Reproductive System

Question 1

Which of the following statements is true of metaphase I of meiosis I?

Select one:

a. Tetrads align randomly on the spindle equator with all the maternal homologs on one side and all the paternal homologs on the opposite side.
b. Joined homologous pair uniformly line up on the equatorial spindle with chromosome one at the top and chromosome 23 on the bottom.
c. The sister chromatids line up randomly on the spindle equator with some maternal and paternal chromatids on both sides of the equator.
d. Homologous pairs align randomly on the spindle equator with a mix of paternal and maternal homologs destined for each of the daughter cells.

Answer 1

d. Homologous pairs align randomly on the spindle equator with a mix of paternal and maternal homologs destined for each of the daughter cells.

Question 2

Select the statement which is true regarding independent assortment.

Select one:

a. Its effects are significant in meiosis and in mitosis.
b. It is a significant source of genetic variation that occurs in meiosis I and meiosis II.
c. It only occurs in meiosis II.
d. It is a significant source of genetic variation only during meiosis I.

Answer 2

d. It is a significant source of genetic variation only during meiosis I.

Question 3

All but one of the following statements are true regarding the differences between early and late spermatids. Select the answer below that does not reflect a difference between early and late spermatids.

Select one:

a. Early spermatids have not undergone spermiogenesis.
b. Early spermatids have not undergone meiosis and are still diploid.
c. Early spermatids have not formed flagella.
d. Early spermatids are round and have excessive cytoplasm.

Answer 3

b. Early spermatids have not undergone meiosis and are still diploid.

Question 4

During spermiogenesis ________.

Select one:

a. the acrosome migrates towards the anterior end of the spermatid because its hydrolytic enzymes will be needed for penetration when the sperm contacts the egg during fertilization
b. the acrosome migrates towards the posterior end of the spermatid because its hydrolytic enzymes will be needed for digestion of the excessive cytoplasm around the flagella of the developing sperm
c. the acrosome migrates towards the anterior end of the spermatid because its pointy shape helps the sperm to move more efficiently
d. the acrosome migrates towards the posterior end of the spermatid because of its ability to propel the flagella moving the sperm through the female reproductive system towards the egg

Answer 4

a. the acrosome migrates towards the anterior end of the spermatid because its hydrolytic enzymes will be needed for penetration when the sperm contacts the egg during fertilization

Question 5

All but one of the events described below occur during spermiogenesis. Select the event that does not occur during spermiogenesis.

Select one:

a. Mitochondria form around the proximal end of the flagellum. They will provide the ATP to drive the motion of the flagellum.
b. Excessive cytoplasm will be shed to reduce unneeded mass of the maturing sperm.
c. The centrioles migrate to the posterior end of the developing sperm to form the microtubules that make up the flagellum.
d. Mitochondrial DNA is packaged into the nucleus to be delivered to the egg during fertilization.

Answer 5

d. Mitochondrial DNA is packaged into the nucleus to be delivered to the egg during fertilization.

Question 6

All but one of the following statements is true with regard to the blood testis barrier. Select the one statement that is false.

Select one:

a. The cells that form the blood testis barrier are joined by tight junctions.
b. The barrier prevents the spermatocytes from exposing their unique antigens to the immune system.
c. The barrier marks the border between the basal compartment and the adluminal compartment.
d. The barrier is made up of astrocytes that surround blood vessels in the testis.

Answer 6

d. The barrier is made up of astrocytes that surround blood vessels in the testis.

Question 7

Of the following statements, select the statement that is not true of uterine function.

Select one:

a. The myometrium contracts to expel the fetus during childbirth.
b. The endometrium has a functional layer that the embryo will implant into.
c. The rhythmic, reverse peristalsis of the uterus can propel sperm toward the egg.
d. The narrow portion of the uterus near the cervix is the most typical site of fertilization.

Answer 7

d. The narrow portion of the uterus near the cervix is the most typical site of fertilization.

Question 8

The oral contraceptive pill, informally called “the pill,” contains an estrogen and progesterone, or a synthetic mimic of this hormone. The combination of these two hormones, taken in the pill and circulating in the blood, works because ________.

Select one:

a. the hormones create an acid condition in the vagina that acts as a spermicide
b. the hormones cause the woman’s body to mimic the activities of a pregnancy and disrupt the ovarian cycle, preventing ovulation
c. the hormones prevent the proliferative or secretory phase of the menstrual cycle and the embryo will have no place to implant
d. the hormones cause a thickening of the mucus plug at the cervix that prevents sperm from penetrating the womb and reaching the ovulated egg

Answer 8

b. the hormones cause the woman’s body to mimic the activities of a pregnancy and disrupt the ovarian cycle, preventing ovulation

Question 9

The diploid number of chromosomes in a human is 46. Therefore, the number of chromosomes in a primary spermatocyte or primary oocyte is ________.

