male pathology Flashcards

1
Q

hypospadias

A

ventral/inferior opening of urethra
common
associated with constriction UTIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

epispadias

A

dorsal/superior opening of urethra
less common
almost always associated with extrophy of bladder
associated with constriction UTIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

phimosis

A

excessive retraction of foreskin
congenital or acquires s/d recurrent infection in uncircumcised adults
may lead to paraphimosis (strangulation of venous flow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

vesicoureteral reflux

A

short intramural ureter gives poor flap-valve fnx -> reflux of urine into bladder
recurrent UTIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

extrophy of bladder

A

failure of cloacal membrane development occurs at same time as lower abdominal wall formation so bladder at surface
associated with epispadias of penis
surgical repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

testicular descent

A
  • testes appear on urogenital ridge in month 2
  • coelomic cavity envaginates into scrotal swelling forming processes vaginalis in month 3
  • testes begin descent into scrotum guided by gubernaculum in month 7
  • processes vaginalis obliterates after birth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

communicating hydrocele

A

patent inguinal canal allows for peritoneal fluid to drain into scrotum more common on R

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

non-communicating hydrocele

A

usually older children and adults

may be idiopathic or secondary to epididymitis, orchitis, testicular torsion, trauma, or tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

varicocele

A

dilated and tortuous vv of papiniform plexus more common on L
only 10-15% of fertility issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

spermatocele

A

aka epididymal cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Tumor on PE

A

Firm
does not transilluminates
does not increase with valsalva maneuver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

varicocele on PE

A

bag of worms
does not transilluminate
does increase with valsalva maneuver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

noncommunicating hydrocele

A

fluid filled
does transilluminate
does not increase with valsalva maneuver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

communicating hydrocele

A

fluid filled
does transilluminate
does increase with valsalva maneuver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

spermatocele

A

small soft and localized cyst
does transilluminate
does not increase with valsalva maneuver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

balanoposthitis

A

inflammation of foreskin and glands d/t poor hygiene
caused by multiple organisms
smegma
may cause phimosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

circinate balanitis

A

assocaited with Chlamydia, reactive arthritis (Reiter syndrome)
painless ulcers resolve in months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

LS&A

A

same as in women
autoimmune
can cause painful erections and narrowing of urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

condyloma accuminata

A

HPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

CIS

A

bowen disease, bowenoid papulosis, erythroplasia of querat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

bowen disease

A

red or gray plaque on shaft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

erythroplaisa of querat

A

shiny soft red plauqes on glans and foreskin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

bowenoid papulosis

A

multiple reddish-tan papules in young adults

DO NOT invade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

high risk HPV

A

incorporate into host DNA where viral E6 gene oncoprotein inactivated host p53 gene and E7 inactivated pRB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

invasive squamous cell carcinoma

A

rare
slow growing painless tumor
prognosis depends on spread to lymph nodes

26
Q

risk factors for invasive squamous cell carcinoma

A
lack of circumcision 
association with HPV 16&18
40-70
association with smoking
inflammatory conditions LS&A
27
Q

pearly penile papules

A

normal variant
appears in 2nd-3rd decade
usually goes away
2 rows of papules

28
Q

cryptorchidism

A

failure of testes to descend
associated with kleinefelters, prematures birth, and FHx
at risk for testicular CA, trauma, torsion, and infertility
must be surgically corrected

29
Q

2 embryological phases of testical development

A
  • transabdominal: at 6 wks sertolid cells -> MIS/AMH -> regression of female organs then at 9 wks leydig cells produce T -> wollifian duct develops into male genitalia -> testis up in lower abdomen
  • inguinal-scrotal: androgen driven craniosuspensory ligament dissolves gubernaculum guides testis into scrotum
30
Q

cryptorchid histo

A

hyperplasia of leydig cells
peritubulor fiborisis
few sertoli cells

31
Q

prune belly syndrome

A

aka eagle-barrett syndrome
abdominal mm deficiency
severe uriary tract abnormalites
b/l cryptorchidism

32
Q

epdidymitis

A

bacteria: gonorrhea, chlamydia, may get abscesses, in older men may see E. coli from UTI
TB- palpable enlargement

