Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

4th year > Locomotor > Flashcards

Locomotor Flashcards

1
Q

main structures involved in locomotion in a horses distal limb

A

DDFT(deep digital flexor tendon), SL(suspensory ligament), SDFT(superficial digital flexor tendon), DAL(distal accessory ligament)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is a duty factor

A

the ratio of stance and stride time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what gait is preferred for a lameness exam

A

trot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how is fetlock drop helpful to diagnose which limb is lamb

A

usually drops more on opposite sound limb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

how is lameness graded

A

0: sound, 1-2:seen at trot,3-4: just seen at walk easy at trot , 5-6:seen easily at trot, 7-8: hobbling at walk, unwilling to trot, 9-10:not weight bearing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how does the head help with forelimb lameness

A

head nods down when sound limb hits ground, up for lame limb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

how do you recognise hind limb lameness

A

Pelvic hike (affected side sinks when lame limb hits ground), elevation of tuber calcis on sound side, drifting(horse moves away from effected limb, effect side lands under body)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

4 main foot problems effecting dairy cows

A

Sole ulcers, white line disease, digital dermatitis and Foul

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

mobility scores

A

0:Sound, 1:Steps uneven, 2:uneven weight instantly obvious, 3:unable to walk a brisk human pace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

most likely claws effected

A

lateral claw hind limb then medial claw forelimb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

5 point plan for foot trimming

A

1:trim toe and sole to 52 degrees(start with inner claw) 2:balance claws 3:transfer weight from sole onto heal, wall and toe, 4:remove weight from painful claw, 5:remove any loose/under-run claw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

treatment for sole ulcer

A

Dutch 5 plan, antibacterial treatment, NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

treatment for foot problems in the herd

A

Environment, Biotin, Increase dry matt (solid dung), assess BCS,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

treatment of white line disease

A

drain pus, remove under-run claw, apply block, antibacterial, NSAIDs if swelling, biotin and increased dry matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

causes of white line disease

A

Poor horn quality, wet conditions, turning, P3 decent, loss of BCS,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how is digital dermatitis scored

A

M1: 2cm M3:regressive M4.1: reactive M4:hyperkeratotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

treatment for digital dermatitis

A

M1: clean dry and oxytetracycline spray, M2: same but debride with paper towel and bandage, M3+M4: clean and debride/debulk and bandage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

herd treatment for digital dermatitis

A

footbath(copper sulphate and formalin) and slurry management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is fowl of the foot?

A

swelling of claws and interdigital necrosis due to bacterial infection often linked to FB(sand)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

treatment for fowl of the foot

A

clean and debride in-between the claws, disinfect and use licenced injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

main foot lesions of sheep

A

scald, footrot, CODD, shelly hoof, toe granuloma, abcess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

treatment for scald and footrot

A

same scald progresses to footrot: topical antibiotic, foot bathing, vaccinate, separate if possible and DO NOT TRIM FEET

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

cause of scald

A

dichelobacter nodosus: present on 90% of farms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

cause of porcine lameness

A

Piglets: arteritis
Growers: Fracture, Osteochondrosis dessicans, myocoplasma hyosynoviae
Sows: Osteochondrosis, DJD, Infectious arthritis (erysipelas, mycoplasma), septic laminitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is laminitis

A

the failure of the attachment of the epidermal (insensitive) laminae to the dermal (sensitive) laminae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what structure causes rotation and sinking of P3

A

deep digital flexor tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what predisposes horses to laminitis

A

Pony, spring/summer, Female, old, Obesity, increased access to grass, sudden weight increase, any sepsis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

clinical signs of laminitis

A

lameness in two or more limbs, leaning back on heals, bounding digital pulse, increased hoof temp, pain at point of frog with hoof testers and depression at coronary band.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

endocrine causes of laminitis

A

Pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction (ACTH/Dex test)

Equine metabolic syndrome (fasting insulin+glucose test)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

treatment of laminitis

A

Medical: NSAIDs, Opiates, ACP(vasodilator) Or Ice (vasoconstriction), support frog and sole (bedding and shoes), Box rest and 1-2% Body weight of poor quality hay diet) NO GRASS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Treatment for PPID and EMI