Select one:

a. 23
b. 46
c. 92
d. 38

Answer 9

b. 46

Question 10

The dartos and cremaster muscles are important to the integrity of the male reproductive system. Which of the following best describes the role they play?

Select one:

a. They contract to push sperm along the ductus deferens.
b. They regulate the temperature of the testes.
c. They are responsible for penile erection.
d. They contract to allow ejaculation.

Answer 10

b. They regulate the temperature of the testes.

Question 11

The ability of sperm cells to move along the ductus deferens is due to ________.

Select one:

a. gravity
b. peristaltic contractions
c. enzymatic activity
d. hormonal action

Answer 11

b. peristaltic contractions

Question 12

The most important risk for testicular cancer in young males is ________.

Select one:

a. smoking
b. a diet high in fat
c. failure of the testis to make their normal descent
d. sexually transmitted infections

Answer 12

c. failure of the testis to make their normal descent

Question 13

Which of the following glands are responsible for producing 70% of semen volume?

Select one:

a. the seminal vesicles
b. the bulbourethral glands
c. the prostate
d. the pituitary

Answer 13

a. the seminal vesicles

Question 14

Which of the following hormones controls the release of anterior pituitary gonadotropins?

Select one:

a. LH
b. FSH
c. GnRH
d. testosterone

Answer 14

c. GnRH

Question 15

The critical factor that determines gender during development is ________.

Select one:

a. presence of progesterone
b. inhibition of estrogen
c. the SRY gene
d. lack of an X chromosome

Answer 15

c. the SRY gene

Question 16

The structures that receive the ovulated oocyte, providing a site for fertilization, are called the ________.

Select one:

a. Graafian follicles
b. uterine tubes
c. infundibula
d. fimbriae

Answer 16

b. uterine tubes

Question 17

If gametes were diploid like somatic cells, how many chromosomes would the zygote contain?

Select one:

a. Twice the diploid number, and with every succeeding generation, the chromosome number would continue to double and normal development could not occur.
b. Triple the diploid number, and with every succeeding generation, the chromosome number would continue to triple and normal development would not occur.
c. Half the diploid number with no change in development.
d. There is no relationship between gametes and somatic cells.

Answer 17

a. Twice the diploid number, and with every succeeding generation, the chromosome number would continue to double and normal development could not occur.

Question 18

If gametes were diploid like somatic cells, how many chromosomes would the zygote contain?
Select one:
a. Twice the diploid number, and with every succeeding generation, the chromosome number would continue to double and normal development could not occur.
b.
Triple the diploid number, and with every succeeding generation, the chromosome number would continue to triple and normal development would not occur.
c.
Half the diploid number with no change in development.
d.
There is no relationship between gametes and somatic cells.

Answer 18

a. Twice the diploid number, and with every succeeding generation, the chromosome number would continue to double and normal development could not occur.

Question 19

Human egg and sperm are similar in that ________.

Select one:

a. about the same number of each is produced per month
b. they have the same degree of motility
c. they have the same number of chromosomes
d. they are about the same size

Answer 19

c. they have the same number of chromosomes

Question 20

The constancy of the chromosome number from one cell generation to the next is maintained through ________.

Select one:

a. mitosis
b. meiosis
c. cytokinesis
d. DNA synthesis

Answer 20

b. meiosis

Question 21

Which of the following female structures is homologous to the male scrotum?

Select one:

a. labia majora
b. labia minora
c. clitoris
d. vagina

Answer 21

a. labia majora

Question 22

In humans, separation of the cells at the two-cell state following fertilization may lead to the production of twins, which in this case would be ________.

Select one:

a. dizygotic
b. genetically identical
c. fraternal
d. potentially of different sexes

Answer 22

b. genetically identical

Question 23

Which of the following is incurable?

Select one:

a. gonorrhea
b. genital herpes
c. trichomoniasis
d. syphilis

Answer 23

b. genital herpes

Question 24

Effects of estrogen include ________.

Select one:

a. increased oiliness of the skin
b. deepening of the voice
c. growth of the breasts at puberty
d. growth of the larynx

Answer 24

c. growth of the breasts at puberty

Question 25

Secretion of progesterone stimulates ________.

Select one:

a. contraction of uterine muscles
b. preparation of the mammary glands for lactation
c. proliferation of the uterine myometrium
d. development of the female secondary sex characteristics

Answer 25

b. preparation of the mammary glands for lactation

Question 26

The cells that produce testosterone in the testis are called ________.

Select one:

a. spermatocytes
b. spermatogonia
c. sustentacular cells
d. interstitial endocrine cells

Answer 26

d. interstitial endocrine cells

Question 27

If a woman has just ended her menstrual phase, when is she most likely to ovulate?

Select one:

a. within the next 4 days
b. in about 10 days
c. in about 14 days
d. in about 24 days

Answer 27

c. in about 14 days

Question 28

Erection of the penis results from ________.

Select one:

a. a sympathetic activation of bulbospongiosus muscles
b. parasympathetic activation of the bulbourethral glands
c. dilation of the veins in the penis
d. a parasympathetic reflex that promotes release of nitric oxide

Answer 28

d. a parasympathetic reflex that promotes release of nitric oxide

Question 29

Which is not a part of the proliferative phase of the female menstrual cycle?

Select one:

a. late in this phase, cervical mucus becomes thin and crystalline
b. vesicular follicle growth
c. corpus luteum secretion
d. development of endometrial cells

Answer 29

c. corpus luteum secretion

Question 30

Which of the following is true of testosterone?

Select one:

a. Testosterone provides positive feedback on gonadotropin release.
b. Testosterone is produced by interstitial endocrine cells.
c. The production of testosterone is stimulated by FSH.
d. The release of testosterone surges during ejaculation.

Answer 30

b. Testosterone is produced by interstitial endocrine cells.

Question 31

Which of the choices below is not a function of testosterone?

Select one:

a. stimulates the male pattern of development
b. contributes to male sexual behavior and spermatogenesis
c. stimulates protein synthesis
d. stimulates the HPG axis

Answer 31

d. stimulates the HPG axis

Question 32

Which male hormone provides negative feedback for the secretion of FSH?

Select one:

a. ACTH
b. inhibin
c. ICSH
d. GnRH

Answer 32

b. inhibin

Question 33

During the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle, ________ reaches its highest levels.

Select one:

a. LH
b. progesterone
c. estrogen
d. FSH

Answer 33

b. progesterone

Question 34

Select the correct statement about the uterine cycle.

Select one:

a. The menstrual phase of the cycle is normally from day 1 to day 8.
b. During the secretory phase, estrogen levels are at their highest.
c. During the proliferative phase, levels of progesterone rise as the follicle produces more hormone.
d. If fertilization occurs, the corpus luteum is maintained by a hormone secreted by the developing embryo.

Answer 34

d. If fertilization occurs, the corpus luteum is maintained by a hormone secreted by the developing embryo.

Question 35

Which of the choices below is not a part of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis?

Select one:

a. hypothalamus
b. anterior pituitary gland
c. thalamus
d. interstitial cells

Answer 35

c. thalamus

Question 36

Which of the following statements is true concerning the mammary glands of both males and females?

Select one:

a. Both sexes are equally prone to breast cancer.
b. All lumps identified in breast tissue are malignant.
c. The only time hormones target breast tissue is during pregnancy and lactation.
d. The mammary glands are modified sweat glands that are part of the integumentary system.

Answer 36

d. The mammary glands are modified sweat glands that are part of the integumentary system.

Question 37

Normally menstruation occurs when ________.

Select one:

a. blood levels of FSH fall off
b. blood levels of estrogen and progesterone decrease
c. blood levels of estrogen and progesterone increase
d. the corpus luteum secretes estrogen

Answer 37

b. blood levels of estrogen and progesterone decrease

Question 38

The basic difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis is that ________.

Select one:

a. during spermatogenesis two more polar bodies are produced
b. the mature ovum is n, while the sperm is 2n
c. in oogenesis, one mature ovum is produced from the parent cell, and in spermatogenesis four mature sperm are produced from the parent cell
d. spermatogenesis involves mitosis and meiosis, but oogenesis involves meiosis only

Answer 38

c. in oogenesis, one mature ovum is produced from the parent cell, and in spermatogenesis four mature sperm are produced from the parent cell

Question 39

Occasionally three polar bodies are found clinging to the mature ovum. One came from an unequal division of the ovum, but from where did the other two arise?

Select one:

a. There were originally four polar bodies and one disappeared.
b. One is an undeveloped primary oocyte that failed to mature.
c. The first polar body has also divided to produce two polar bodies.
d. What you really see are two polar bodies and the sperm that will fertilize the egg.

Answer 39

c. The first polar body has also divided to produce two polar bodies.

Question 40

Which of the following will occur immediately after ovulation?

Select one:

a. The corpus luteum secretes estrogen only.
b. The endometrium enters its secretory phase.
c. The secretion of anterior pituitary gonadotropins is enhanced.
d. The corpus luteum becomes a corpus albicans.

Answer 40

b. The endometrium enters its secretory phase.

Question 41

Why doesn’t semen enter the urinary bladder during ejaculation?

Select one:

a. There is no common duct between the reproductive system and the urinary system.
b. There is no urge to urinate during sexual intercourse because of the suppression of LH by testosterone buildup in the blood.
c. The smooth muscle sphincter at the base of the urinary bladder closes.
d. Ejaculation is a parasympathetic reflex that activates urinary contraction muscles.

Answer 41

c. The smooth muscle sphincter at the base of the urinary bladder closes.

Question 42

Spermatogenesis ________.

Select one:

a. is the process of releasing mature sperm cells into the lumen of the seminiferous tubule
b. involves a kind of cell division limited to the gametes
c. results in the formation of diploid cells
d. involves a two-part process called mitosis I and mitosis II

Answer 42

b. involves a kind of cell division limited to the gametes

Question 43

Which hormone is the necessary trigger for ovulation to occur?

Select one:

a. LH
b. FSH
c. progesterone
d. estrogen

Answer 43

a. LH

Question 44

The hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis ________.

Select one:

a. involves the release of testosterone from the anterior pituitary
b. involves FSH and LH release from the anterior pituitary
c. involves posterior pituitary release of two regulating hormones
d. involves positive feedback control of spermatogenesis

Answer 44

b. involves FSH and LH release from the anterior pituitary

Question 45

Which of the following does not occur in both the male and female sexual response?

Select one:

a. Blood flow to genital structures increases.
b. A refractory period follows ***.
c. Blood pressure and heart rate increase.
d. Muscles of structures in the reproductive duct contract rhythmically.

Answer 45

b. A refractory period follows ***.

Question 46

Which of the following is a correct statement about uterine tubes?

Select one:

a. The ampulla is the narrow constricted region.
b. The infundibulum is the funnel-shaped region near the ovary.
c. The isthmus is the normal site of fertilization.
d. The mesometrium supports the uterine tubes along their entire length.

Answer 46

b. The infundibulum is the funnel-shaped region near the ovary.

Question 47

Select the correct statement about the hormonal events of the ovarian cycle.

Select one:

a. Rising levels of estrogen start follicle development.
b. High estrogen levels result in a surge of LH release.
c. The follicle begins to secrete progesterone in response to estrogen stimulation.
d. The LH surge stimulates further development of the secondary oocyte.

Answer 47

b. High estrogen levels result in a surge of LH release.

Question 48

Which of these statements about sexually transmitted infections is false?

Select one:

a. Chlamydia is caused by bacteria that can often be asymptomatic or bring on a wide variety of symptoms.
b. Gonorrhea is caused by a bacterium that can bring on painful discharges in males.
c. Syphilis is caused by a virus that may lead to death if untreated.
d. Genital herpes is caused by a virus that may cause intermittent lesions.

Answer 48

c. Syphilis is caused by a virus that may lead to death if untreated.

Question 49

A boy who has not passed through puberty sustains an injury to his anterior pituitary such that FSH is no longer released, but

Select one:

a. be unable to produce viable sperm
b. not develop secondary sex characteristics
c. be impotent (unable to have an erection)
d. have impaired function of interstitial cells

Answer 49

a. be unable to produce viable sperm

Question 50

A patient with trichomoniasis, if they have any symptoms at all, will most likely exhibit which of the following?

Select one:

a. pink rash all over the body
b. yellow-green vaginal discharge and strong odor
c. painful lesions on the genitals
d. sterility

Answer 50

b. yellow-green vaginal discharge and strong odor

Question 51

A low secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) in the normal male adult would cause ________.

Select one:

a. decreased testosterone secretion
b. excessive beard growth
c. increased spermatogenesis
d. shrinkage of the anterior pituitary gland

Answer 51

a. decreased testosterone secretion

Question 52

Which of the following phases or processes in the monthly reproductive cycle of the female occur simultaneously?

Select one:

a. maximal LH secretion and menstruation
b. maximal steroid secretion by the corpus luteum and menstruation
c. early follicular development and the secretory phase in the uterus
d. regression of the corpus luteum and a decrease in ovarian progesterone secretion

Answer 52

d. regression of the corpus luteum and a decrease in ovarian progesterone secretion

Question 53

The duct system of the male reproductive system includes all but which of the following?

Select one:

a. epididymis
b. urethra
c. ductus deferens
d. corpus spongiosum

Answer 53

d. corpus spongiosum

Question 54

Prostate cancer is ________.

Select one:

a. the number one cause of death in men
b. sometimes a slow-growing cancer that may never represent a threat to the patient
c. most common in Asians
d. often the result of a distortion of the urethra

Answer 54

b. sometimes a slow-growing cancer that may never represent a threat to the patient