Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Y2 Clinical Pathology > Lymphoma & Myeloma > Flashcards

Lymphoma & Myeloma Flashcards

1
Q

What is the product of antigen-independent B-cell differentiation?

what surface markers does it have?

A

naïve B-cell which is capable of responding to antigen

it expresses:

complete surface IgM and IgD

pan B-cell markers - CD 19, 20, 22, 40, 79a

complement receptors

CD23 and some express CD5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What type of antibody gene do naïve B-cells have?

A

they have a rearranged but unmutated Ig gene

each B cell is committed to a single light chain (kappa or lambda)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In which locations does B cell development occur?

A

B cell activation occurs in the secondary lymphoid organs, such as the spleen and lymph nodes

After B cells mature in the bone marrow, they migrate through the blood to the SLOs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

By which 2 ways can mature antigen-naïve B cells be activated?

A

they can be activated by antigens directly

(they apoptose or differentiate into short-lived plasma cells with production of IgM antibody of the primary immune response)

or with the input of T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a germinal centre?

What type of cells are present here and where do they originate from?

A

naïve B-cells develop into proliferating IgM expressing B-cell blasts

these have encountered antigen in the paracortex or T-cell zone

they migrate into the centre of the primary follicle to form a germinal centre

the germinal centre is formed from 3-10 naïve B-cells and eventually contains 10,000 - 15,000 B-cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the 4 steps involved in naïve B-cells becoming plasma or memory B cells?

A
  1. proliferation
  2. immunoglobulin somatic hypermutation and class switch
  3. selection
  4. differentiation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What happens to the naive B cell following antigen stimulation?

What is the rate of the cell cycle like in the product?

A

B cells differentiate into centroblasts

these accumulate in the dark zone of the germinal centre

they are highly proliferative with a cell cycle that is completed within 6 - 12 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What genes are downregulated within centroblasts?

What is the result of this?

A

anti-apoptotic genes are downregulated

e.g. BCL-2

pro-apoptotic molecules are present

e.g. CD95

this means only cells which generate highly specific receptors to the antigen in the germinal centre will survive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the purpose of somatic hypermutation of centroblasts?

Where does this occur?

A

somatic hypermutation of the Ig V-region genes of centroblasts occurs within the germinal centre

this increases intraclonal diversity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what do centroblasts mature into?

Where are they found and which process occurs here?

A

centroblasts mature to non-proliferating centrocytes

these are found in the light zone of the GC

heavy-chain class switch occurs here to alter the Ig constant regions to IgG, IgA or IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What happens after heavy chain class switching depending on the centrocytes Ig gene mutation?

A

if a centrocyte’s Ig gene mutation results in a lower affinity antibody for the antigen, it undergoes apoptosis

if the gene mutation results in increased affinity, the antibody can bind to the antigen

(up until now, this has been trapped by complement receptors on follicular dendritic cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What happens once the centrocyte antibody has bound to the antigen?

A

the centrocytes process the antigen and presents it to T-cells

T-cells express the CD40 ligand

this binds to the B-cell CD40 and rescues it from apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is required for differentiation post-GC?

A

inactivation of BCL6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What step in terminal differentiation is involved in the pathogenesis of Burkitt lymphoma?

A

downregulation of the myc gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the main mechanism which inactivates BCL6?

A

the CD40 - CD40 ligand interaction stimulates centrocyte expression of IRF4

IRF4 represses BCL6

BCL6 has an inhibitory effect on BLIMP1, so this is upregulated when BCL6 is downregulated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

WHat is the consequence of upregulation of BLIMP1?

A

BLIMP1 represses PAX5, enabling plasma cell differentiation

it also upregulates XBP1, which helps to regulate plasma cells in their secretory phenotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the different molecules involved in plasma cell development?

A
  • interferon regulatory factor 4 (IRF4)
  • B-lymphocyte induced maturation protein 1 (BLIMP1)
  • X-box binding protein 1 (XBP1)
  • paired box protein 5 (PAX5)
  • MYC - a regulatory gene which codes for a transcription factor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are immunoglobulins?

When are they produced?

A

They are glycoprotein molecules

they are produced by plasma cells in response to an immunogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the composition of immunoglobulins like?

