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4th year > Lymphoreticular amd haemopoietic > Flashcards

Lymphoreticular amd haemopoietic Flashcards

1
Q

difference between mammal and avian/reptile RBC

A

mammals are anucleated, birds/reptiles have nucleases

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2
Q

RBC production sites

A

mainly bone marrow in adult some from liver and spleen

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3
Q

life span of a erythrocyte

A 
dog = 100 days
cat = 70 days
horse/cow = 150 days
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4
Q

which is more accurate PCV or haematocrit

A

PCV, haematocrit is measured by a machine and relies on red cell count and volume

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5
Q

what is the PCV

A

% of red cells in blood

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6
Q

what does a pink plasma indicate after in has been spun down?

A

hemolysed

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7
Q

normal dog + cat PCV

A 
dog = 35-57
cat = 30-45
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8
Q

different anaemia classifications

A

mild(<10% below), moderate (MM pale) and severe (PCV in teens)
regenerative or non-regerative
normocytic, microcytic, macrocytic
normochromic, hypochromic

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9
Q

normochromic and hypochromic anaemia

A 
normochromic = normal levels of haemoglobin in the RBC
hypochromic = reduced haemoglobin conc (iron deficiency, LOW MCHC/MCH)
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10
Q

MCV

A

mean cell volume of red blood cells
Normocytic = normal size = mild non-rengerative anaemia/ acute haemorrhage
Microcytic=small RBC=iron deficiency/hepaticfailure/PSS
Macrocytic = large RBC = FeLV or storage artefact

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11
Q

regenerative or non-regenerative anaemia

A

increased reticulocytes in regenerative
increased MCV on regenerative normal on non-regenerative
reduced MCH on regenerative and normal on non

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12
Q

causes of regenerative anaemia

A

haemorrhage: Melena, surgery, UT, epistaxis
haemolysis: intra/extravascular, immune mediated (coombes test), parasite (babesia/ mycoplasma haemofelis), onion ingestion, zinc toxicity

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13
Q

coombe’s test

A

test for antibodies against RBC

can also use AGGLUTINATION TEST

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14
Q

Ghost cells

A

RBC that have lost their haemoglobin: intravascular haemolysis

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15
Q

Heinz bodies

A

denatured haemoglobin: caused by onion ingestion and paracetamol ingestion in cats

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16
Q

acanthocytes

A

projections from RBC: caused by splenic disease (hemangiosarcoma)

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17
Q

causes of non-regenerative anaemia

A

inflammatory, chronic renal failure, hypothyroidism, hypoadrencorticism,FeLV

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18
Q

Pale MM

A

anaemia or poor peripheral perfusion

CFT 2 = PPP

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19
Q

how to differentiate between haemorrhage and haemolysis

A

Haemolysis has normal TP reduced in haemorrhage

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20
Q

what is a anaemia cocker/springer spaniels are predisposed to

A

immune mediated haemolytic anaemia

treatment: IV fluid, blood transfusion, immunosuppressive therapy (prednisolone)

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21
Q

spherocytes

A

sphere shapes RBC cells: auto immune disease.

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22
Q

normal TP

A

dog: 5.4-7.4
cat: 6.6-8.4

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23
Q

how does blood separate in a centrifuge

A

plasma: water and protein
buffy coat: leukocytes and platelets
erythrocytes

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24
Q

blood typing dogs/cats

A

Dogs: not typed just DEA-1 or not
Cats: must be typed

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25
Q

Neonatal isoerythrolysis

A

found in foals and kittens: blood group different form dam so blood attacked and icterus and anaemia is caused
‘fading kitten syndrome’

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26
Q

when should a foal be ingesting colostrum and how much

A

1-2 litres in the first 3 hours

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27
Q

causes of failure of passive transfer

A

Mare: lack of or poor colostrum
Foal: lack of colostrum intake (unable to suckle illness or rejected), lack of abortion (GI disease, ingested too late)

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28
Q

how is failure of passive transfer measured

A

IgG concentration in blood snap test (8g/L good)

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29
Q

treatment for failure of passive transfer

A

colostrum( < 12hours) by nasogastric tube, IV plasma (1-2L)

