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Anatomy and Physiology 2 > Lymphatic System > Flashcards

Lymphatic System Flashcards

1
Q

Small secondary lymphoid organs, which cluster along lymphatic vessels, are termed ________.

Select one:

a. lymph follicles
b. lymph nodes
c. lacteals
d. lymphatics

A

b. lymph nodes

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2
Q

Which of the following correctly describes the pathway of lymph?

Select one:

a. lymphatic ducts to lymphatic trunks to lymphatic vessels to lymphatic capillaries
b. lymphatic ducts to lymphatic capillaries to lymphatic vessels to lymphatic trunks
c. lymphatic capillaries to lymphatic vessels to lymphatic trunks to lymphatic ducts
d. lymphatic vessels to lymphatic trunks to lymphatic ducts to lymphatic capillaries

A

c. lymphatic capillaries to lymphatic vessels to lymphatic trunks to lymphatic ducts

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3
Q

The thymus is most active during ________.

Select one:

a. fetal development
b. childhood
c. middle age
d. old age

A

b. childhood

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4
Q

Lymph traveling from the left arm would enter the venous circulation via the _______.

Select one:

a. thoracic duct
b. right lymphatic duct
c. cisterna chili
d. axillary nodes

A

a. thoracic duct

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5
Q 
The lymphatic capillaries are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Select one:
a. more permeable than blood capillaries 
b. less permeable than blood capillaries
c. as permeable as blood capillaries
d. completely impermeable
A

a. more permeable than blood capillaries

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6
Q

Antibodies that act against a particular foreign substance are released by ________.

Select one:

a. T lymphocytes
b. plasma cells
c. lymph nodes
d. medullary cords

A

b. plasma cells

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7
Q

Lymph leaves a lymph node via ________.

Select one:

a. efferent lymphatic vessels
b. afferent lymphatic vessels
c. the cortical sinus
d. the subcapsular sinus

A

a. efferent lymphatic vessels

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8
Q

When the lymphatic structures of a limb are blocked due to tumors, the result is ________.

Select one:

a. shrinkage of tissues distal in the limb to the blockage due to inadequate delivery of lymph
b. severe localized edema distal to the blockage of that limb
c. increased pressure in the lymphatics proximal in the limb to the blockage
d. abnormally high lymph drainage from the distal region

A

b. severe localized edema distal to the blockage of that limb

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9
Q

Select the correct statement about lymph transport.

Select one:

a. Under normal conditions, lymph vessels are very high-pressure conduits.
b. Lymph transport is faster than that occurring in veins.
c. Lymph transport is only necessary when illness causes tissue swelling.
d. Lymph transport depends on the movement of adjacent tissues, such as skeletal muscles.

A

d. Lymph transport depends on the movement of adjacent tissues, such as skeletal muscles.

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10
Q

Lymphoid tissue that appears as a swelling of the mucosa in the oral cavity is called a(n) ________.

Select one:

a. tonsil
b. thymus
c. Peyer’s patch
d. appendix

A

a. tonsil

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11
Q

Peyer’s patches are found in the distal portion of the ________.

Select one:

a. esophagus
b. small intestine
c. large intestine
d. stomach

A

b. small intestine

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12
Q

Lymphatic capillaries are present in ________.

Select one:

a. bones and teeth
b. CNS
c. digestive organs
d. zona pellucida

A

c. digestive organs

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13
Q 
What is a bubo?
Select one:
a. a wall in a lymph node
b. a lobe of the spleen
c. an infected Peyer's patch
d. an infected lymph node
A

d. an infected lymph node

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14
Q

The tonsils located at the base of the tongue are the ________.

Select one:

a. lingual tonsils
b. palatine tonsils
c. pharyngeal tonsils
d. Peyer’s tonsils

A

a. lingual tonsils

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15
Q

Which lymphoid organs and tissues are characterized by a cortex and medulla?