A

they are composed of 2 heavy chains and 2 light chains

they are held together by covalent disulphide bonds

each chain has one variable and one constant region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How are immunoglobulins classified?

A

according to the amino acid sequences in the constant region of the:

heavy chains:

  • IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD, IgE

light chains:

  • kappa or lambda
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is protein electrophoresis?

What 5 major fractions are normally identfied?

A

the laboratory technique whereby serum is placed in a gel and exposed to an electric current

5 major fractions normally identified:

  • serum albumin
  • alpha-1 globulins
  • alpha-2 globulins
  • beta globulins
  • gamma globulins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When is immunofixation performed?

What can it detect?

A

it is performed when “M-spike” is seen on electrophoresis

it enables the detection and identification of monoclonal immunoglobulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the process involved in immunofixation?

A

serum or urine is placed on a gel and electric current is applied to separate the proteins

anti-immunoglobulin antisera is added to each migration lane

if the immunoglobulin is present, a complex precipitates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is myeloma?

What is it preceeded by?

A

an incurable malignant disorder or clonal plasma cells

it is preceeded by asymptomatic MGUS in all patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is MGUS?

A

monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance

it is a condition in which an abnormal protein (a monoclonal protein) is present in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the median age at presentation of myeloma?

Which groups have a higher incidence?

A

median age at presentation is 70 years

higher incidence in Afro-Carribean ethnic groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Where does myeloma lie on a spectrum of plasma cell dyscrasias?

What are these called?

A

myeloma is one of a spectrum of plasma cell dyscrasias called paraproteinaemias

this is the presence of excessive amounts of myeloma protein or monoclonal gamma globulin in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria used for myeloma?

A

IMWG diagnostic criteria

clonal bone marrow plasma cells >/= 10% or biopsy-proved bony / extramedullary plasmacytoma

and any one or more of:

CRAB features

MDEs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the CRAB features in myeloma?

A

C - hypercalcaemia:

  • > 2.75 mmol / L

R - renal insufficiency:

  • creatine clearance < 40 ml / min or serum creatinine > 177 micromol / L

A - anaemia:

  • Hb < 100 g / L

B - bone lesions:

  • one or more osteolytic lesions on skeletal radiography, CT or PET/CT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is meant by MDEs in myeloma?

What are the 3 MDEs?

A

myeloma defining events

  • >/= 60% clonal plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy
  • SFLC ratio > 100mg / L provided the absolute level of involved LC is > 100 mg / L
  • > 1 focal lesion on MRI measuring > 5mm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What % of myeloma patients have renal insufficiency at diagnosis?

How many will develop this and need treatment?

A

20-25% have renal insufficiency at diagnosis

50% will have renal insufficiency at some point during their disease course

2-12% will require RRT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the 9 external factors that can influence renal insufficiency?

A
  1. renal vein thrombosis
  2. bisphosphonates
  3. hypercalcaemia
  4. ACE inhibitors
  5. dehydration
  6. NSAIDs
  7. CT contrast
  8. hyperviscosity
  9. type 1 cryoglobulinaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the clinical features of renal insufficiency as part of myeloma?

A
  • confusion
  • poor appetite
  • thirst
  • chest infections
  • breathlessness
  • polyuria or oliguria / anuria
  • peripheral oedema
  • constipation
  • pathological fractures
  • nausea
  • bone pains
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the 3 main blood tests performed when investigating myeloma and why?

A

full blood count - Hb, WBC, platelets & blood film:

  • looking for anaemia? active infection?
  • degree of bone marrow infiltration
  • rouleaux

U&Es - urea, creatinine, sodium, potassium:

  • looks for renal failure & dehydration

calcium:

  • is it elevated?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is meant by rouleaux?

A

stacks or aggregations of red blood cells

they form due to the unique discoid shape of the RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What other blood tests may be performed when looking for myeloma and why?

A

c-reactive protein:

  • if clinical suspicion of active infection

immunoglobulin levels:

  • look for one elevated immunoglobulin subtype with low levels of the others

protein electrophoresis:

  • is paraprotein present?

light-chain analysis:

  • if no paraprotein is detected but there is clinical suspicion of myeloma
40
Q

What imaging investigations are performed in myeloma?

