sagging

117
Q

how is fluoirde in children given?

A

prescription only

118
Q

fluroide for children > 3 y/o?

A

fluoride tablets and lozenges !!!

lozenges only above 3

119
Q

fluoride in children <3 y/o

A

fluroide drops !!!

children cant swallow tabs

120
Q

fluoride children > 6

A

fluoride mouth rinse

121
Q

thumbsucking very common in what age?

A

up to 3 !!

122
Q

effects of thumbsucking?

overjet, ant teeth. max, posterior?

A

increased overjet

ant open bite

maxillary constriction

posterior crossbite

123
Q

what age should appliance to intervene with thumbsucking be placed and what are 2 examples?

A

5 or 6

Crib

BLuegrass : roller on ant plate

crib: steel fixed appliance in anterior palate region

124
Q

teeth present at birth called?

A

natal teeth !

125
Q

teeth that erup within first 30 days called?

A

neonatal teeth

126
Q

most common natal and neonatal teeth?

A

primary mandibular incisors

127
Q

baby walks in and teeth causing ulceration on ventral tongue. what is this and what is tx?

A

riga-fede disease

smooth or extract

128
Q

EARLY CHILDHOOD CARIES

also called what?

patient what age?

2 things that cause it?

A
  • baby bottle syndrome
  • younger than 6 years
  • constipation -> fruit juice consumption
  • ear infection -> AB with high sucrose
129
Q

when should infants drink from a cup?

age of first dental visit?

A

1

by age 1

130
Q

age infant should use pea size of toothpaste?

131
Q

age patient should use smear of toothpaste?

A

before age 2

mental dental (18 decks)

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