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30
Q

cause of foal, increased RR,HR and Temp, Icterus, weakness, depression, sepsis

A

Neonatal isoerythrolysis: stop further ingestion of colostrum, transfusion of mares washed RBC , IV fluid

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31
Q

normal PCV and Hb for cow/sheep/pig

A

cow: PCV 24-46% Hb = 8-15 g/dl
sheep; PCV 27-45% Hb = 9-15 g/dl
Pig: PCV 22-38% Hb = 8-12 g/dl

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32
Q

causes of anaemia in large animals

A

Haemorrhagic: rupture, fasciolosis, lice, GIT
Haemolytic: Lepto, babesia, chronic copper poisoning, brassica poisoning (rape,kale,cabbage)
Depressed erythrocyte production: cobalt/copper/iron deficiency, bracken poisoning, renal disease

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33
Q

Haematuria

A

bracken poisoning

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34
Q

cause of blood in faeces, air in abdomen and abdominal pain

A

abomasal ulcers: caused by sand, DA or stress

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35
Q

jaundice, pallor, haemoglobinuria, sudden death in texel or suffolk sheep?

A

chronic copper poisoning : black swollen kidneys and swollen yellow liver
treatment: ammonium tetrathiomolybdate (ATM)
NEVER GIVE SHEEP, PIG OR COW FEED!!!!!!!

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36
Q

how much colostrum does a dairy calf need?

A

3-4 Litres = 20-30 minutes suckling

IN FIRSH 6 HOURS

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37
Q

how is colostrum assessed

A

Specific gravity (>1.048) or hygrometer

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38
Q

what is a left shift

A

more immature neutrophils (band and segmented)
degenerative = neutropenia bands>segmented
regenerative = neutrophilia segmented>band

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39
Q

causes of neutropenia

A

acute bacteria infection, endotoxemia, immune mediated, shock, FIV, FeLV, bone marrow disorders,

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40
Q

causes of neutrophilia

A

infections , immune mediated, neoplasia, haemolysis, stress or steroids

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41
Q

causes of lymphopenia

A

protein losing enteropathies, chylo-thorax, steroids, infectious (distemper, parvo, FeLV FIV)

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42
Q

causes of lymphocytosis

A

persistent antigen stimulation (fungal, protozoa, FeLV) , post vaccination, lymphocytic leukaemia, stage five lymphoma, hypoadrenocorticism (addisons)

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43
Q

stress leukogram

A

neutrophilia(+), lymphopenia(-), monocytosis(+), eosinopenia(-)

44
Q

steps of haemostasis

A

primary: platelet plug
secondary: coagulation cascade, insoluble fibrin produced to stabilize plug
Firinolysis: breakdown of fibrin and platelet plug

45
Q

what is released from damaged endothelial cells to help platelets aggregate

A

Von Willbrand’s factor

46
Q

what is the aim of the coagulation cascade

A

to produce insoluble fibrin to stabilize the platelet plug

47
Q

platelet counting

A

automated is fine apart from cats where a estimate from a blood smear is better (RBC same size as platelets)

48
Q

normal platelet levels

A

100<1000x10/L

49
Q

most common cause of thrombocytopenia

A

immune-mediated thrombocytopenia

primary: antibodies against platelets
secondary: other immune diseases, drugs, neoplasia or infection

50
Q

breeds with genetic disorders of platelets

A

otter hound, great Pyrenees, bassert hound, quaterhorse, simmentals

51
Q

mucosal bleeding but with no petechiae hemorrhages

A

Von Willebrand’s disease: common in dogs (Dobermans)

52
Q

test for Von Willebrand’s disease.

A

EDTA blood, Elisa for vWF should not be less than 50% (carrier) if less than 35% is clinical.