A
  • skeletal survey
  • whole body CT or MRI
  • PET scan (not all myelomas are PET positive)
41
Q

What is a medical emergency relating to myeloma?

A

acute kidney injury with suspected myeloma is a medical emergency

42
Q

What are the stages involved in myeloma management?

How long should it take to complete these stages?

A
  • blood film
  • electrophoresis
  • immunofixation
  • bone marrow biopsy with flow cytometry

should all be expedited within 24 hours

treatment with steroids in the meantime

43
Q

What is the treatment for myeloma?

A

steroids are given during as an early intervention

hydration, avoid nephrotoxics and appropriate chemotherapy (attenuated dosing)

44
Q

What is the IMWG diagnostic criteria for MGUS?

A
  • serum M-protein < 30 g / L
  • < 10% clonal plasma cells in the bone marrow
  • absence of end-organ damage (CRAB)
45
Q

What % of people have MGUS?

Is it more common in men or women?

A
  • 3.2% of people > 50 years
  • 5.3% of people > 70 years
  • 8.9% of people > 80 years
  • more common in males than females
46
Q

What are the risks of progression of MGUS?

What can it progress to?

A

approx 1 % per year will progress

majority will progress to myeloma

others may progress to:

  • Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia
  • primary AL amyloidosis
  • lymphoproliferative disorders
47
Q

What increases the risk of progression of MGUS?

A
  • high vs. low M-protein (15 g/L)
  • IgA / IgM vs. IgG PP
  • abnormal SFLC ratio vs. normal
48
Q

What may urinary PCR show in MGUS?

A

nephrotic range proteinuria

apple-green birefringence of congo red stained preparates under polarised light is indicative for the presence of amyloid fibrils

49
Q

What is meant by AL amyloidosis?

A

amyloid light chain (AL) amyloidosis

light chain fragments misfold and self-aggregate to form beta-pleated fibrils then deposit in organs

50
Q

What organs tend to be involved in AL amyloidosis?

A

1.5% of native kidney biopsies

cardiac and liver involvement in 30%

peripheral neuropathy in 10%

ESFR in 40%

51
Q

What type of urinary symptoms are present in AL amyloidosis?

A

nephrotic-range proteinuria

this is mainly albumin

there is a small monoclonal light chain component so classical myeloma symptoms are usually not present

52
Q

what are the clinical features of AL amyloidosis?

A
  • macroglossia
  • confusion
  • poor appetite
  • thirst
  • palpitations
  • breathlessness
  • peripheral neuropathy
  • oliguria / anuria
  • peripheral oedema
  • constipation
  • ascites
  • nausea
  • PND or orthopnoea
53
Q

What are lymphomas caused by?

How are they classfied?

A

lymphomas are caused by malignant proliferations of lymphocytes

they are classified according to the presence or absence of Redd-Sternberg cells

54
Q

What other organs may be involved in lymphomas?

A

lymph nodes are predominantly affected in advanced stages

there may be bone marrow and other organ involvement (e.g. gut, skin, CNS)

55
Q

What type of lymphoma is present if Reed Sternberg cells are present?

A

Hodgkin lymphoma

56
Q

What are the symptoms of Hodgkin lymphoma?

What ages tend to be affected and what is the cure rate like?

A
  • lymphadenopathy
  • night sweats
  • weight loss
  • fatigue
  • bone marrow involvement is uncommon

it has a bimodal age distribution (20-29 and 60-70)

excellent cure rates (>90%)

57
Q

What type of lymphoma is present if there are no Reed-Sternberg cells?

A

either T cell lymphoma or Non-Hodgkin lymphoma

this can be aggressive or indolent

58
Q

What are examples of aggressive non-hodgkin lymphoma?

What are the symptoms?

Is it curable?

A

e.g. DLBCL, Burkitt lymphoma

  • rapid onset lymphadenopathy
  • night sweats
  • weight loss

it is curable

59
Q

What are examples of indolent non-hodgkin lymphoma?

What are typical symptoms?

Is it curable?

A

e.g. follicular lymphoma, marginal zone lymphoma

  • insidious onset lymphadenopathy
  • systemically well

it is usually not curable

60
Q

When someone presents with a lump, what questions are important to ask?

