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MICROBIOLOGY > M1: Intro To Microbiology > Flashcards

M1: Intro To Microbiology Flashcards

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0
Q

38-41%

A

Bacteria

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1
Q

Study of MO, a large and diverse group of microscopic organisms that exist as single cells or cell clusters; it also includes viruses, which are microscopic but not cellular.

A

Microbiology

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2
Q

14-15%

A

Viruses

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3
Q

22-23%

A

Fungi

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4
Q

4-5%

A

Protozoa

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5
Q

Formulated about spontaneous generation, equivocal generation, germ & cell theory and abiogenesis.

A

Aristotle

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6
Q

Life from inanimate object. Early belief that some forms of life could arise from vital forces present in nonliving or decomposition matter.

A

Spontaneous Generation

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7
Q

Is an obsolete theory regarding the origin from inanimate matter, which held that this process was a commonplace and everyday occurrence, as distinguished from univocal generation, or reproduction from parent.

A

Equivocal generation

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8
Q

Generally accepted to have been ultimately disproven in the 19th century by the experiments of Louis Pasteur, expanding upon the experiments of other scientists before him (such as Francesco Redi) who had performed similar experiments was succeeded by

A

Cell theory & Germ theory

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9
Q

Refers to both the supposed process by which life would systematically emerge from sources other than seeds,eggs or parents and to the theories which explained the apparent phenomenon. Life emerges from nonliving matter.

A

Abiogenesis

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10
Q

One form of life emerges from a different form

A

Heterogenesis/Xenogenesis

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11
Q

First to observe living microbes. His single-lens magnified up to 300x. Father of Microbiology and considered to be first microbiologist. Known for his work on microscope. Observed single celled organisms.

A

Antoine Van Leeuwenhoek

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12
Q

Single celled organisms

A

Animalcules

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13
Q

Extended Antoine’s studies, organized bacteria into general & specifies according to taxonomic classification of microbes

A

Otto Muller

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14
Q

Proved that micro-organisms were responsible for causing human disease. “Germ theory”

A

Friedrich Henle

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15
Q

Cell described as the basic unit of life. Known for Law of Elasticity.

A

Robert Hooke

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16
Q

Describes his microscopic & telescopic observations, and some original work in biology.

A

Microphagia

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17
Q

Developed aseptic techniques. Developed rabies vaccine.

A

Louis Pasteur

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18
Q

Identified cause of anthrax & TB. Koch’s Postulate. Inoculation of MO.

A

Heinrich Hermann Robert Koch

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19
Q

Noted syphilis, gonorrhea transmission. Specimen: prostitute’s vaginal discharge inoculate in penis.

A

John Hunter

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20
Q

Principle of vaccination. Milder form of small pox.

A

Edward Jenner

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21
Q

Patient transmission of cholera (H20 transmission) Disprove the miasma theory of cholera transmission. Father of Epidemiology.

A

John Snow

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22
Q

Era of chemotherapy began when he discovered first antibacterial agent, a compound effective against the spirochetes that causes syphilis.

A

Paul Ehrlich

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23
Q

Discovered penicillin

A

Alexander Fleming

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24
Q

Discovered sulfanilamide

A

Gerhard Domagk’s

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25
Q

Discovered streptomycin

A

Selman Waksman

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26
Q

First to cultivate virus in cell cultures which led to vaccine development

A

John Enders

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27
Q

Microbes can be isolated in a disease. Isolate microorganisms, culture. If inoculate to healthy individual develop disease similar to the 1st perform. Can isolate it again same with the 1st person.

A

Koch’s Postulate

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28
Q

Obligate intracellular. 18-600nm (mostly 200mn) Requires host cells for replication and enclosed in a protein shell with or without a lipid membrane coat.

A

Viruses

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29
Q

Viral like particles which do not contain nucleic acids

A

Prions

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30
Q

Contains both RNA & DNA

A

Mimivirus

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31
Q

Example of Obligate intracellular microbes

A

Chlamydia & Rickettsia

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32
Q

Most complex, eukaryotic, unicellular and multicellular. 1-2um(protozoa) in diameter up to 10 meters(tapeworms) in length or arthropods.

A

Parasites

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33
Q

More complex cellular structure, eukaryotic organisms that contain a well-defined nucleus, mitochondria, golgi bodies and ER. Unicellular & Filamentous form. Dimorphic.

A

Fungi

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34
Q

Unicellular form & asexual

A

Yeast

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35
Q

Filamentous form. Asexual & Sexual.m

A

Molds

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36
Q

Replicate within the host, multiply to produce very large number of progeny, thereby causing an overwhelming infection.

A

Microparasites

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37
Q

Examples of microparasites

A

Viruses, Bacteria, Protozoa & Fungi

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38
Q

One infectious stage matures into one reproducing stage and in most cases, the resulting progeny leave the host to continue the cycle. Infection is determined by the numbers of organisms that enter the body.

A

Macroparasites

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39
Q

Examples of Macroparasites

A

Worms & Arthropods

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40
Q

Prokaryotic-simple unicellular organisms with no nuclear membrane, mitochondria, golgi bodies or ER. Asexual reproduction. Complex cell wall: gram positive & negative.

A

Bacteria

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41
Q

Protect the wall against the immune system and chemotherapeutic agents and stimulates pathogenic responses

A

Peptidoglycan

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42
Q

Thin peptidoglycan

A

Gram negative

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43
Q

Thick peptidoglycan

A

Gram positive

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44
Q

Is the only prokaryotes, the rest is eukaryote.

A

Bacteria

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45
Q

A distinct nucleus is absent. DNA is in the form a single circular chromosome, additional extrachromosomal DNA is carried in __________. Transcription & translation can be carried out simultaneously.

A

Prokaryotes. Plasmids.

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46
Q

DNA is carried on several chromosomes within a nucleus bound by a nuclear membrane. Transcription requires formation of mRNA and movement of mRNA out of the nucleus into the cytoplasm.

A

Eukaryotes

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47
Q

Translation takes place on

A

Ribosomes

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48
Q

Is rich in membrane-bound organelles (mitochondria, ER, golgi apparatus & lysosomes) which are absent in prokaryotes.

A

Cytoplasm in Eukaryotes

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49
Q

To limit list of consideration of microbes, must know the

A

Normal flora

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50
Q

0.1% present in the intestine

A

E.coli

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51
Q

Location: Staphylococcus, corynebacterium, streptococcus & moxarella

A

Eye

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52
Q

Location: Lactobacillus spp & candida albicans

A

Urogenital tract

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53
Q

Location: streptococcus mutans, S.pneumoniae, s.aeureus & corynebacterium

A

Mouth & Nose

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54
Q

Location: bacteroides fragilis, enterococcus & e.coli

A

GIT

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55
Q

Location: staphylococcus aureus, s.epidermidis, streptococcus spp & propionibacterium acnes

A

Skin

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56
Q

Medtechs use E.coli for testing H20. If seen in H20, means

A

Fecal contamination

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57
Q

Protects you from the other microbes that can cause diarrhea

A

GI normal flora

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58
Q

GI normal flora disturbance. Limited to bacteria in the skin normal flora.

A

Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)

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59
Q

Should be left at room temperature or in an incubator at 5°C

A

Blood

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60
Q

Transport at room temperature

A

CSF

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61
Q

Transport rapidly to the laboratory

A

Neisseria species

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62
Q

Probability that a test will be positive in the presence of a pathogen (all infected patients are detected)

A

Sensitivity

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63
Q

Probability that a test will be negative if the pathogen is not present (all positive patients are infected)

A

Specificity

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64
Q

Cheapest. For initial detection of microbes.

A

Microscopy

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65
Q

Most common. Cannot be used for all bacteria (acid fast bacteria, endospore) Differentiate bacterial species into two large group (gram + & -) based on the chemical properties of their cell walls.

A

Gram Stain

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66
Q

Two types of bacteria with similar clinical symptoms

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae & Klebsiella pneumoniae

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67
Q

Need these to completely or definitely classify bacteria (Gram Stain)

A

Gram variable & Gram indeterminant

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68
Q

Means they may stain either negative or positive. Some organisms are not susceptible to either stain used by the Gram technique

A

Gram variable

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69
Q

Have a thinner layer (10% of cell wall), which stains red. Outer membrane contains lipids, and is separated from the cell wall by the _____________.

A

Gram negative bacteria. Periplasmic space.

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70
Q

Thick mesh-like cell wall made of peptidoglycan (50-90% of cell wall) which stains purple.

A

Gram positive

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71
Q

Steps in Gram Stain: 1. ________ bacterial smear. To adhere to the slide.

A

Heat fix

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72
Q

Steps in Gram Stain: 2. Apply the __________. (+) peptidoglycan (-) outer membrane.

A

Crystal violet

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73
Q

Steps in Gram Stain: 3. Apply Gram’s _________. Mordant. Fixes the crystal violet to the bacterial cell wall.

A

Iodine

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74
Q

Steps in Gram Stain: 4. Rapid decolorization with ____________. (+) purple (+) colorless.

A

Alcohol/Acetone

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75
Q

Steps in Gram Stain: 5. Counterstain with __________. (+) purple (-) red

A

Safranin

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76
Q

Physical property of some bacteria referring to their resistance to decolorization by acids during staining procedures. Uncommon characteristics shared by Mycobacterium & Nocardia. Difficult to characterize using standard microbiological techniques.

A

Acid Fast Bacteria

77
Q

Cover with tissue paper. Flood slide with carbofuschin, the primary stain, for 2 minutes while heating with steam or heating on hot plate. Remove paper cover, decolorize slide with mixture of HCL acid & ethanol. Counterstain with __________.

A

Ziehl-Neelsen Stain. Methylene Blue.

78
Q

Isolate endospores. Stain endospores green and any other bacterial bodies red. The green stain is ___________. Counter stain is _________ which dyes any other bacterial bodies red.

A

Schaeffer-Fulton Stain. Malachite green. Safranin.

79
Q

Dormant, tough & non reproductive structure procedure by certain bacteria from _________ phylum. (Bacillus & Clostridium) suggestive of the bacterium changing internally to a spore or seedlike form. Important when the bacterium is experiencing an environment that is deleterious to the usual vegetative state of the bacterium.

A

Endospores. Firmicute.

80
Q

Allow the endospore to show up as red, while the rest of the cell stains blue.

A

Moeller stain

81
Q

Enable the survival of a bacterium through periods of environmental stress. When the environment returns to favorable, this can reactive itself to the vegetative state. Consists of bacterium’s DNA & part of its cytoplasm. It can survive without nutrients. Resistant to ultraviolet radiation, desiccation, high temperature & chemical disinfectants. Are commonly found in soil & water.

A

Endospore

82
Q

Detects fungi. Dissolves human cells. Only fungal cells remain to be seen under the microscope. It denatures the proteins in the human cells. Athlete’s foot, fungal vaginitis and many other fungal infections.

A

Potassium Hydroxide Test (KOH)

83
Q

Method of multiplying microbial organisms by letting them reproduce in predetermined culture media under controlled laboratory conditions. Importance are for diagnostic purposes & prognosis of disease. Uses Agar solid & Broth liquid. Shapes of bacterium.

A

Microbe cultivation

84
Q

Just to grow bacteria in general

A

Enriched Non-Selective Media

85
Q

Some will grow some will not

A

Selective Media & Differential media

86
Q

Specific for micro organisms

A

Specialized media

87
Q

Single celled prokaryotes form a long circular DNA molecule but not contained within a defined nucleus. Many are motile. Reproduced by binary fission, both aerobic & anaerobic. Classification uses both phenotypic & genotypic data.

A

Bacteria

88
Q

For motility

A

Flagella

89
Q

Smallest bacteria around 0.1-0.2um in diameter

A

Chlamydia & Ricketssia

90
Q

Bacterial Structure: genetic info is carried in a long __________ circular molecule of DNA.

A

Double stranded

91
Q

Bacterial Structure: No _______ is present and the DNA is tightly coiled into the nucleoid.

A

Nuclear membrane

92
Q

Bacterial Structure: Genetic info is extrachromosomal, present as small circular self-replicating DNA molecules termed _______.

A

Plasmids

93
Q

Bacterial Structure: _______ contains no organelles other than ribosomes for protein synthesis.

A

Cytoplasm

94
Q

Bacterial Structure: Uses a smaller ribosome, the ______ ribosome. Target of antimicrobials (alino glycosides)

A

70s

95
Q

For transport of nutrients

A

Protein

96
Q

All bacteria are surrounded by a complex cell wall except

A

Mycoplasma

97
Q

Are the principal molecules of the outer membrane. Hydrophilic (through porins) & Hydrophobic.

A

Lipopolysaccharides & Lipoprotein

98
Q

Lipopolysaccharides: _______ from CHO chains

A

O antigens

99
Q

Lipopolysaccharides: _______ from lipid A component

A

Endotoxin

100
Q

Disrupt peptidoglycan synthesis

A

Beta lactam & Glycopeptide antibiotics

101
Q

Can digest peptidoglycan

A

Lysozymes (body secretion)

102
Q

For protection from phagocytosis. Polysaccharide. Stain: india ink, quelung (use antibody, serologic identification & (+) swelling)

A

Capsules

103
Q

Protection against phagocytosis by host cells and important in determining virulence

A

Capsules of anthrax bacilli

104
Q

Cause a fatal infection

A

Capsulated streptococcus pneumonia

105
Q

Cell wall have lipoechoic acid. The stain gets trapped in a thick, cross linked, meshlike structure, the peptidoglycan layer, which surrounds the cell. 20-80nm thick of peptidoglycan, hydrophilic.

A

Gram positive

106
Q

Thin peptidoglycan layer does not retain the crystal violet stain. Cells must be counterstained with _______ and turned red. 5-10nm thick of peptidoglycan. Serves as antigenic determinant but varies.

A

Gram negative bacteria

107
Q

Once Gram (-) is lyse, this is released; cause fever.

A

Lipid A

108
Q

Serves as antigenic determinant but varies

A

Lipopolysaccharides

109
Q

Shape and identification of bacteria. For protection and contains proteins.

A

Cell wall

110
Q

Long helical filaments extending from the cell surface. For motility.

A

Flagella

111
Q

Bacteria flagella is independent of

A

ATP

112
Q

Protein & strongly antigenic

A

Flagellins

113
Q

Flagella: singly

A

Polar

114
Q

Flagella: cluster/clump

A

Iophotrichous

115
Q

Flagella: distributed over the general surface of the cell

A

Peritrichous

116
Q

For attachment to other bacteria (sex pili) or to host cells (common pili)

A

Pili/Fimbrae

117
Q

All gram (-) has lipid A and only 1 gram (+)

A

Listeria Gram (+)

118
Q

2 cocci

A

Streptococcus & Staphylococcus

119
Q

2 spore forming

A

Bacillus anthracis & Clostridium tetani

120
Q

No spore

A

Corynebacterium & Listeria

121
Q

Can destroy bond of the bacteria

A

Man’s lysosome

122
Q

L isomer of LAA

A

Eukaryotes

123
Q

D LAA

A

Prokaryotes

124
Q

Microbial genetics: know that it is bacteria

A

Get D-AA

125
Q

Destroyed by penicillin

A

Transpeptidase

126
Q

Single enzyme test for Staphylococcus

A

Catalase test

127
Q

Single enzyme test for Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

Oxidase test

128
Q

Single enzyme test for Helicobacter pylori (rapid test)

A

Urease test

129
Q

Single enzyme test for S. Aureus (confirmatory test)

A

Coagulase test

130
Q

Oxidative metabolism takes place at the

A

Membrane-cytoplasm interface

131
Q

Equalize the intra and extracellular concentrations

A

Facilitated diffusion

132
Q

Increase intracellular concentrations of a substrate.

A

Active transport

133
Q

Grown in media with glucose and inorganic salts

A

E.coli

134
Q

Needs many organic compounds for growth

A

Streptococci

135
Q

Aerobic metabolism, number of ATP produce

A

38

136
Q

Utilizing an inorganic final hydrogen acceptor(fermentation) is much less efficient and produces only 2 molecules of ATP

A

Anaerobic metabolism

137
Q

Period of adjustment

A

Lag Phase

138
Q

Cell division with the population doubling at a constant rate

A

Generation time

139
Q

Cell growth slows to a stop

A

Stationary phase

140
Q

Phase of decline

A

Death

141
Q

Cell division (chained, paired & clustered) segregation of the replicated genomes. Division of a cell to give a separate daughter cells.

A

Septation

142
Q

Formed by an invagination of the cytoplasmic membrane and ingrowth of the peptidoglycan cell wall

A

Septum

143
Q

Target the processes involved in bacterial growth and division

A

Antimocrobials

144
Q

Inhibit synthesis of peptidoglycan cell wall

A

Glycopeptides (vamcomycin)

145
Q

Inhibit the unwinding of DNA by DNA Gyrase during DNA replication

A

Quinolones (ciprofloxacin,levofloxacin)

146
Q

Highly resistant spores. Dipicolinic acid and high calcium content. Abundant in soils. Clostridium & Bacillus. Survival under adverse conditions.

A

Endospores

147
Q

The process involved in decoding the genetic info contained within a gene to produce a functional protein or RNA molecule

A

Gene Expression

148
Q

Carries the info that defines the properties and processes of a cell

A

DNA

149
Q

Total genetic information; comprise of one parental strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand

A

Genome

150
Q

Origin of replication

A

OriC

151
Q

Initiate unwinding & separation of the two DNA strands (each separated DNA strands (each separated DNA strands serve as a template for DNA polymerase)

A

Helicase & Topoisomerase

152
Q

Capable of proofreading newly incorporated deoxyribonucleotides and excising those that are incorrect.

A

DNA Polymerase

153
Q

Translate into proteins. Most genes.

A

mRNA

154
Q

Scaffold for assembling ribosomal subunits

A

rRNA

155
Q

Participate in decoding mRNA into functional proteins

A

tRNA

156
Q

A component of RNA polymerase that is important in promoter recognition region. Control the expression of genes.

A

Sigma factor a

157
Q

Nucleotide sequences in DNA that can bind the RNA

A

Promoters

158
Q

Transcription terminal protein

A

Rho

159
Q

Encodes the protein required for the uptake and metabolism of lactose

A

Lac operon

160
Q

Cholera toxin from

A

Vibrio cholera

161
Q

________ of uropathogenic E.coli which mediate colonization.

A

Fimbriae

162
Q

Start codon

A

AUG

163
Q

Stop codons

A

UAA, UGA & UAG

164
Q

Regions of DNA to which regulatory proteins bind

A

Operator site

165
Q

Increase the rate of transcription initiation. Positive regulation.

A

Activators

166
Q

Inhibit transcription. Negative regulation.

A

Repressors

167
Q

A global regulatory protein that controls the expression of multiple gene

A

Camp-dependent catabolite activator protein (CAP)

168
Q

Example of Camp-dependent catabolite activator protein (CAP) bacteria

A

Corynebacterium Diphtheriae

169
Q

Regulator component: detect environmental changes

A

Sensor

170
Q

Regulator component: activate or repress transcription

A

DNA-binding protein

171
Q

Inhibit RNA Polymerase

A

Rifampicin

172
Q

Control of virulence gene expression in Vibrio Cholera

A

ToxR

173
Q

Activates the transcription of other virulence genes such as toxin-co-regulated pili (colonization)

A

ToxT

174
Q

Primary reservoir of genetic information within the cell

A

Bacterial chromosome

175
Q

Independent self replicating & circular units of dsDNA

A

Plasmids

176
Q

Different codons specify the same AA

A

Silent mutations

177
Q

AA substitution may or may not alter its stability or functional properties

A

Missense mutations

178
Q

Formation of stop codon causing premature termination and production of truncated protein

A

Nonsense mutation

179
Q

Both bacteria inoculated. Take antibiotic but only affected to 1 bacterium. Bacteria has antibiotic resistance and implanted to the gene.

A

Transformation

180
Q

Like transformation but uses bacteriophage

A

Transduction

181
Q

Sex pilus used. Donor bacteria may transfer antibiotic resistance gene to another.

A

Conjugation

182
Q

Transposon. Mobile genetic material that incorporate to recipient bacteria, these transposon may trigger mutation, triggering antibiotic resistance.

A

Transposition

183
Q

Encodes CHON

A

mRNA

184
Q

Encodes AA

A

tRNA

185
Q

Gene expression transcription

A

DNA dependent Polymerase

186
Q

Detect, identify and quantity antigen and antibody response

A

Serologic Diagnosis

187
Q

Capsular swelling. Slide agglutination test.

A

Antigen test

188
Q

Immunoprecipitation techniques, elisa, western blot, compliment fixation, latex agglutinations & RIA

A

Antibody test

189
Q

For capsule

A

Quelung

190
Q

Acts on linkage to NAM

A

Cyclosporine

MICROBIOLOGY (7 decks)

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