Select one:

a. lymph nodes and thymus only
b. lymph nodes, thymus and spleen only
c. lymph nodes, spleen, and mucosa-associated lymphoid tissues (MALT) only
d. spleen and thymus only

A

a. lymph nodes and thymus only

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16
Q

Which lymphoid organ atrophies as we age?

Select one:

a. tonsils
b. appendix
c. spleen
d. thymus

A

d. thymus

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17
Q

The blood testis barrier is to newly formed sperm cells as the blood thymus barrier is to ________.

Select one:

a. T lymphocyte precursors
b. mast cells
c. plasma cells
d. white pulp

A

a. T lymphocyte precursors

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18
Q

Flow of lymph through a lymph node is slowed due to ________.

Select one:

a. the viscous nature of lymph
b. fewer efferent vessels draining it compared to many afferent vessels feeding it
c. the presence of lymphocytes and macrophages
d. mini-valves

A

b. fewer efferent vessels draining it compared to many afferent vessels feeding it

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19
Q

Tonsils have blind-ended structures called ________ that trap bacteria and particulate matter.

Select one:

a. tonsillar crypts
b. germinal centers
c. lymphoid follicles
d. tonsillar corpuscles

A

a. tonsillar crypts

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20
Q

From the right leg, lymph moves in which order?

Select one:

a. right lumbar trunk, right lymphatic duct, right subclavian vein
b. right lumbar trunk, thoracic duct, left subclavian vein
c. right lumbar trunk, right lymphatic duct, left subclavian vein
d. right lumbar trunk, thoracic duct, right subclavian vein

A

b. right lumbar trunk, thoracic duct, left subclavian vein

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21
Q

Although B and T lymphocytes originate in the bone marrow, T cells mature in the ________.

Select one:

a. spleen
b. thymus
c. tonsils
d. appendix

A

b. thymus

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22
Q

Lymphatic ________ are formed from the union of the largest collecting lymphatic vessels.

Select one:

a. capillaries
b. nodes
c. trunks
d. ducts

A

c. trunks

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23
Q

Fats absorbed from the small intestine are transported to the bloodstream via ________.

Select one:

a. Peyer’s patches
b. lacteals
c. lymph nodes
d. tonsils

A

b. lacteals

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24
Q

Which lymphoid organ or tissue lacks a reticular fiber stroma?

Select one:

a. lymph nodes
b. spleen
c. mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)
d. thymus

A

d. thymus

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25
Q

An advantage to adaptive immunity is ________.

Select one:

a. its memory cells that provide quicker, larger and more efficient immune response upon second and subsequent exposure to an antigen
b. its need for several cells to be activated over several days on first exposure
c. the ability of its individual cells to respond to many different pathogens
d. the use of antibodies that cause cell lysis and kill invading cells

A

a. its memory cells that provide quicker, larger and more efficient immune response upon second and subsequent exposure to an antigen

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26
Q

A cellular component of the innate defenses includes ________.

Select one:

a. natural killer cells
b. T cells
c. B cells
d. plasma cells

A

a. natural killer cells

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27
Q

T cells are differentiated into two groups based on their glycoproteins: CD4 or CD8. Which of the following is true of CD4 T cells?

Select one:

a. They become cytotoxic T cells.
b. They become antigen presenting cells (APC) cells.
c. They become T helper cells.
d. They become plasma cells.

A

c. They become T helper cells.

28
Q

Which of the following examples below describes an autoimmune disease?

Select one:

a. Infection and death of T helper cells by a virus, resulting in a loss of adaptive immunity.
b. Release of bacterial endotoxins that block acetylcholine release result in muscle paralysis.
c. Antibody binding to acetylcholine receptors of the motor end plate resulting in muscle weakness.
d. Uncontrolled cell division resulting in cell surface abnormalities recognized by NK cells.

A

c. Antibody binding to acetylcholine receptors of the motor end plate resulting in muscle weakness.

