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Anatomy and Physiology 2 > Human Reproduction and Development > Flashcards

Human Reproduction and Development Flashcards

1
Q

The result of polyspermy in humans is ________.

Select one:

a. multiple births
b. a nonfunctional zygote
c. interruption of meiosis
d. mitotic insufficiency

A

b. a nonfunctional zygote

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2
Q

It is impossible for sperm to be functional (able to fertilize the egg) until after ________.

Select one:

a. the tail disappears
b. they become spermatids
c. they undergo capacitation
d. they have been stored in the uterus for several days

A

c. they undergo capacitation

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3
Q

Milk ejection (the letdown reflex) is stimulated by which of the following hormones associated with pregnancy?

Select one:

a. inhibin
b. oxytocin
c. prolactin
d. gonadotropin

A

b. oxytocin

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4
Q

The corpus luteum prevents loss of the implanted embryo through menstruation by secreting ________.

Select one:

a. human chorionic gonadotropin
b. luteinizing hormone
c. estrogens and progesterone
d. follicle-stimulating hormone

A

c. estrogens and progesterone

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5
Q

The placenta, a vitally important metabolic organ, is made up of a contribution from mother and fetus. Which portion is from the fetus?

Select one:

a. chorion
b. umbilicus
c. yolk sac
d. amnion

A

a. chorion

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6
Q

Relaxin is a hormone produced by the placenta and ovaries. The function of this hormone is to ________.

Select one:

a. block the pain of childbirth
b. ensure the implantation of the blastula
c. relax the pubic symphysis
d. prevent morning sickness

A

c. relax the pubic symphysis

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7
Q

Which embryonic structure produces human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)?

Select one:

a. the cytotrophoblast
b. the epiblast
c. the syncytiotrophoblast
d. the hypoblast

A

c. the syncytiotrophoblast

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8
Q

The neonatal period refers to ________.

Select one:

a. the first trimester of pregnancy
b. the last trimester of pregnancy
c. the first month after birth
d. the first year after birth

A

c. the first month after birth

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9
Q

The most common assisted reproductive technology process used by couples having difficulty conceiving is _______.

Select one:

a. in vitro fertilization
b. hormone therapy
c. artificial insemination
d. cloning of parent stem cells

A

a. in vitro fertilization

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10
Q

Which hormone maintains the viability of the corpus luteum?

Select one:

a. estrogen
b. progesterone
c. human chorionic gonadotropin
d. human placental lactogen

A

c. human chorionic gonadotropin

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11
Q

Which body system of a pregnant woman undergoes the most dramatic physiological changes during pregnancy?

Select one:

a. digestive system
b. urinary system
c. cardiovascular system
d. respiratory system

A

c. cardiovascular system

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12
Q

Thalidomide was once used to treat intense nausea and morning sickness in pregnant women. Unfortunately, if administered at certain points during gestation it resulted in limb malformation. This drug is an example of a(n) ________.

Select one:

a. carcinogen
b. teratogen
c. neurotoxin
d. endocrine disruptor

A

b. teratogen

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13
Q

Prior to the let-down reflex, the mammary glands secrete a yellowish fluid called ________ that has less lactose than milk and almost no fat.

Select one:

a. meconium
b. colostrum
c. bilirubin
d. prolactin

A

b. colostrum

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14
Q

How long is the secondary oocyte viable and capable of being fertilized after it is ovulated?

Select one:

a. 12-24 hours
b. 24-36 hours
c. 36-72 hours
d. a full week

A

a. 12-24 hours

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15
Q

Select the correct statement about fertilization.

Select one:

a. Both spermatozoa and the ovulated secondary oocyte remain viable for about 72 hours in the female reproductive tract.
b. Millions of sperm cells are destroyed by the vagina’s acidic environment.
c. If estrogen is present, the pathway through the cervical opening is blocked from sperm entry.
d. Once inside the uterus, most sperm cells are protected and remain viable.

