Breast Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of screening?

A

The process of identifying people who appear healthy but may be at an increased risk of a disease or condition

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2
Q

What is the aim of the breast screening programme?

Which women are invited?

A

The aim is to reduce mortality from breast cancer

women aged 50-70 are invited every 3 years

the main tool used is mammography

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3
Q

What is meant by the breast triple assessment?

A
  • Clinical examination
  • radiological examination
  • pathological examination
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4
Q

What is involved in the 3 areas of the breast triple assessment?

A

Clinical:

  • history
  • physical examination

Imaging:

  • ultrasound
  • mammography

pathology:

  • core cut biopsy
  • FNAC (cytology) - used in cystic lesions or when a biopsy is not possible
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5
Q

How is the breast triple assessment graded?

A

A code is given based on the degree of suspicion of the lesion

B1 / B2 - benign

B3 - unsure

B4 / B5 - suspicious of malignancy

the scores from each of the 3 areas need to correlate

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6
Q

What is looked for during a breast screen?

A

A 2 view mammogram is used to look for calcification

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7
Q

What happens if the mammogram comes back as positive?

how is it treated at each stage?

A

Core biopsy is performed

B1 - normal so return to screening (rebiopsy if biopsy from wrong area)

B2 - benign so reassure and return to screening

B3 - uncertain malignant potential - excision

B4 - suspicion of malignancy - rebiopsy or excision

B5 - malignant - surgical excision

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8
Q

What are the subcategories of a B5 malignancy?

A

B5a - DCIS

this is in situ disease

B5b - invasive

this has broken through the basement membrane and become invasive

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9
Q

If someone has a core biopsy which comes back negative, what is done?

A

They are returned to the screening programme

they will be screened again in 3 years

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10
Q

What are the 2 different types of biopsy?

how are they examined?

A

Core needle biopsy is examined at 3 levels

mammotome biopsy is divided into 3 different blocks

each block is examined at 4 levels to try and determine how much calcification is present

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11
Q

Who are the members of the breast MDT?

What is their role?

A
  • Surgeons
  • oncologists
  • radiologists
  • pathologists
  • specialist nursing team
  • research nurses
  • genetic counsellors

a group of experts with a specialist role in diagnosis, treatment and management of patients with breast cancer

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12
Q

What is the glandular parenchyma of the breast like?

A
  • 15 - 20 lobes
  • they are drained by a lactiferous duct
  • all lobes converge towards the areola
  • near the areola, lactiferous duct dilates to form the lactiferous sinus

the areola is surrounded by fatty tissue

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13
Q

What is the structure of the breast ducts like?

A
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14
Q

What are the cells that make up the acini?

A

There is an inner layer of ciliated epithelial cells

there is an outer layer of myoepithelial flattened cells

a lesion becomes an invasive lesion if it passes through the myoepithelial cell boundary

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15
Q

What would a fibrocystic change look like under the microscope and on radiology?

A

Benign breast tissue with apocrine metaplasia and some microcysts, all associated with microcalcifications

on X-ray there are small calcifications but nothing to feel

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16
Q

What is shown in this biopsy?

A

Fibrocystic change

the normal acini are slightly dilated to form microcysts

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17
Q

What is discussed in a multidiscplinary meeting about a fibrocystic change?

A

Ensure the triple diagnosis

there is no further action and they are returned to breast screening

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18
Q

What are the synonyms for fibrocystic changes?

A
  • Fibrous mastopathy
  • mammary dysplasia
  • schimmelnbusch’s disease
  • chronic cystic mastitis
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19
Q

Who tends to be affected by fibrocystic change?

A

Generally affects pre-menopausal women

it is usually bilateral and multifocal

fibrocystic changes in approximately 60% of normal breasts

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20
Q

What increases risk of fibrocystic change?

A

Risk of FCC development is increased in women with hyperoestrogenism

there is no increased risk for subsequent carcinoma development

21
Q

What is fibrocystic disease?

A

A constellation of benign, hormonally mediated breast changes including cyst formation, stromal fibrosis and mild epithelial hyperplasia without atypia

atypia is always classified in the B3 category

22
Q

What are the clinical features of fibrocystic disease?

A

Lumpy, premenstrually painful breasts

23
Q

When may the symptoms stop with fibrocystic disease?

A

FCC symptomatically generally ceases 1-2 years following menopause

24
Q

What would the core biopsy of a fibroadenoma look like?

A

Benign breast tissue with a well defined benign lesion showing proliferation of both epithelial and stromal components

25
Q

What people tend to be affected by fibroadenoma?

What does it present like?

A

It is common and usually in women aged 20-30 years

it is more common in Afro-Caribbean women

it is a mobile, painless, well-defined breast lump

26
Q

Why may a fibroadenoma become painful?

A

It is usually found as an asymptomatic lump

rarely, it may undergo infarction due to a lack of blood supply to a part of the lesion

this produces a sudden onset of pain

27
Q

What does fibroadenoma look like radiologically?

What is the treatment?

A

Well defined homogenous, hypoechoic mass on ultrasound

it is asymptomatic so is usually not treated

in the case of infarction, surgical excision can be performed

some may recur

28
Q

What is the difference between an incident screen and a prevalent screen?

A

A prevalent screen is someone’s first screen

an incident screen is not a first visit and something is picked up later in life

29
Q

What would be seen in a core biopsy of a high grade DCIS (B5a)?

A

A high-grade ductal carcinoma in situ is associated with comedonecrosis and calcifications

the inside epithelial cells have undergone a lot of proliferation

atypical epithelial cells from rounded structures and the ductules have a rounded appearance (cribiform appearance)

30
Q

What is the general treatment for a high-grade ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)?

A

Wide local excision with localisation wire

the surgeon cannot feel the calcification, so a wire is inserted radiologically into the middle of the calcification

the surgeon removes the region around the wire

31
Q

When performing a wide local excision, what 3 things is it important to check?

A
  • Check for orientation sutures
  • measure in 3 dimensions
  • paint the external surface
32
Q

How is the local excision coloured to identify different borders?

A

Red - medial margin

green - lateral margin

black - superior margin

orange - posterior margin

yellow - anterior margin

33
Q

In the case of high grade DCIS, what should be discussed in the 2nd multidisciplinary meeting?

A

The final pathology should be reviewed to confirm high grade DCIS

check for the completeness of excision

no need for markers

34
Q

What is DCIS?

A

Ductal carcinoma in situ

it is a malignant clinal proliferation of cells within breast parenchymal structures

there is no evidence of invasion

35
Q

How is DCIS identified during screening?

What happens if it is not treated?

A

It is most commonly identified as microcalcifications on screening

pure DCIS cannot produce a metastasis

but it is a precursor of invasive carcinoma and has the potential to progress to invasion if left

36
Q

What would a core biopsy for an invasive ductal carcinoma (B5b) look like?

A

For any invasive malignancy in the breast, you look for 3 different markers

These are ER & PR and HER2

the mammogram appears very dense and a palpable lump is present

37
Q

What is shown here?

A

Invasive breast carcinoma

cannot see the ductules

can only see malignant appearing cells trying to invade the desmoplastic looking stroma

these are high grade tumour cells

38
Q

What 3 categories are used to grade invasive cancers?

A
  1. Tubule formation
  2. Pleomorphism score
  3. Mitotic score (how many mitoses are seen)

Each category is scored out of 3

Grade 1 is a score of 4-5

Grade 2 is a score of 6-7

Grade 3 is a score of 8-9

39
Q

What are the risk factors for invasive breast carcinoma?

(breast cancer)

A

Breast cancer is linked to oestrogens and increased with:

  • early menarche
  • late menopause
  • obesity in postmenopausal women
  • oral contraceptive pills
  • hormonal therapy for menopause
  • alcohol
40
Q

What type of staining is showed here?

How is it scored?

A

Orange score

ER and PR are nucleus based receptors (nucleus picks up the stain)

the score is based on the intensity of the staining and the proportion of nuclei that take up the stain

41
Q

What is shown here?

A

HER-2 staining which is a membranous stain

the membranes of the cells look darker

for a sample to be herceptin positive, a minimum of 10% of the sample needs to look like this

42
Q

What is discussed in the second multidisciplinary meeting for invasive breast carcinoma?

A

If the tumour is less than 10mm, it is localised with a wire and taken out for excision

as it is an invasive cancer, a sentinel node biopsy is also performed

the sentinel node is the first node that drains the tumour

43
Q

What would be discussed in third multidisciplinary meeting for invasive breast carcinoma?

A

The margins are clear but lymph nodes may be involved

an axillary clearance is performed followed by chemotherapy and radiotherapy

44
Q

What should a path report tell you about malignancy?

A
  • In situ or invasive
  • type - ductal / lobular
  • grade
  • size
  • vascular invasion
  • nodal status
  • relationship to margins
  • molecular marker status - ER, PR, HER2
45
Q

How can vascular invasion be identified?

A

There are collections of cells sitting in spaces lined by endothelial cells

endothelial markers (CD31 and CD34) may be present

46
Q

How do you know if you have removed enough tumour?

A

Measure the distance from the margin

if the distance is less than 1mm then a second surgery is performed

47
Q

What are the 3 key prognostic factors in invasive breast carcinoma?

A
  1. Tumour grade
  2. Tumour size
  3. Nodal status

all 3 are used to calculate the Nottingham prognostic index

48
Q

What is the calculation for Nottingham prognostic index?

What do the scores represent?

A

Grade + nodal status + (0.2 x tumour size)

no nodes score 1, 1-3 nodes score 2, 4 or more nodes score 3

  1. 4 or less - good 80% + 16 year survival
  2. 41 - 5.4 - moderate 46%
  3. 41 + - poor 10%
49
Q

What are the hormonally targeted therapies used in breast cancer?

A

ER and PR positive:

  • tamoxifen
  • aromatase inhibitors
  • bisphosponates

HER-2 targeted approach:

  • trastuzumab