A

PPID: Pergolide
EMI: weight loss and exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

number one priority for preventing laminitis

A 
avoiding PNC (Pastural Non-structural Carbohydrates) , high fibre(hay) diet not sugar and starch(Sugarbeat)
Zero grazing or muzzle and lots of exercise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

how is plasma calcium increased

A

Parathyroid hormone: reduces excretion and increases absorption of calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what other organ can cause hyperparathyroidism

A

renal failure: reduced vit D activity causing reduced phosphate excretion which binds to calcium and lowes serum calcium, causing increased PTH production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

common problem with reptile calcium

A

Metabolic bone disease: low diet calcium causing low activation or availability of Vitamin D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

cause of lethargy, reduced appetite and joint swelling in reptile

A

metabolic bone disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

cause of calcium nodules forming at tarsus of a dog, seen on Xray

A

calcinosis circumscipta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

common disease types in bone

A

developmental, endocrine/metabolic, Infectious and neoplastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

osteomyelitis

A

infection of cortical bone and medullary cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

treatment of osteomyelitis

A

broad spectrum antibiotics then update on culture, surgical debridement, lavage and immobilization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what two disease look very similar under x-ray with bone lysis and formation.

A

osteomyelitis and osteosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

10 year old greyhound: unilateral forelimb lameness for 3 weeks, non-responsive to analgesia and restricted exercise, pain on deep palpation of radius, swelling at distal radius. PLAN

A

X-ray, check lymph nodes, swab tracts, biopsy,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is the treatment for osteosarcoma

A

Curative: Amputation and chemo,
Palliative: (radiotherapy, NSAIDs and bisphosphates)
Euthanasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

measurements on radiograph used to measure level of laminitis

A 
angle of wall and phalange (>15 degrees=poor), dorsal hoof wall thickness (>3cm horses, >2cm =chronic lamness)
dorsal shadow (separation of lamina)
horizontal lucent lines at coronary band (sinking)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is the only radiographic sign of navicular disease

A

flexor tendon erosion: reduced opacity at centre of navicular bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

where is the weak point on the sole of a hoof

A

white line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

where is the most common site of lameness in a horse

A

hoof capsule

48
Q

cause of hoof cracks

A

thin hoof wall, poor quality horn, and abnormal hoof angle

49
Q

treatment of hoof cracks

A

plates, wire and screws

50
Q

canker

A

bacterial infection of the frog and heel can enter hoof capsule

51
Q

Gravel

A

chronic foot abscess bursting out of coronary band

52
Q

what causes 1/3 of chronic forelimb lameness

A

Navicular syndrome

53
Q

coffin joint and coffin bone

A

between P2 and P3 (distal interphalangeal joint) ,

P3 is the Coffin bone

54
Q

what are the 3 approaches to the distal interphalangeal joint

A

Dorsal midline, Lateral/medial to extensor tendon and Palmar/plantar approach

55
Q

6 types of distal phalanx fracture

A 
Type 1: wing+not articular surface
Type2: wing+articular surface
Type3: Sagittal
Type4: extensor process
Type5: convoluted
Type6: solar margin
56
Q

treatment for distal phalanx fracture

A

Bar shoe and foot cast, with box rest for 4-6 months

57
Q

2 types of tendon injury

A

Percutaneous: Laceration/penetration
Subcutaneous: strain/displacement

58
Q

how is tendon injury diagnosed

A

reduced Metacarpal joint extension, elevation of the toe, swelling/pain of metacarpal. ULTRASOUND

59
Q

cause of a straight hock (overextended metacarpal joint)

A

proximal suspensory desmtitis : diagnosed on ultrasound and diagnostic analgesia

60
Q

cause of a distended digital sheath and a notch at the level of the PAL

A

annular ligament syndrome (ALS)

61
Q

3 phases of tendonitis and the lengths of time they last for

A

acute(inflammatory) phase: 0-2 weeks
subacute (fibroplasia) phase: 1-6months
chronic (remodelling) phase: 3-18 months

62
Q

treatment of tendonitis

A

0-2weeks: ice, compression and rest+ steroids and NSAIDs surgery (percutaneous tendon splitting)
1-6months: mobilisation with Ultrasound monitoring with cell therapy(platelet rich plasma)
3-18months: slowly increasing exercise, shockwave therapy, tendon surgery

63
Q

2 types of distal interphalangeal joint flexural deformity

A

Type1: dorsal hoof wall less than vertical (exercise and toe extension)
Type2: dorsal hoof wall past vertical (surgery required)

64
Q

name for growth plates

A

physis

65
Q

osteochondrosis

A

conditions effecting developing cartilage and there supportive bone. caused by vascular problem in epiphysis or failure of development of cartilage to bone.