A

b. Millions of sperm cells are destroyed by the vagina’s acidic environment.

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16
Q

Shortly after implantation, ________.

Select one:

a. maternal blood sinuses bathe the inner cell mass
b. myometrial cells cover and seal off the blastocyst
c. the trophoblast forms two distinct layers
d. the embryo gastrulates (within 3 days)

A

c. the trophoblast forms two distinct layers

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17
Q

Gastrulation begins when a groove with raised edges called the ________ appears on the dorsal surface of the embryonic disc.

Select one:

a. placenta
b. spinal cord
c. primitive streak
d. notochord

A

c. primitive streak

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18
Q

Muscle tissue is formed by the ________.

Select one:

a. mesoderm
b. ectoderm
c. endoderm
d. epiderm

A

a. mesoderm

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19
Q

Neural tissue is formed by the ________.

Select one:

a. epiderm
b. endoderm
c. mesoderm
d. ectoderm

A

d. ectoderm

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20
Q

The trophoblast is mostly responsible for forming the ________.

Select one:

a. allantois
b. archenteron
c. placental tissue
d. lining of the endometrium

A

c. placental tissue

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21
Q

The cardiovascular system of a newborn must be adjusted after the infant takes its first breath. Which of the following is also true?

Select one:

a. The foramen ovale between the atria of the fetal heart closes at the moment of birth.
b. The ductus venosus is disconnected at the severing of the umbilical cord and all visceral blood goes into the vena cava.
c. The urinary system is activated at birth.
d. The ductus arteriosus constricts and is converted to the ligamentum arteriosum.

A

d. The ductus arteriosus constricts and is converted to the ligamentum arteriosum.

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22
Q

Sperm move to the uterine tube through uterine contractions and the energy of their own flagella. What other factor is involved in sperm movement?

Select one:

a. hormonal attraction to the ova
b. reverse peristalsis of the uterus and uterine tubes
c. the cilia on the apex of the cells lining the endometrium
d. the increased temperature in the vagina, which stimulates sperm motility

A

b. reverse peristalsis of the uterus and uterine tubes

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23
Q

At which stage of labor is the “afterbirth” expelled?

Select one:

a. dystocia
b. expulsion
c. placental
d. full dilation

A

c. placental

24
Q

Drinking alcohol during pregnancy is ________.

Select one:

a. beneficial to the fetus, as it stimulates cardiovascular development
b. associated with microencephaly and intellectual disorders of the fetus
c. not significantly harmful, since alcohol does not cross the placenta
d. only harmful to the fetus if the mother drinks hard liquor

A

b. associated with microencephaly and intellectual disorders of the fetus

25
Q

Select the correct statement about the special fetal blood vessels.

Select one:

a. The distal parts of the umbilical arteries form the superior vesical arteries.
b. The fossa ovalis becomes the foramen ovale.
c. The umbilical vein becomes the ligamentum teres.
d. The hepatic portal vein forms from the umbilical artery.

A

c. The umbilical vein becomes the ligamentum teres.

26
Q

At what point is meiosis II completed for the female gamete?

Select one:

a. puberty
b. ovulation
c. fertilization
d. implantation

A

c. fertilization

27
Q

A urine test reveals a positive result for human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). This indicates ________ was successful.

Select one:

a. ovulation
b. fertilization
c. implantation

A

c. implantation

28
Q

As pregnancy continues, the increasing bulkiness of the anterior abdomen changes the woman’s center of gravity, possibly causing an accentuated lumbar curvature called ________.

Select one:

a. kyphosis
b. scoliosis
c. lordosis
d. hunchback

A

c. lordosis

29
Q

Which of the following would be the best method for delaying the onset of labor?

Select one:

a. giving the mother antiprostaglandin drugs
b. giving the mother prostaglandins
c. giving the mother oxytocin
d. giving the mother anti progesterone drugs

A

a. giving the mother antiprostaglandin drugs

30
Q

Which method of contraception is most reliable?

