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MICROBIOLOGY > M1: Intro (Book) > Flashcards

M1: Intro (Book) Flashcards

0
Q

Simple in structure. Prokaryotic. Has simple unicellular organisms with no nuclear membrane, mitochondria, golgi bodies & ER. Cell wall is complex.

A

Bacteria

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1
Q

Smallest infectious particles. 18-600nm. Less than 200nm can’t be seen in microscope. Contain DNA or RNA but not both.

A

Viruses

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2
Q

More complex. Eukaryotic organisms. Well defined nucleus, mitochondria, golgi bodies & ER. Dimorphic.

A

Fungi

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3
Q

Unicellular form that can replicate asexually

A

Yeast

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4
Q

Filamentous form that can replicate asexually & sexually.

A

Mold

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5
Q

Dimorphic Fungi

A

Histoplasma, Blastomyces & Coccidiodes “HBC”

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6
Q

Most complex eukaryotic microbes. Can be unicellular & multicellular. Life cycles are equally complex w/ some parasites establishing a permanent relationship with humans & others going through series of developmental stages.

A

Parasites

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7
Q

Vital for developing a differential diagnosis and an approach to control & prevention of parasitic infections

A

Epidemiology

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8
Q

Best prevention & cure for microbial disease

A

Innate & Immune responses

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9
Q

Organism that produce many manifestations of disease

A

Staph Aureus

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10
Q

Many organisms to produce the same disease

A

Meningitis

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11
Q

Arise when a person is exposed to organisms from external sources

A

Exogenous infection

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12
Q

Produced by organisms in the persons own microbial flora that spread to inappropriate body sites where the disease can ensue

A

Endogenous infection

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13
Q

Plays an important role in the diagnosis & control infectious diseases

A

Clinical microbiology laboratory

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14
Q

Based on the ability of the organism to grow, transport conditions mist ensure the viability of the pathogens.

A

Diagnostic tests

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15
Q

Study of interactions between animals and MO

A

Medical Microbiology

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16
Q

Play a critical role in human survival

A

Microorganism

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17
Q

Is in a continual state of flux determined by variety of factors

A

Microbial flora

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18
Q

Can be for a short period of time(hours or days, transiently or permanently. Do not interfere with normal body functions.

A

Colonization

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19
Q

Occurs when the interaction between microbe and human leads to a pathologic process characterized by damage of human host.

A

Disease

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20
Q

Organisms always associated with human disease

A

Strict pathogens

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21
Q

Organisms that are typically members of the patient’s normal microbial flora. Do not produce disease in their normal setting but established disease when they are introduce in unprotected sites.

A

Opportunistic pathogens

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22
Q

A large scale project has been initiated to characterize comprehensively the human microbiota and analyze its role in human health and disease.

A

Human Microbiome Project

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23
Q

Most common anaerobic bacteria

A

Peptostreptococcus

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24
Q

Most common aerobic bacteria

A

Streptococcus

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25
Q

Rarely responsible for pharyngitis

A

S.pyogenes

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26
Q

Most common organism colonizing the outer ear is

A

Coagulase negative Staphylococcus

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27
Q

The surface of the eye is

A

Coagulase negative staphylococci

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28
Q

May lead to polymicrobial disease in which anaerobes are the predominant pathogens

A

Chronic Aspiration

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29
Q

Rare cause of disease in the lower airway

A

C. Albicans

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30
Q

Cause most infections in the esophagus

A

Herpes simplex virus & Cytomegalovirus

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31
Q

Cause of gastritis and ulcerative disease

A

H. Pylori

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32
Q

Obstructed small intestine

A

Blind loop syndrome

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33
Q

More microbes are present in here that anywhere else in the human body.

A

Large Intestine

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34
Q

Is a minor member of the intestinal flora but the most common anaerobe responsible for intraabdominal disease.

A

Bacteroides fragilis

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35
Q

Most common bacteria in large intestine but are rarely responsible for the disease

A

Eubacterium & Bifidobacterium

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36
Q

Can disrupt the colonic flora & produce significant intestinal disease

A

Entamoeba Histolytica

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37
Q

Areas of the GUT that are permanently colonized with microbes

A

Anterior Urethra & Vagina

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38
Q

Are common causes of urethritis and can persist as asymptomatic colonizers of the urethra

A

N. gonorhea & C. Trachomatis

39
Q

Common cause of vaginitis

A

N. Gonorrhea

40
Q

More diverse and dramatically influenced by hormonal factors

41
Q

Most common organisms found on the skin surface

A

Gram positive bacteria

42
Q

Factors that determine the population of organisms that colonize humans are complex and include

A

Health, hormonal state, Age, Personal hygiene & Diet “HHAPD”

43
Q

Represents the total destruction of all microbes, including the more resilient forms

A

Sterilization

44
Q

Results in the destruction of most organisms

A

Disinfection

45
Q

Used to reduce the number of microbes on the skin surfaces

A

Antisepsis

46
Q

Useful for removing fungi and bacteria from air or from solutions

A

Filtration

47
Q

Vapors are effective sterilants because of the oxidizing nature of the gas

A

Hydrogen peroxide

48
Q

Used for items involved with invasive procedures that cannot withstand sterilization procedures

A

High level disinfectants

49
Q

Used to treat noncritical instruments and devices

A

Low level disinfectants

50
Q

Used to clean surfaces or instruments where contamination with bacterial spores and other highly resilient organisms is unlikely

A

Intermediate level disinfectants

51
Q

Effectiveness is greatest when applied in under pressure. Boiling heat is done.

A

Moist heat

52
Q

Very effective form of sterilization

53
Q

Effective if applied at a high temperature for a long duration

54
Q

A slow process influenced by the concentration of gas, relative humidity, exposure time & temp.

A

Ethylene oxide sterilization

55
Q

Most common commercial chlorine

56
Q

Act by disrupting lipid-containing membranes, resulting in a leakage of cellular contents.

A

Phenolic compounds

57
Q

Used extensively as disinfectants

58
Q

Most effective halogens available for disinfection

A

Iodine compound

59
Q

Visible light passes through a condenser, then through the object under observation and finally through a series of lenses to magnify the image. Used to examine specimens placed on glass slides.

A

Brightfield microscopy

60
Q

Illuminates objects with parallel beams of light that move out of phase relative to each other. This allows objects to appear as 3D and useful for observing internal structures.

A

Phase contrast microscopy

61
Q

Uses the same series as brightfield. However special condenser is used to illuminate the subject material from an oblique angle. Used to detect organisms that are too thin to be observed.

A

Darkfield microscopy

62
Q

Uses high pressure mercury, halogen or xenon vapor lamps that emit a short wavelength of light to illuminate the object. Very usedul for organisms with natural fluorescence.

A

Fluorescent microscopy

63
Q

Used to commonly detect bacteria, parasites & blood borne pathogens.

A

Differential stains

64
Q

Alkali used in direct examination method

65
Q

Ink darkens the background rather than the cell

A

India ink method

66
Q

Best known and most widely used stain and forms the basis for the phenotypic classification of bacteria

A

Gram Stain

67
Q

Used to identify blood parasites and other selected MO

A

Wright Giemsa

68
Q

The oldest method used in acid fast stain but requires heating the specimen during the staining procedure

A

Ziehl Neelsen

69
Q

Stain of choice because a large area of the specimen can be examined rapidly by simply searching for fluorescing organisms against a black BG

A

Fluorochrome method

70
Q

Used to stain bacteria and fungi

A

Acridine orange stain

71
Q

Stains the chitin in fungal cell walls

A

Calcofluor white

72
Q

Important respiratory pathogen

A

Legionella

73
Q

Important enteric pathogen

A

Campylobacter

74
Q

Important bacterium responsible for STD

75
Q

Cause of staphylococcal shock syndrome produces disease by release of a toxin into the circulatory system.

A

Staph aureus

76
Q

Recovery of bacteria and fungi

A

Blood agar

77
Q

Recovery of bacteria including haemophilus & N. Gonorrhea

A

Chocolate Agar

78
Q

Bacterial susceptibility test medium

A

Mueller Hinton Agar

79
Q

Selective for gram negative bacteria differential for lactose fermenting species

A

MacConkey agar

80
Q

Recovery of corynebacterium diphtheria

A

Cystine tellurite agar

81
Q

Amplified by PCR using universal primers that recognize large groups of bacteria, and then specific sequences within the gene are amplified and sequenced to determine individual bacteria & strains.

A

Gene for 165 Ribosomal RNA

82
Q

Can be used to determine the number of genome copies

A

Quantitative RT-PCR

83
Q

Used to demonstrate the presence of CMV(urine) & HPV(pap smear) DNA

A

In situ hybridization

84
Q

Used to detect viral sequences in the urine or the baby’s blood

85
Q

Can be detected by RT-PCR analysis of RNA isolated from blood

A

Viral genome

86
Q

Sensitive and specific tools to detect, identify and quantitate the antigens from microbes.

A

Antibodies

87
Q

Recognize individual epitopes on antigen

A

Monoclonal antibodies

88
Q

Used to detect and quantify antigens

A

Single radial immunodiffusion

89
Q

Used to determine the relatedness of different antigens

A

Ouchterlony immuno double diffusion

90
Q

Identifying & quantifying lymphocytes

A

Flow cytometer

91
Q

Flow cytometer that can also isolate specific subpopulations of cells for tissue culture growth on the basis of their size & immunofluorescence.

92
Q

Used to quantitate the soluble antigen in a patient’s sample. Home pregnancy test for the HCG hormone.

93
Q

Viral proteins separated by electrophoresis according to their molecular weight or charge are transferred to a filter paper

A

Western blot analysis

94
Q

Used to quantitate the antigen-antibody complexes

95
Q

Used to identify the infecting agent, evaluate the course of an infection or determine its nature.

96
Q

Is the inverse of the greater dilution or lowest concentration of a patient’s serum that retains activity in one of the immunoassays just described.

MICROBIOLOGY (7 decks)

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