53
Q

what is the treatment for Von Willebrands

A

Transfusion to supply vWF (whole or plasma is anemic)

Desmopressin (causes release of vWF)

54
Q

what are most coagulation test blood samples collected in

A

citrated plasma: with minimal trauma and no heparin

blue, purple or green tubes

55
Q

what is a PTT test on blood

A

Partial Thromboplastic time: measuring time for a citrated plasma to clot, screen test for coagulopathys

56
Q

uses of PTT, PT and ACT test

A

PTT and ACT are used for intrinsic and common factors

PT is used for extrinsic and common factors

57
Q

what is the latex agglutination test used for

A

test for fibrin degeneration products: DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulation), hemorrhage and liver disease

58
Q

Vitamin deficiency causing a coagulophathy

A

Vit K: rodenticide toxicity, sweet clover ingestion (cattle)

59
Q

treatment for Vit K deficiency

A

Emetics/charcoal, whole blood transfusion, oral VitK NOT IV,

60
Q

DIC and causes

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation: secondary to neoplasia, hepatic disease, immune-mediated infections, infectious diseases.

61
Q

treatment for DIC

A

Heparin(stop coagulation), whole blood transfusion, aspirin (reduce platelet activation) POOR PROGNOSIS

62
Q

If both PTT and PT are prolonged what should be considered

A

Vitamin K deficiency or DIC

63
Q

if only PT prolonged what should be considered

A

early Vit K deficiency, liver disease, early DIC

64
Q

If only PPT prolonged consider

A

intrinsic: hemophilia A and B

65
Q

FeLV prevelence in UK

A

2-3% of cats

66
Q

How is FeLV spread

A

oral,nasal secretions, faeces, urine and milk

67
Q

Clinicial signs of FeLV

A

many asymptomatic: inappetance, WL, poor coat, fever, Pale MM, gingivitis, diarrhea and skin infections

68
Q

most common presentation of FeLV

A

immunosuppression: non-regenerative anemia

69
Q

disease commonly caused by a FeLV infection

A

Lymphoma

70
Q

test for FeLV

A

PCR, ELISA, Clip Antigen test.

71
Q

how reliable is a FeLV test

A

Poor: can be a localized infection so not be picked up on test. However most are picked up on serum ELISA
If negative repeat in 4 weeks

72
Q

FeLV treatment

A

Vaccination: nutrition, preventing secondary infections, neuter and confine indoors.

73
Q

FIV

A

Feline immunodefficency virus: like HIV, 3-6% prevalence

transmitted primarily by bite wounds, saliva, mating andtransplacental.

74
Q

5 stages of a FIV infection

A

Acute: days-weeks mild illness, fever, neutro/lymphoenia
Asymptomatic: up to 10 years, healthy
Persistent generalized lymphadomegaly:
Terminal: AIDS: only a few months, infections

75
Q

treatment for FIV

A

Antiviral therapy, antibiotics, NO VACCINATION IN UK

76
Q

FIP

A

feline infectious peritonitis: Fatal, caused by feline coronavirus causing increased vascular permeability , oronasal transmission,
CS: V+D, upper respiratory signs,

77
Q

2 forms of FIP

A

Effusive: 60-75%cases, ascites, pleural effusin (dyspnoea)

Non-effusive: dry/granulomatous, eye, brain, kidney, liver or GIT

78
Q

FIP diagnosis

A

Difficult anti-mortem, Lymphopaeia, Neutrophilia with left shirt, mild non-regenerative anemia, Fluid analysis
Coranavirus test cannot distingusish between FIP or infection

79
Q

Treatment and prognosis for FIP

A

Grave, No cure only palliative(antibiotics, fluid,rest, thoracocentisis) VACCINATION

80
Q

FIA

A

Feline Infectious Anemia (Mycoplasma Haemofelis)

immune destruction of RBC because pathogen is attached, Transmitted: fleas,blood,oral,in utero

81
Q

FIA clinical signs

A

common top young entire males, Low PCV (regenerative anemia), lethargy, fever, anorexia, splenomegaly, icterus

82
Q

diagnosis of FIA

A

PCR of blood smear with on EDTA

83
Q

treatment of FIA

A 
oral Doxycycline (potential GIT damabe + V) 
Flea control, blood transfusion, Immunosuppression (prednisolone)
84
Q

attachment of the spleen

A

Gastrosplenic ligament and short gastric vessels from head onto the greater curvature of the stomach

85
Q

what must you tie off/ not tie off in a slenectomy

A

tie: short gastric vessels, left gastroepiploic aplenic artey and vein but caudal to the pancreatic branch