66
Q

osteochondrosis dessicans

A

detachment of chondral or osteochondral fragment form articular surface

67
Q

what do fast growing animals usually suffer from in there joints

A

osteochondrosis dessicans (horses, great dane pigs and poultry)

68
Q

difference in osteoarthritis in humans and animals

A

humans: disease of ageing
Animals: caused by underlying condition made worse by age

69
Q

main cause of hip and elbow dysplasia

A

Genetic heritability

70
Q

changes in order as they take place in hip dysplasia

A

ligaments hypertrophy (slack), subluxation, cartilage destroyed, change in joint shape, secondary osteoarthritis (bony and fibrosis)

71
Q

common clinical signs of hip dysplasia

A

sitting down on walks, reluctant to climb stairs, lameness

72
Q

types of cartilage and where they are present

A

Hyaline: articular surfaces, nasal septum, trachea, ribs and growth plates
Fibrocartilage: intervertebral disks ear meniscus
Elastic: epiglottis and ear

73
Q

main components of cartilage

A

Water, Collagen 1 and 2 , Chondrocytes and Proteoglycans

74
Q

main risk factor of osteoarthritis

A

age, genetics, environmental and mechanical trauma

75
Q

classifications of canine arthritis

A

inflammatory (infectious or non-infectious) or Non-inflammatory (traumatic, DJD, hemarthrosis)

76
Q

common presentations of arthritis in different breeds

A

GSD: hip
Labrador: elbow dysplasia
Greyhound: erosive

77
Q

how is the diagnosis of arthritis made

A

radiographs and arthrocentesis (analysis of joint fluid, cytology, culture)

78
Q

most common bacteria found in infectious arthritis

A

staphylococcus, strephylococcus and pasteurella

79
Q

why is travel history important for arthritis cases

A 
infectious diseases: Borrelial arthritis (lyme disease) 
Rickettsial arthritis (ehrlichiosis)
Protozoal arthritis (leishmania)
80
Q

how can you tell the difference between erosive and non-erosive arthritis

A

radiography

81
Q

what is DJD

A

degeneration of articular cartilage causing bony changes (osteoarthritis)

82
Q

causes of DJD

A

trauma, infectious inflammatory, non-infectious inflammatory, developmental disease,

83
Q

common clinical signs of DJD

A

weight, muscle atrophy, heat, swelling, lameness, pain, reduced range of motion

84
Q

synovial fluid analysis that confirms DJD

A

yellow colour, white cells >1000, neutrophils >5%, Mononuclear cells <90%

85
Q

how do you differentiate between immune mediated and bacterial arthritis

A

immune mediated 2.5-3 g/dl of protein, bacterial >4

immune mediated 10-90% neutrophils, bacterial >90%

86
Q

best way of diagnosing DJD in large animal

A

intraarticular analgesia

87
Q

Treatment for DJD in small animals

A

weight loss, hydrotherapy, NSAIDs (Meloxicam), intraarticular corticosteroids, arthrodesis or total joint replacement.

88
Q

treatment for DJD in horses

A

NSAIDs, intraarticular corticosteroids, glycoaminoglycans(stimulate cartilage growth), sodium hyaluronate, green lipped muscle extract, MSM, arthrodesis

89
Q

how long does it take for tendon injury’s to heal?

A

50% of strength at 6 weeks

80% at 1 year

90
Q

treatment for a tendon injury

A

Rest, support (trans articular fixator), protection (bandage, cast), surgery (tendon suture) all under ultrasound monitoring

91
Q

how is a sprain diagnosed

A

radiographs of stress views under anaesthesia

92
Q

treatment of a sprain

A

rest, cooling and NSAIDs, external coaptation, ligament repair,

93
Q

where does the cranial cruciate ligament run

A

proximal lateral to distal medial STIFLE

94
Q

typical presentation of cranial cruciate ligament disease

A

Middle aged dogs (2-10), overweight, neutered, medium to large breeds (Labrador, spaniel, Rott, NOT GREYHOUNDS), Pelvic limb lameness, muscle atrophy, stifle effusion, stifle instability,

95
Q

tests done for cranial cruciate ligament disease

A

cranial drawn (stabilise femur and move tibia cranial), tibial thrust (place finger on tibal crest and feel for movement when you flex the hock) and radiograph.