33
Q

benign testicular tumors

A

sertoli cell tumors
sex cord stromal tumors (usually benign)
leydig cell tumors

34
Q

malignant testicular tumors

A

germ cell tumors (90% of tumors)

rare germ cell tumors

35
Q

common germ cell tumors

A

seminoma
embryonal-NSGCT
mixed (seminoma +NSGCT)

36
Q

rare germ cell tumors

A
yolk sac tumor
teratoma
spermatocytic seminoma
embyronal carcinoma
choriocarcinoma 
all respond well to chemo with good prognosis
37
Q

genetic marker of germ cell tumors

A

i(12p)

38
Q

risk factors for germ cell tumor

A
cryptorchisdim
prior GCT
FHx- KIT & BAK
whites>blacks 5:1
borthers 8-10x increased risk
39
Q

pathogenesis of GCT

A

precursor malignant cell develops in fetus and is activated and puberty called intratubular germ cell neoplasia (ITGCN=CIS) -> progression
mets to periaortic abdominal nodes

40
Q

serum markers of GCT

A

seen in 60%
HCG
LDH
alpha fetal protein

41
Q

seminoma

A

most common 50%

slow growing late spread 75% stage I at Dx

42
Q

serum markers of serminoma

A

LDH- nonspecific marker of tumor
HCG- presence of synctiotrophoblasts
AFP- never seen in pure seminoma, must be mixed or NSGCT

43
Q

Tx of seminoma

A

sperm preserved
stage
radical orchiectomy with lymph node dissection
if no mets (low risk) - radiation
if mets (intermediate risk) - platinum based chemo

44
Q

seminoma histo

A

fried eggs nested in fibrotic tissue admixed with lymphocytes

45
Q

spermatocytic seminoma

A
rare tumor 
>65
slow growing
no mets
\
46
Q

non-seminomatous germ cell tumors (NSGCT)

A

50-60% mixed
more aggressive then seminoma with worse prognosis
may have hematogenous spread before lymph spread

47
Q

leydig cell tumors

A

present as testicular masses in young adults
produce sex hormones
usually androgens and may produce estrogens
90%benign

48
Q

sertoli cell tumor

A

present as scrotal masses in young adults
1/3 have gynecomastia
benign

49
Q

acute prostatitis

A
not very common
same bacteria as acute ITIs
throught to arise from reflux of urine or iatrogenic implant
presents as fever and chills dysuria
abx
50
Q

chronic bacterial prostatitis

A

pts often have Hx of recurrent UTIs, dysuria, localized pain

Dx with PMNs in urine + culture

51
Q

granulomatous prostatitis

A

most are secondary to ruptures acini

most common cause in BCG for TCC

52
Q

BPH

A

enlargement of prostate in transition zone

stromal cells make 5hydroxy-reductase with converts T -> DHT -> increased GFs

53
Q

Tx of BPH

A

alpha-blockers to decrease smooth mm tone
5-alpha reductase inhibitors
tissue destruction

54
Q

complications of BPH

A

obstruction of bladder (cystitis, peylonephritis, obstructive nephropathy)
infection of internal genitalia
urosepsis

55
Q

adenocarcinoma of prostate

A

most common Dx non-cutaneous CA in men

2nd leading cause of CA death

56
Q

risk factors for adenocarcinoma of prostate

A

> 50
african american
FHx

57
Q

pathogenesis of adenocarcinoma of prostate

A

androgen dependent
multiplicity of genetic mutations
prostatic intraepithlial neoplasm precursor lesion

58
Q

screening for adenocarcinoma of prostate

A

DRE 70% of nodules are in post lobe

PSA

59
Q

interpreting PSA values

A

PSA density- PSA increases with size of prostate
PSA velocity- if changed significantly in 18 months more likely CA
Free PSA- CA PSA usually binds proteins, therefore if most of PSA is free more likely benign

60
Q

gleason grading system

A

tumor classified 1-5 with 5 worst

61
Q

staging TMN system

A

T score- most important in extracapsular extension
T2 confined 90% 5 yr
T3 extracapsular
T4 adjacent organs 10% 5 yr