29
Q

A vaccine is effective because ________.

Select one:

a. the vaccine contains the antibodies necessary to fight infection
b. the vaccine contains the lymphocytes necessary to fight infection
c. the secondary response of the adaptive immunity is faster and more efficient than the primary response
d. B-lymphocytes are unable to mount an immune response the first time they are exposed to a new pathogen

A

c. the secondary response of the adaptive immunity is faster and more efficient than the primary response

30
Q

A flu vaccine is needed seasonally to be effective but a polio vaccine is only needed once. The best explanation of this is ________.

Select one:

a. the flu vaccine is substantially weaker than the polio vaccine
b. the polio virus is substantially weaker than the flu virus
c. exposure to flu vaccine produces no memory cells from proliferating B-lymphocytes
d. the flu has several strains that change seasonally

A

d. the flu has several strains that change seasonally

31
Q

Vaccines work by ________.

Select one:

a. boosting innate immunity with cytokines
b. priming the adaptive immunity with a relatively harmless primary exposure
c. providing the necessary antibodies to fight infections
d. suppressing inflation to help speed healing

A

b. priming the adaptive immunity with a relatively harmless primary exposure

32
Q

Inflammation ________.

Select one:

a. is caused by bacterial activity to enhance the spread of disease
b. is caused by viral activity to enhance the spread of the disease
c. slows the healing process with swelling that can impair bodily function
d. brings more leukocytes to the sight of infection

A

d. brings more leukocytes to the sight of infection

33
Q

Membrane attack complex (MAC) kills by ________.

Select one:

a. disrupting the selectively permeability of a bacteria’s plasma membrane
b. providing a passage for antibodies to enter into the bacterial cytosol
c. allowing the organelles to spill free from the bacteria
d. penetrating the capsule of the bacteria giving antibiotic drugs access to bacterial cells

A

a. disrupting the selectively permeability of a bacteria’s plasma membrane

34
Q

Which of the following is true of antigens?

Select one:

a. Antigens are substances that activate the adaptive immune response.
b. Antigens are typically composed of nucleotides.
c. Antigens are produced by the body in response to a foreign invader.
d. Antigens are limited to one antigenic determinant per antigen molecule.

A

a. Antigens are substances that activate the adaptive immune response.

35
Q

Which of the following is true of incomplete antigens (haptens)?
Select one:
a. Incomplete antigens are nonreactive.
b. Incomplete antigens include pollen grains, microorganisms, and viruses.
c. Incomplete antigens are only immunogenic when attached to protein carriers.
d. Incomplete antigens are typically large macromolecules such as proteins.

A

c. Incomplete antigens are only immunogenic when attached to protein carriers.

36
Q

Allergens differ from antigens because ________.

Select one:

a. allergens produce an abnormally large immune response to what is an otherwise harmless particle
b. allergens do not involve the leucocytes, they simply stimulate the inflammatory response
c. allergens are only active seasonally and are generally harmless to the body
d. allergens are primarily plant derived while antigens are bacterial or viral in nature

A

a. allergens produce an abnormally large immune response to what is an otherwise harmless particle

37
Q

Without the positive selection process in lymphocyte maturation ________.

Select one:

a. T cells would not be able to properly bind to APC’s and therefore not be activated by them
b. monocytes would not be able to migrate into infected tissue and differentiate into macrophages
c. NK cells would be non-functional
d. autoimmune diseases would be likely to result

A

a. T cells would not be able to properly bind to APC’s and therefore not be activated by them

38
Q

Lymphocyte “education” refers to ensuring that T cells _______.

Select one:

a. that do not recognize self-antigens displayed on self-MHC proteins undergo apoptosis
b. that do not recognize self-MHC proteins undergo apoptosis
c. that contain MHC receptors undergo apoptosis
d. that demonstrate immunological self-tolerance undergo apoptosis

A

b. that do not recognize self-MHC proteins undergo apoptosis

39
Q

Plasma cells ________.

Select one:

a. have a great deal of rough endoplasmic reticulum reflecting the fact that they secrete a tremendous amount of protein (antibody)
b. are large so that they can envelope their prey by phagocytosis
c. are small so that they slip between endothelial cells of capillaries to fight infection in the surrounding tissues
d. have a great deal of rough endoplasmic reticulum to dispose of ingested pathogens

A

a. have a great deal of rough endoplasmic reticulum reflecting the fact that they secrete a tremendous amount of protein (antibody)

40
Q

Which of the following is associated with passive immunity?

Select one:

a. exposure to an antigen
b. infusion of weakened viruses
c. passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus
d. booster shot of vaccine

A

c. passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus

41
Q

B lymphocytes develop immunocompetence in the ________.

Select one:

a. thymus
b. spleen
c. bone marrow
d. lymph nodes

A

c. bone marrow

42
Q

The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by ________.

Select one:

a. vasodilation
b. vasoconstriction
c. phagocyte mobilization
d. complement production

A

a. vasodilation

43
Q

In clonal selection of B cells, which substance is responsible for determining which cells will eventually become cloned?

Select one:

a. antigen
b. interferon
c. antibody
d. complement

A

a. antigen

44
Q

Small molecules that bind with self-proteins to produce antigenic substances are called ________.

Select one:

a. haptens
b. antibodies
c. ions
d. reagins

A

a. haptens

45
Q

Interferons ________.

Select one:

a. are virus-specific, so that an interferon produced against one virus could not protect cells against another virus
b. act by increasing the rate of cell division
c. interfere with viral replication within cells
d. are routinely used in nasal sprays for the common cold

A

c. interfere with viral replication within cells

46
Q

Regulatory T cells ________.

Select one:

a. release cytokines that increase the activity of cytotoxic T cells and activated B cells
b. decrease their activity as antigenic stimulus decreases
c. may function in preventing autoimmune reactions
d. aid B cells in antibody production

A

c. may function in preventing autoimmune reactions

47
Q

Activated T cells and macrophages release ________ to mobilize immune cells and attract other leukocytes into the area.

Select one:

a. cytokines
b. perforins
c. interleukin 1 proteins
d. interleukin 2 proteins

A

a. cytokines

48
Q

Which of the following would be a component of the body’s first line of defense?

Select one:

a. phagocytes
b. inflammation
c. mucous membranes
d. natural killer cells

A

c. mucous membranes

49
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of complete antigens?

Select one:

a. small molecules
b. reactivity with an antibody
c. contain many repeating chemical units
d. inhibit production of antibodies

A

b. reactivity with an antibody

50
Q

B cells respond to the initial antigen challenge by ________.

Select one:

a. reducing its size
b. immediately producing antigen-specific antibodies
c. forming a large number of cytotoxic cells
d. producing progeny cells that include plasma cells and memory cells

A

d. producing progeny cells that include plasma cells and memory cells

51
Q

T-cell activation requires ________.

Select one:

a. antigen binding and co-stimulation
b. antigen binding and antibody production
c. antibody production and co-stimulation
d. antigen binding, antibody production, and co-stimulation

A

a. antigen binding and co-stimulation

52
Q

Cancer cells and virus-infected body cells can be killed before activation of adaptive immunity by ________.

Select one:

a. natural killer cells
b. T-lymphocytes
c. B-lymphocytes
d. pinocytosis

A

a. natural killer cells

53
Q

Complement proteins and antibodies coat a microorganism and provide binding sites, enabling macrophages and neutrophils to phagocytize the organism. This phenomenon is termed ________.

Select one:

a. diapedesis
b. agglutination
c. opsonization
d. chemotaxis

A

c. opsonization

54
Q

Innate immune system defenses include ________.

Select one:

a. B cells
b. T cells
c. plasma cells
d. phagocytosis

A

d. phagocytosis

55
Q

Phagocyte mobilization involves ________.

Select one:

a. diapedesis, during which cells line up against the capillary wall
b. mainly neutrophil and macrophage migration into inflamed areas
c. margination, which is the process of white cell movement through the walls of capillaries into injured tissues
d. monocytes as the most active phagocyte

A

b. mainly neutrophil and macrophage migration into inflamed areas

56
Q

Fever ________.

Select one:

a. is a higher-than-normal body temperature that is always dangerous
b. decreases the metabolic rate of the body to conserve energy
c. production is regulated by chemicals that reset the body’s thermostat to a higher setting
d. causes the liver to release large amounts of iron, which seems to inhibit bacterial replication

A

c. production is regulated by chemicals that reset the body’s thermostat to a higher setting

57
Q

Immunocompetence ___________.

Select one:

a. occurs in one specific organ of the adaptive immune system
b. is the ability of individual cells to recognize a specific antigen by binding to it
c. prevents intercellular communication so that only specific cell types respond to the invader
d. requires exposure to an antigen

A

b. is the ability of individual cells to recognize a specific antigen by binding to it

58
Q

Select the correct statement about active and passive immunity.

Select one:

a. Immunological memory is established by passive immunization.
b. A vaccination is an example of the introduction of passive immunity into the body.
c. The antibodies utilized in active immunity are acquired from another organism.
d. Active and passive humoral immunity are both mechanisms of adaptive immunity that use antibodies.

A

d. Active and passive humoral immunity are both mechanisms of adaptive immunity that use antibodies.

59
Q

T helper cells ________.

Select one:

a. bind tightly to target cells and release a lymphotoxin called perforin
b. often function to decrease the immune response
c. release B7 proteins
d. function in the adaptive immune system activation

A

d. function in the adaptive immune system activation

60
Q

Natural killer (NK) cells ________.

Select one:

a. are also called cytotoxic T cells
b. are a type of phagocyte
c. are cells of the adaptive immune system
d. can kill cancer cells before the immune system is activated

A

d. can kill cancer cells before the immune system is activated

61
Q

Select the correct statement about antigens.

Select one:

a. “Self-antigens” is another name for incomplete antigens.
b. The largest type of antigen is called a hapten.
c. Only small antigens exhibit reactivity.
d. One antigen may have many different antigenic determinants and may therefore cause the formation of more than one antibody.

A

d. One antigen may have many different antigenic determinants and may therefore cause the formation of more than one antibody.

62
Q

Clonal selection of B cells ________.

Select one:

a. occurs during fetal development
b. results in the formation of plasma cells
c. cannot occur in the presence of antigens
d. only occurs in the secondary immune response

A

b. results in the formation of plasma cells

63
Q

The primary immune response ________.

Select one:

a. occurs more rapidly and is stronger than the secondary response
b. occurs when memory cells are stimulated
c. is another name for immunological memory
d. has a lag period while B cells proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells

A

d. has a lag period while B cells proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells

64
Q

Tissue rejection after an organ transplant is least likely due to the action of _________.

Select one:

a. natural killer cells
b. cytotoxic T cells
c. macrophages
d. regulatory T cells

A

d. regulatory T cells

65
Q

Which of the following is activated by the binding of proteins to sugars on the surface of microorganisms?

Select one:

a. classical pathway
b. alternative pathway
c. lectin pathway
d. lactate pathway

A

c. lectin pathway

66
Q

Which statement is true about T cells?

Select one:

a. They usually directly recognize antigens, which then activates a subpopulation of killer cells.
b. Their proliferation is enhanced by interleukins 1 and 2.
c. Once activated, they cannot secrete cytokines.
d. They will develop into cytotoxic T cells if antigen is complexed with class II MHC proteins.

A

b. Their proliferation is enhanced by interleukins 1 and 2.

Anatomy and Physiology 2 (8 decks)

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