A

nature of the lump:

  • size
  • rate of change
  • tenderness and skin changes
  • history of trauma

additional lumps / lesions elsewhere

  • history of weight loss / night sweats
  • history of breathlessness / cough / haemoptysis
  • past medical history - previous malignancies
  • social history - smoking
  • family history - bone marrow disorders or malignancies
61
Q

What would a clinical examination for a neck lump focus on?

A

nature of the lump:

  • size
  • location
  • skin changes & contour
  • is it fixed to underlying structures
  • evidence of additional neck masses
  • presence of palpable lymphadenopathy
  • presence of hepatosplenomegaly
  • presence of breast lumps
  • chest examination - insection, auscultation and percussion
62
Q

what are malignant and non-malignant causes of a neck mass?

A

malignant:

  • lymphoma
  • chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
  • metastatic cancer of the lung / breast / cervix

non-malignant:

  • infective (bacterial, viral, mycobacterial)
  • inflammatory (sarcoidosis)
  • lipoma
  • fibroma
  • haemangioma
63
Q

What blood tests should be performed in a neck lump?

A
  • full blood count
  • U&Es
  • LFTs
  • Ca2+
  • lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
  • immunoglobulins and protein electrophoresis
64
Q

What imaging should be performed in a neck lump?

A
  • chest x-ray
  • ultrasound scan of the neck lump
  • fine needle aspirate and/or core needle biopsy
65
Q

What is shown here?

A

follicular lymphoma

66
Q

What other investigations should be performed on a neck lump?

A
  • CT neck, chest, abdomen, pelvis +/- PET scan
  • bone marrow biopsy depending on the results of other investigations
67
Q

What is follicular lymphoma?

What is it characterised by?

A

a neoplastic disorder of lymphoid tissue

it is a type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma characterised by slowly enlarging lymph nodes

68
Q

What % of non-Hodgkin lymphomas are follicular lymphoma?

Which groups are more at risk?

A

it accounts for around 15% of all non-Hodgkin lymphoma diagnoses

incidence rises with age

it is equally present in males and females

69
Q

What type of chromosomal translocation is present in most cases of follicular lymphoma?

A

t(14;18)

this brings the BCL2 protooncogene under the influence of the immunoglobulin heavy-chain gene

this leads to over-expression of the BCL2 protein

this confers a survival advantage to the neoplastic lymphoid cells by inhibiting apoptosis

70
Q

What is the median and five-year survival in follicular lymphoma?

A

median survival is 8 - 10 years

five year overall survival is 72 - 77%

71
Q

what is FLIPI and how is it used to work out prognosis of follicular lymphoma?

A

follicular lymphoma international prognostic index

  • ​age >/= 60 years
  • Ann Arbor stage III or IV
  • LDH above the limit of normal at diagnosis
  • Hb < 120 g / L
  • presence of more than four nodal sites of disease

if a patient has 4 or more prognostic factors, 10-year survival rate is 36% compared with 71% for those with 1 or none

72
Q

When a patient presents with breathlessness, what questions should be asked?

A

nature of breathlessness:

  • rate and duration of onset
  • variability with activities
  • exacerbating and relieving factors

additional symptoms:

  • cough
  • sputum production
  • ankle swelling
  • orthopnoea
  • weight loss & night sweats

past medical history:

  • childhood illnesses

social history:

  • smoking, occupational and animal exposure

family history:

  • of respiratory and cardiac problems
73
Q

What will a clinical examination of someone with breathlessness focus on?

A
  • chest and cardiovascular examination
  • lymphadenopathy
74
Q

What blood tests should be performed in a case of breathlessness?

A
  • full blood count
  • U&Es
  • LFTs
  • lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
  • ACE level
  • ESR

(chest X ray also performed)

75
Q

What other investigations may be performed in breathlessness?

What is the worst outcome?

A

PET-CT scan is done

this may reveal an abnormal lymph node as a result of Hodgkin lymphoma

76
Q

What is hodgkin lymphoma characterised by?

A

the presence of Hodgkin Reed-Sternberg (HRS) cells

within a cellular infiltrate of non-malignant inflammatory cells

e.g. eosinophils

77
Q

How do HRS cells evade apoptosis?

A

they fail to express surface immunoglobulin and evade apoptosis through several mechanisms

e.g. activation of NFkB, incorporation of EBV and latent membrane proteins (LMP1 and LMP2)

78
Q

How is Hodgkin lymphoma managed?

A

chemotherapy and radiotherapy

the doses / number of courses depends on the stage

79
Q

What is the prognosis of Hodgkin lymphoma like?

What are some of the long term effects of therapy?

A

a high proportion are cured with an 86% 5-year survival

long term effects of therapy:

  • increased mortality still seen at >20 years post therapy
  • pulmonary toxicity
  • cardiovascular disease
  • secondary malignancies
80
Q

What are the general differences between acute and chronic leukaemias?

A

acute:

  • rapid onset
  • dramatic presentation - severe sepsis & bleeding
  • life-threatening without urgent treatment

chronic:

  • insidious onset
  • can be incidental finding in otherwise asymptomatic patients
  • doesn’t always require treatment - “active monitoring”
81
Q

What are the main differences between myeloid and lymphoid leukaemias?

A

myeloid:

  • cells which develop into neutrophils, eosinophils, monocytes & basophils

lymphoid:

  • cells which develop into lymphocytes
82
Q

what is chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)?

A

a malignant disorder of mature B-cells

it is the most common type of leukaemia in the UK

83
Q

What is the presentation of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) like?

A

presentation ranges from:

incidental finding of lymphocytosis to

widespread lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, bone marrow failure & systemic symptoms

84
Q

What system is used to stage chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)?

A

Binet system

this ranges from A to C

85
Q

What are the criteria and median survival of stage A CLL?

A

criteria:

  • Hb > 100 g / L
  • platelets > 100 x 109 / L
  • <3 areas of lymphadenopathy

median survival:

  • > 10 years
86
Q

What are the criteria and median survival of stage B CLL?

A

criteria:

  • Hb > 100g / L
  • platelets > 100 x 109 / L
  • 3 or more areas of lymphadenopathy

median survival:

  • 8 years
87
Q

What are the criteria and median survival for stage C CLL?

A

criteria:

  • Hb < 100 g/L
  • platelets < 100 x 109 / L
  • any number of areas of lymphadenopathy

median survival:

  • 6.5 years
88
Q

What is shown here?

A

a bone marrow biopsy showing extensive infiltration with CLL

89
Q

What is the treatment for CLL?

A

it needs active treatment

this is usually chemo-immunotherapy with Bendamustine and Rituximab

90
Q

What is meant by Richter’s transformation?

A

a rare complication of CLL (<10% of cases)

it is a transformation of CLL into a fast-growing diffuse large B cell lymphoma (DLBCL)

this is a variety of non-Hodgkin lymphoma

91
Q

What is the prognosis like in DLBCL?

A

poor prognosis

median survival is < 9 months even with intensive chemotherapy

92
Q

What are other possible complications of CLL?

A
  • recurrent infections secondary to reduced immunoglobulin production
  • autoimmune phenomenon
    • ITP
    • haemolytic anaemia
    • pure red cell aplasia
    • autoimmune neutropenia
93
Q

In what different types of ways do plasma cell disorders present?

A

plasma cell disorders such as MGUS, myeloma and amyloidosis present in a variety of non-specific ways

  • incidental finding (MGUS)
  • symptoms secondary to hypercalcaemia, anaemia & renal failure
  • bone pains
  • organ infiltration (amyloidosis)
94
Q

What is meant by lymphadenopathy having a wide differential?

A

you must take into account:

  • distribution
  • timing of onset
  • systemic symptoms (or lack of)
  • bloods (can be normal, particularly in lymphomas)
95
Q

What is important to bear in mind when it comes to progression and prognosis of CLL?

A

most patients remain asymptomatic for months to years

additional disease genetic features can influence prognosis

(e.g. 17p deletion)

96
Q

What must be monitored in CLL?

A

a sudden deterioration in symptoms +/- rapidly enlarging lymph node group raises the possibility of transformation to a high-grade lymphoma

97
Q
A

Y2 Clinical Pathology (76 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions