Lymphoid system Flashcards

1
Q

what causes splenic congestion

A

barbiturates euthanasia
anthrax
torsion/gdv
circulatory failure
IMHA - vessels blocked with dead RBCs

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2
Q

Splenic nodules

A

Haematoma
hyperplasia
abscess
lymphoid reticular hyperplasia
senile nodular hyperplasia - common incidental change in older dogs, can be caused by incomplete splenic contraction (wrinkley)
capsule/peritonitis
neoplasia

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3
Q

thymus response to injury

A

lymphoid atrophy/depletion
inflammation
haemorrhage/haematomas
neoplasia
cysts
hypoplasia
atrophy
depletion

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4
Q

what is SCID

A

severe combined immunodeficiency
failed production of lymphocytes - splenic/thymic hypoplasia
dogs/horses and mice affected

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5
Q

mechanisms that cause SCID

A

autosomal recessive defect causing inhibition of DNA-dependent protein kinase
X-linked defect in type 1 cytokine receptors

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6
Q

what effect do splenic surface indentations have

A

none - born with them

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7
Q

what cells/tissues are lymphoid

A

Cells - lymphocytes
Tissues - lymph nodes, thymus, spleen, peyer’s patches

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8
Q

what cells/tissue are myeloid

A

cells - granulocytes, monocytes, macrophages, erythrocytes, thrombocytes
tissue - bone marrow

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9
Q

when may a stress leukogram not occur in a sick patient

A

hypoadrenocorticism (Addisonian crisis)

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10
Q

non-neoplastic lymphadenopathy

A

pathophysiology - reactive hyperplasia LN enlarges, usually localised . Lymphadenitis - infection/inflammation of the lymph node

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11
Q

chylothorax/abdomen cause

A

lipids transported via lymphatics, effusions may result for rupture of duct/major vessel
both are rare
treatment involves surgical repair

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12
Q

Lymphangiectasia - lacteal dilation

A

intestinal lymphatics dilate and lose chyle into the lumen causing a protein losing enteropathy
can be congenital, obstructive in cause
management includes low fat diet
lymphopaenia present on haematology
hyperechoic lacteals on ultrasound

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13
Q

examples of non-neoplastic myeloid disease

A

aplastic anaemia - failure of myeloid cell production
red cell aplasia

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14
Q

myeloid neoplasia

A

myeloid leukaemia - acute with immature cells or chronic with differentiated cells

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15
Q

classic presentation for histiocytoma

A

young dogs <2 years
classically benign and regress over several weeks

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16
Q

mast cell tumours

A

form of granulocyte appearing as reactive lymph nodes.
Usually older dogs and common
cytology very good for diagnosis
locally invasive
histamine release can invoke anaphylaxis - anti-histamines

17
Q

approach to mast cell tumours

A

staging (or not)
surgery
chemotherapy
if non-resectable Tyrosine kinase inhibitors, mastinib, tigilanol tiglate

18
Q

feline MCT

A

cutaneous can act benign
visceral have poorer prognoses
association between mitotic rate and survival

19
Q

transmissible venereal tumoour

A

infectious
imported on dogs
can respond to chemotherapy

20
Q

lymphoid neoplasia

A

lymphoid leukaemia - t/b/natural killer cell and acute/chronic
lymphoma - b/t cell. B = better prognosis

21
Q

what is the difference betweeen immunocompromised, immunosuppressed and immunodeficient

A

immunocompromised - any aspect of host defences is deficient
immunosuppressed - immune defences are specifically impaired
immunodeficient - body’s immune system is compromised or absent

22
Q

what does lytic mean

A

goes into cells and destroys them

23
Q

what does oncogenic mean

A

transforms into tumourous cells

24
Q

how does a virus enter a cell

A

utilises natural receptors on the cell surface and are endocytosed
can enter through direct injection or with fusion of the envelope

25
Q

canine distemper virus

A

morbillivirus related to measles, RNA enveloped has to be transcribed - can have mistakes, easily killed with disinfectants
causes lymphocyte destruction
oro-nasal infection replicating in lymphoid tissue, looks like a cold with thick crusty snot initially.

26
Q

canine parvovirus/feline panleukopenia

A

non-enveloped DNA
causes V+/D+
e.coli continues GI infection
destroys WBC precursors in bone marrow and damages mucosal barrier

27
Q

FeLV

A

retrovirus - RNA virus
4 subtypes - A, B, C, T
transmitted through grooming - saliva, increased risk when being groomed by mum with population density and poor hygiene
shed in saliva, respiratory secretions, urine, milk and faeces
detection in virus PCR - antigen wont show for 30 days

28
Q

FIV

A

viral RNA/proviral DNA
kittens born to + queen can have anti-bodies to 12 weeks
infected for life but have normal lifespan, recurrent infections, gingivitis, neoplasia
Debates as to who to test

29
Q

positive predictive value

A

likelihood of having disease when testing positive

30
Q

what are howell-jolly bodies

A

nuclear remnants not removed properly as the RBC left the bone marrow

31
Q

what is anisocytosis

A

RBCs of different sizes due to differing ages

32
Q

what is evans syndrome

A

combined IMHA and IMTP

33
Q

what drug can be used as an anti-thrombotic?

A

aspirin

34
Q

differentials for neutropaenia

A

Increased demand - most common
- migration to tissue for inflammation
- shift from circulating to marginating pool
Increased demand
- immune mediated neutropaenia
- drugs/toxins/viruses
Decreased production
- viral disease
- drugs/toxins
- bone marrow disease
- inherited defects
Unknown mechanisms - least common
- feline idiopathic neutropaenia
- breed associated

35
Q

when is a pyrexia a PUO

A

pyrexia lasting upwards of 72h