86
Q

perioperative considerations of a splenectomy

A

Increased risk of DIC (PT/PTT test and blood type)

increased risk of cardiac arrhythmias (shock therapy)

87
Q

most common causes of a splenectomy

A

canine haemangiosarcoma, splenic torsion, splenic trauma, abscess, haematoma, infarction, infection

88
Q

most common malignant tumor in both cats and dogs

A

lymphoma

89
Q

aetiology of lymphoma in cats and dogs

A

Dogs: breed predisposition(Boxers), spontaneous
Cats: FeLV, Siamese, passive smoking,

90
Q

site of lymphoma in cats and dogs

A

Dogs: 85% multicentric LN, 7% GIT. 3% thymic
Cats: 50% GIT, 25% LN, 20% thymic, 5% extranodal

91
Q

dog with generalized lymphadomegaly, lethargy PU/PD

A

multicentric lymphoma, disseminated infection, IM disease, neoplasia, skin disease, sterile granulomatous lymphadenitis

92
Q

main LN effected by lymphoma

A

sub mandibular, prescapular, axillary, superficial inguinal, popliteal

93
Q

Hodgkin’s-like lymphoma

A

effects cats and is lymphoma in only the head and neck LN

94
Q

most common presentation of a cat with lymphoma

A

GIT signs: anorexia, diarrhea/ vomiting, weight loss

95
Q

DDx for cat with GI lymphoma

A

IBD, other GI tumors, FB or interssusception,

if old cat (hyperthyroid,CKD, diabetes)

96
Q

lymphoma causing dyspnoea, cough, regurgitation and displaced heart sounds in cats + hypercalcemia in dogs

A

mediastinal lymphoma

97
Q

work up of suspected lymphoma

A

FNA/biopsy of LN, high(large cells) or low grade(small lymphocytes), immunophenotype T or B and clonal assay to find monoclonal population. STAGE Then hematology, biochemistry and urinalysis, FIV + FeLV test before chemo.

98
Q

How are lymphomas staged

A

1: single LN
2: multiple regional LN
3: generalized LN involvement
4:Liver/spleen involvement
5:Bone marrow involvement
sub stage a if with systemic signs, b if without

99
Q

treatment options for lymphoma

A

systemic chemotherapy(CHOP/COP),Prednisolone for short term remission, radiation therapy (nasal/oral), RARELY surgery

100
Q

what are the different chemotherapy protocols for lymphoma

A

COP: Cyclophosphatase, Vincristine, Prednisolone
CHOP: + Doxorubicine (eg Madison-Wisconsin)
LOPP: for high grade canine T cell lymphoma
MONITORING: URINE AND BLOOD WEEKLY

101
Q

Different types of Leukaemias

A

Lymphoid: effects lymphoid cell line (T,B,plasma,NKC)
Myeloid: effects myeloid cell line (RBC, mast, neutrophil, eosinophil, macrophage, platelets)

102
Q

acute or chronic leukaemia

A

Acute: poorly differentiated cells, immature, POOR
Chronic: well-differentiated cells, REASONABLE

103
Q

clinical signs of Leukaemia

A

lethargy, weakness, anorexia, Pyrexia, pallor, petechiae, mild generalized lymphadenophathy, hepatosplenomegaly, hematology

104
Q

treatment of Leukaemias

A

Acute: L-asparaginase/prednisolone,cytarabine or CHOP
Chronic: Chlorambucil and prednisolone

105
Q

How to differentiate between stage 5 Lymphoma and Leukaemias

A

Stage 5 Lymphoma = CD34 -ve on flow, LN huge,not sick

Leukaemias: CD34 +ve on flow, sick, marked cytopenias

106
Q

cause of bone pain in older dogs

A

multiple myeloma: bone plasma cell tumor, increased globulins, radiograph bones
treatment: melphalan and prednisolone

107
Q

Lymph Node classification under the microscope

A

Normal: mainly small lymphocytes (1-1.5 RBC)
Hyperplastic/Reactive: more M-L lymphocytes
Lymphadenitis: more inflammatory cells
Lymphoid neoplasia: >50% M-L(immature) lymphocytes
Metastatic neoplasia: Foreign cells present

4th year (8 decks)

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