Select one:

a. cervical cap
b. rhythm method
c. vasectomy
d. morning-after pills

A

c. vasectomy

31
Q

Cells of the ________ gather around the notochord and neural tube and produce the vertebra and rib at their associated level.

Select one:

a. dermatome
b. myotome
c. intermediate mesoderm
d. sclerotome

A

d. sclerotome

32
Q

A friend confides that she desires to have children but is having trouble conceiving. Which of the following is true regarding implantation?

Select one:

a. An estimated 60% of implanted embryos later miscarry due to genetic defects of the embryo.
b. Detection of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in blood or urine indicates failure of the blastocyst to implant.
c. In cases where implantation fails to occur, a nonreceptive uterus becomes receptive once again.
d. It is estimated that a minimum of two-thirds of all zygotes formed fail to implant by the end of the first week or spontaneously abort.

A

d. It is estimated that a minimum of two-thirds of all zygotes formed fail to implant by the end of the first week or spontaneously abort.

33
Q

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is at its highest levels ________.

Select one:

a. after copulation but before implantation
b. at about the midpoint of pregnancy
c. about 2 months after implantation during the 8th gestational week
d. just before birth

A

c. about 2 months after implantation during the 8th gestational week

34
Q

How many alleles exist for a given gene?

Select one:

a. Only two alleles can exist per gene.
b. Each gene can have a different number of alleles.
c. Four alleles exist per gene, two from each parent.
d. Only one allele can exist per gene.

A

b. Each gene can have a different number of alleles.

35
Q

Select the statement that best describes the difference between a gene and an allele.

Select one:

a. Genes code for a single protein or a single trait while an allele can code for many traits or many proteins.
b. Alleles are found on chromosomes while genes are independent.
c. Genes express a specific trait while alleles are variations of a particular gene that result in the variation we see in that trait.
d. Genes follow Mendelian patterns of inheritance while alleles follow non-Mendelian patterns of inheritance.

A

c. Genes express a specific trait while alleles are variations of a particular gene that result in the variation we see in that trait.

36
Q

A dominant allele is best defined as ________.

Select one:

a. the healthy allele sometimes referred to as the wild type allele
b. an allele that stops or hides the expression of another allele
c. the stronger of two matched alleles
d. the allele that is most frequently expressed in a given population

A

b. an allele that stops or hides the expression of another allele

37
Q

Of the different sources of genetic variability, which one causes the variation in the combinations of homologs from paternal and maternal linage found within a haploid cell?

Select one:

a. independent assortment
b. crossing over
c. random fertilization
d. mutation

A

a. independent assortment

38
Q

Of the different sources of genetic variability, which one produces the variation in the combinations of alleles on a single chromosome?

Select one:

a. independent assortment
b. crossing over
c. random fertilization
d. mutation

A

b. crossing over

39
Q

The cleft chin trait follows a dominant-recessive inheritance pattern with cleft chin being the dominant trait. John is heterozygous for a cleft chin as is his wife Betty. John and Betty have two kids, both with cleft chins. According to Punnett square prediction what is the likely hood that their next child will have a cleft chin?

Select one:

a. 100% chance because the mother and father both have cleft chins
b. 0% because the two previous children have cleft chins already
c. 25% chance, the same probability for all of their children
d. 75% chance, the same probability for all of their children

A

d. 75% chance, the same probability for all of their children

40
Q

Steven has the dominant tongue rolling phenotype but he does not know his genotype. His wife has the recessive non-tongue rolling trait. If their son cannot roll his tongue this means ________.

Select one:

a. Steven has a heterozygous genotype
b. Steven has a homozygous dominant genotype
c. Steven has a homozygous recessive genotype
d. that it is impossible to tell Steven’s genotype from this information alone

A

a. Steven has a heterozygous genotype

41
Q

Dominant alleles are so called because under most circumstances they ________.

Select one:

a. code for desired traits only
b. can suppress the expression of other alleles
c. code for genes that are never considered harmful or lethal
d. code for the most common phenotypic and genotypic expressions of a trait

A

b. can suppress the expression of other alleles

42
Q

Recessive genes are usually expressed in humans only when ________.

Select one:

a. they are coding for skin color
b. they are coding for genetic diseases
c. the organism is in the embryonic stage
d. both alleles for the gene are exactly the same, or homozygous

A

c. the organism is in the embryonic stage

43
Q

The expressed form of a gene is described as the organism’s ________.

Select one:

a. phenotype
b. karyotype
c. genome
d. genotype

A

a. phenotype

44
Q

Which event can directly produce one chromosome containing both maternal and paternal genes?

Select one:

a. crossing-over and independent assortment
b. one chromosome can never have genes from both parents
c. independent assortment only
d. crossing-over only

A

d. crossing-over only

45
Q

The reason recessive genetic disorders are more frequent than dominant genetic disorders is that ________.

Select one:

a. dominant genetic disorders are never expressed in males
b. people carrying dominant genetic disorders always die before birth
c. carriers are not eliminated by the disease before passing the defective alleles on to their offspring
d. recessive genetic disorders are limited to persons of the same ethnicity

A

c. carriers are not eliminated by the disease before passing the defective alleles on to their offspring

46
Q

The gene responsible for the condition known as sickle-cell anemia demonstrates ________.

Select one:

a. incomplete dominance
b. a dominant genetic disorder
c. a sex-linked genetic disorder
d. a recessive genetic disorder

A

a. incomplete dominance

47
Q

The variation seen in ABO blood groups is due to ________.

Select one:

a. incomplete dominance
b. multiple-allele inheritance
c. polygene inheritance
d. sex-linked inheritance

A

b. multiple-allele inheritance

48
Q

The genotype of a normal man is ________.

Select one:

a. XX
b. YY
c. XY
d. Y

A

c. XY

49
Q

Mitochondrial DNA (mDNA) is inherited ________.

Select one:

a. only from the father
b. only from the mother
c. from neither the father or the mother
d. from both the father and the mother

A

b. only from the mother

50
Q

Errors in mitochondrial DNA are likely to cause genetic disorders associated with ________.

Select one:

a. oxidative phosphorylation
b. glycolysis
c. gametogenesis
d. nondisjunction

A

a. oxidative phosphorylation

51
Q

An individual who is heterozygous for a particular trait, yet expresses both alleles of that trait, is demonstrating an example of ________.

Select one:

a. dominance
b. recessive inheritance
c. incomplete dominance
d. sex-linked inheritance

A

c. incomplete dominance

52
Q

The epigenetic mark that indicates that a gene is available for transcription is ________ bound to the DNA or histone proteins.

Select one:

a. a methyl group
b. an acetyl group
c. an amine group
d. a small RNA-enzyme complex

A

b. an acetyl group

53
Q

The epigenetic mark that silences the expression of a gene is ________ bound to the DNA or histone proteins.

Select one:

a. a methyl group
b. an acetyl group
c. an amine group
d. a carboxyl group

A

a. a methyl group

54
Q

Albinism is a recessive trait. If one parent is heterozygous for albinism, and the other parent does not carry the allele, what is the probability that they will have a child with albinism?

Select one:

a. 50%
b. 100%
c. 0%
d. 25%

A

c. 0%

55
Q

________ is the most common type of fetal testing.

Select one:

a. Blood chemistry
b. Amniocentesis
c. A DNA probe
d. CVS

A

b. Amniocentesis

56
Q

Gene mutations in the X chromosome would tend to become visibly expressed ________.

Select one:

a. more frequently in males
b. more frequently in females
c. equally frequently in both sexes
d. in neither males nor females

A

a. more frequently in males

Anatomy and Physiology 2 (8 decks)

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