96
Q

treatment for cruciate disease

A

conservative: only if <15kg with minimal lameness, rest + hydrotherapy
Surgery: lateral tibio-fabella suture, TPLO, TTA, CWTO (closed wedge tibial oestectomy similar to TPLO but more distal, TTO)

97
Q

what is the Post Op management for cruciate surgery

A

6-8 weeks rest (lead only), cold pack 2 days, RADs 6 weeks and hydrotherapy after 6-8 weeks

98
Q

what are the main types of fracture

A

transverse, oblique, spiral, communicated, segmented, buckle/greenstick, avulsion and compression

99
Q

basic guidelines for coaptation

A

1: Reduce (50% rule, 50% contact)
2: Alignment (radiographs)
3: Normal standing position
4: Immobilization of joint above and below

100
Q

disadvantages of coaptation

A

only appropriate for stable/uncomplicated fractures, may result in limb malalignment, cast slip/cast related sores

101
Q

cause and treatment of carpal hyperextension

A

rupture of palmar fibrocartilage

treatment: pancarpal arthrodesis by internal fixation

102
Q

main type of bandage and what it is made up of

A

Robert Jones Bandage:
Primary layer: Melolin (cover + protect)
Second layer: Cotton wool (absorption + pressure)
Third layer: Casting tape (padding)
Fourth Layer: Vet wrap (holding all in + protection)

103
Q

Arthralgia

A

joint pain

104
Q

what could be the causes of increased neutrophils on a arthrocentesis

A

degenerative = septic

non degenerative = immune mediated

105
Q

normal analysis of synovial fluid and in the different types of inflammatory arthritis

A

Normal: neutrophils 0-6%, clear/pale yellow, mononuclear >95%,
DJD: Neu 0-10%, yellow, Mono 88-100%
Erosive: Neu 20-80%, Mono 20-80%
non erosive: Neu 15-95%, Mono 5-85%
Septic: Neu90-99%, yellow/blood tinged Mono 1-10%

106
Q

causes and treatment of septic arthritis

A

Haematogenous (umbilicus), puncture wound, iatrogenic (surgery)
6 weeks Abx (amoxicillin), based on culture

107
Q

causes of non-erosive arthritis

A

Lupus, Lyme disease, drug-associated, IBD, vaccine induced

108
Q

common erosive arthritis and its clinical signs

A

rheumatoid arthritis: stiffness swelling, radiograph erosion, RF +ve serology , synovial history

109
Q

treatment for rheumatoid arthritis

A

immunosuppressive does of prednisolone (2-4mg/kg), cytotoxic drugs,

110
Q

Arthroplasty + indications

A

removal and replacement of joint: persistent luxation, arthritis/joint pain, unreconstructable articulated fracture

111
Q

indication for a femoral head and neck incision

A

hip dysplasia, DJD, osteoarthritis, femoral head fractures, persistent luxation,

112
Q

work up of swollen joint

A

arthrocentesis of effected joints: to differentiate between septic and non-septic, macrophage dominant = non-inflammatory, neutrophil dominant = inflammatory (degenerative or not). If non-septic use radiographs to determine if erosive or non-erosive.

113
Q

treatment for septic and immune mediated polyarthritis

A

septic: antibiotics and joint lavage, intra-articular antibiotics, arthroscopy
IMPA: steroids and analgesia

114
Q

common causes for acute joint swelling in a group of 10 sows

A

mycoplasma hyosynoviae, DJD, Erysipelas, glassers disease, trauma.

115
Q

causes of new bone formation on cats tarsus and carpus

A

idiopathic inflammatory arthritis (FeLV, FIV)
septic arthritis (bacterial- usually only one limb)
Osteoarthritis, osteosarcoma

116
Q

what should not be used in cats but ok for dogs in the treatment of periosteal proliferative arthritis

A

azathioprine: causes non responsive bone marrow suppression and fatal leucopenia and thrombocytopenia

4th year (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions