LVMPD Policies

Question 1

What are the codes for Emergency Response

Answer 1

Code 1: normal response- must obey all traffic laws and rules.

Code 2: Non- Emergency- lights only, may be used.
A. To stop violators.
B. Upon arriving in an area where the use of the siren may signal suspects.
C. To signal other motorists if traffic hazards when an officer is moving at a slow speed in traffic (e.g., pushing a stalled vehicle, moving at a slow speed as a crime prevention tool, or making unusual movement on the roadway). Officers must drive at the speed limit or below.
D. When approved by a sergeant or above during an authorized motorcade. Note: officers responding to non- emergency calls will NOT use emergency lights and/ or siren for the sole purpose of crossing intersections..

Code 3: emergency lights and siren, emergency response driving, will NOT exceed poster speed limit by more than 20 mph. In regard to pursuit driving, the 20 mph over posted speed limit maximum rule is removed.

Question 2

Officers may respond code 3 when:

Answer 2

1. Imminent danger to citizens and the officer’s arrival might save lives.
2. Another officer requires assistance to control a volatile situation.
3. Reliable information exists of a felony in progress.
4. Pursuits.

Question 3

Primary officer shall abide by what procedure for code 3 driving?

Answer 3

1. Determine the need for code 3 response.

Primary officer (or first to initiate code 3 response) will:

2. Notify communications via radio of code 3 status.
3. Activate and continuously utilize emergency lights and siren.
4. Activate the code 3 button on the mobile data terminal (MDT), if equipped with MDT.
5. Proceed in a safe manner.

Question 4

What procedure will a secondary officer follow for code 3 driving?

Answer 4

Notify communications via radio of code 3 status.

Activate code 3 button on the MDT, if equipped with MDT.

Proceed in a safe manner.

Question 5

First and secondary units responding code 3 will do what upon arriving?

Answer 5

Broadcast arrival status via the radio.

Determine the need for continued code 3 response of additional units.

Advise other units via radio to either continue or discontinue code 3, as needed.

Question 6

What is the procedure for additional units responding code 3 (not primary or secondary)?

Answer 6

Prior to proceeding code 3, activate the code 3 button on the MDT, if equipped with MDT, to advise of code 3 response and, subsequently, arrival status. Do not break code red on a radio channel.

Question 7

What is the procedure for field supervisors while units respond code 3?

Answer 7

Monitor respective radio channels to ensure strict adherence to this policy and will cancel or direct code 3 responses, as warranted.

Question 8

What is the definition of pursuit?

Answer 8

An active attempt by an officer in an authorized emergency vehicle as defined by NRS 484B.700, using emergency equipment (red lights and sirens), to apprehend a suspect who is failing to yield after due notice or is attempting to avoid apprehension, and whose driving presents a clear and immediate danger.

Note: an officer continuing to follow the suspect vehicle, regardless of the activation of emergency equipment (red lights and sirens) will be considered “in pursuit.”

Question 9

What is the definition of bubble tactic?

Answer 9

A non-code tactic that is utilized when attempting to contain a suspect in a vehicle. The tactic utilizes available police units to create a mobile perimeter or “bubble.” “Bubbling” officers will monitor via radio the fleeing vehicle, out of view of the suspect, and move into positions surrounding the suspect while obeying all traffic laws. “Bubbling” officers will not engage nor re-engage the suspect in a vehicle pursuit without supervisor approval.

Question 10

What is the definition Discontinuance of pursuit?

Answer 10

The complete cessation of a pursuit by the decision of pursuing officers or supervisors- to include the discontinuance of visual contact of the pursued vehicle via turning at the first reasonable turn off of the primary street- and the return to routine operations.

Question 11

What is the definition of paralleling?

Answer 11

Additional police units, approved by a supervisor, traveling in adjacent streets using emergency equipment to keep pace with a pursuit. Code 3 caravanning or paralleling of units or other attempts to join the pursuit without authorization from a supervisor is prohibited.

Question 12

What is the definition of Surveillance mode?

Answer 12

A tactic employed following a supervisor’s discontinuance of the pursuit wherein the air unit will switch to surveillance mode (cease lighting the suspect and climb to a higher altitude) and continue to observe the vehicle. The air unit will advise the supervisor if the vehicle continues to present a danger to the public and provide information to patrol units concerning when and where the vehicle stops.

Question 13

What is the termination of pursuit definition?

Answer 13

The finality of a vehicular pursuit due to either the suspect apprehension, the crashing of the suspect’s vehicle or suspect lost/ evaded pursuing unit(s), and the return to routine operation.

Question 14

What does NRS 484B.700, subsection 4 state?

Answer 14

“The provision of this section do not relieve the driver from the duty to drive with due regard for the safety of all persons and do not protect the driver from the consequences of the drivers reckless disregard for the safety of others.”

Question 15

Field supervisors who allow pursuits to continue, must consider the following initiation and evaluation factors:

Answer 15

1. Whether the need for immediate apprehension of the suspect(s) outweighs the dangers created by the pursuit itself.
2. Whether the suspect is known to officers and/ or can be apprehended at a later time.
3. Vehicular and pedestrian traffic and road conditions.
4. Nature of the area of the pursuit: residential, commercial, or rural.
5. Weather conditions (e.g., rain, fog, or snow) time of day, and visibility which creates an unreasonable risk of injury to the public or the pursuit officers.
6. Alternatives to pursuit, including the availability of the air unit, the use of the precision intervention technique (PIT), stop sticks, or arrest at a later time.

Question 16

PURSUIT- Officers must notify communications under what 3 circumstances?

Answer 16

1. When a pursuit is initiated and completed.
2. When a pursuit is cancelled before completion.
3. When a situation is observed that could result in a pursuit, but the pursuit did not meet the criteria for pursuing (a computer- aided dispatch [CAD] event must be created or updated in this situation).

Note: Officers must notify communications via the radio if they are the primary unit at any point in the pursuit.

Question 17

3.210.6- Control of the Pursuit states the primary unit will do what 7 steps?

Answer 17

1. Assume responsibility for controlling pursuit tactics.
2. Notify communications immediately that a pursuit is underway with the following information:
   A. The nature of the original offense.
   B. Location, speed, and direction of travel of the fleeing vehicle.
   C. Description and license plate number of the vehicle, if known.
   D. Number of occupants in the vehicle and descriptions, where possible.
3. Broadcast the intent to use PIT if circumstances permit; otherwise, notification will be made after the fact.
4. Broadcast the progress of the pursuit until relieved by a secondary unit.
5. Constantly evaluate conditions and discontinue the pursuit when the dangers of the pursuit outweigh the need to apprehend the suspect or when so ordered by a supervisor.
6. Cease emergency operations (lights and siren), reduce speed, and discontinue visual contact with the suspect vehicle if the air unit takes over the pursuit, unless otherwise directed by a supervisor.
7. Confirm, via the radio, the discontinuance of visual contact.

Question 18

3.210.6 Control of the pursuit states secondary unit will follow what 5 steps?

Answer 18

1. Whenever feasible, assume responsibility for broadcasting progress of the pursuit until relieved by the air unit.
2. Become the primary unit of the primary unit cannot continue the pursuit.
3. Coordinate activities if the primary unit become involved in a foot pursuit.
4. Cease emergency operations (lights and siren), reduce speed, and discontinue visual contact with the suspect vehicle if the air unit takes over the pursuit, unless otherwise directed by a supervisor.
5. Confirm, via radio, discontinuance of visual contact.

Question 19

3.210.6 Control of the pursuit states the third unit will do 4 steps?

Answer 19

1. Become the primary unit if the primary and secondary unit cannot continue the pursuit.
2. Coordinate activities if the primary and secondary unit become involved in a foot pursuit.
3. Cease emergency operations (lights and sirens), reduce speed, and discontinue visual contact with the suspect vehicle if the air unit takes over the pursuit, unless otherwise directed by a supervisor.
4. Confirm, via the radio, discontinuance of visual contact.

Question 20

3.505.2 Barricaded Subject

Who will be in command of police operations in a barricade situation?

Answer 20

Area Patrol Supervisor

Question 21

3.505.2 Barricaded Subject

Upon deployment of SWAT, who will assume command and control of the inner perimeter?

Answer 21

• SWAT commander (Captain)
  OR
• SWAT tactical commander (SWAT Lieutenant)

Question 22

3.505.2 Barricaded Subject

Upon deployment of SWAT, what will the Patrol supervisor retain command of? (4)

Answer 22

• ICP
• Staging area
• Secondary perimeter
• Other police operations

Question 23

3.505 Barricaded Subject

In barricaded subject situations, it is the policy of this department to consider the safety of civilians and officers, and to enhance the prospect of peacefully resolving the incident through what?

Answer 23

De-escalation tactics

Question 24

3.505.1 Barricaded Subject

What is the definition of a Barricaded Subject?

Answer 24

A subject who is believed to have been involved in a criminal act or is a significant threat to themselves or safety of others; refuse to submit to arrest and may be armed; is in a position of advantage, affording cover and concealment; or is contained in an open area, and the presence or approach of police officers could precipitate an adverse reaction by the subject.

Question 25

3.505.1 Barricaded Subject

What is the definition of a Suicidal Subject/ Incident?

Answer 25

A suicidal person who is threatening to take their own life. This may involve a suicidal person, armed with a deadly weapon, capable of causing injury to others, who is a demonstrated threat to others, barricaded in a structure or in an open area; therefore, an incident involving an armed suicidal subject is a barricade incident.

Question 26

3.505.2 Barricaded Subject

Subjects who are suicidal and pose an immediate or demonstrated threat to the public will be handled as?

Answer 26

Barricaded Subjects

Question 27

3.505.3 Barricaded Subject

Arriving patrol officers will take steps to _____ _____ _______, de-escalate, and protect human life. Attempt to _______ _______in favor of controlling and containing the situation.

Answer 27

• slow the momentum

- avoid confrontation

Question 28

3.505.3 Barricaded Subject

Patrol Supervisor will: (10)

Answer 28

1. Upon arrival, assess the situation and take command by prioritizing and communicating objectives.
2. Reinforce the inner perimeter and establish a secondary perimeter based on the nature of the incident.
3. Direct units to stop any inbound foot or vehicle traffic.
4. Assign officers as an immediate action team (designating roles such as verbal communication, low lethality options, hands on, ect.) to control the subject should they exit the structure.
5. Gather intelligence, make a determination for the need of SWAT and negotiators to respond, and make the requests via Communications (when possible, the patrol supervisor should also communicate telephonically with the SWAT tactical commander).
6. Evacuate or shelter-in-place bystanders and injured persons from the vicinity around the suspect’s location.
7. Designate an officer with strong verbal skills to make contact with the suspect to determine the subject’s intent. If contact is made with the subject, ensure officers remain in a tactically sound position, using effective cover and concealment. Efforts should be made to persuade the suspect to voluntarily surrender.
8. Request a dedicated radio channel with a dispatcher, if required.
9. Communicate with and direct subsequent arriving supervisors to perform other tasks that require handling.
10. Designate an officer to record names and addresses of persons and residences evacuated.

Question 29

4.100.1 Warrantless felony or gross misdemeanor arrests will be ___________ to the the most serious charge(s) arising from a single set of circumstances, with the exception of _________________________, for which charges will be combined.

Answer 29

Limited, Violent Crimes.

Question 30

4.100.1 In Clark County, misdemeanor arrests will be limited to the _____________________ and generally will not be combined with a felony or gross misdemeanor arrest.

Answer 30

Single most serious offense.

Question 31

4.100.2 The DOA must be completed during the booking process. All other pertinent reports connected to the arrest will be completed before the officer _____________________.

Answer 31

Secures the shift.

Question 32

4.100.2 An arresting officer may, after notification and approval of a ______________________, exercise discretion regarding continuing the booking process if it has been determined that an arrestee needs medical assistance.

Answer 32

Watch commander.

Question 33

4.100.2 A supervisor will, when contacted by an arresting officer regarding releasing an arrestee to medical personnel, ensure that the arrestee is not released from custody if the following charges are applicable: (6)

Answer 33

A. Crime(s) against an officer.
B. Domestic violence or driving on a DWI revoked license or any other charge where arrest is mandated by statute.
C. Any violent crime against person with significant injury.
D. Any violent crime involving the use of a deadly weapon.
E. Sexual assault.
F. Kidnapping.

Question 34

4.100.3 If the arrest does not meet all the necessary requirements, the charge(s) can be released by filing for ______. It must be done within ______ hours of the arrest in the field.

Answer 34

NCF, 48.

Question 35

7.136

When is BWC recording unauthorized? (7)

Answer 35

1.follow-up investigative briefings.

2. Large scale events ( unless circumstances arises requiring activation)
3. phone calls w/ department members (unless advised).
4. Non-work related activities (ie. locker rooms, restrooms)
5. in detention facilities
6. Administrative meetings (briefings / meetings)
7. Encounters with UC officers or Confidential informants.

Question 36

3.210.6 control of the pursuit states communications dispatcher will do what 5 steps?

Answer 36

1. Initiate a code red and ensure the at all channels receive the code red and pursuit information.
2. Immediately notify the officer’s supervisor of the pursuit and confirm the supervisor acknowledges the notification of pursuit and assumes responsibility for controlling pursuit tactics and continuance of the pursuit.
3. Designate a supervisor if the officer’s supervisor is not available.
4. Request and dispatch the air unit to the pursuit whenever possible.
5. Ensure updates are added to CAD.

Question 37

3.210.6 control of the pursuit states what 5 steps will monitoring communication supervisor do?

Answer 37

1. Notify, via cell phone, the area lieutenant and watch commander immediately of the pursuit.
2. Advise other dispatchers when the pursuit is headed toward adjacent areas.
3. Advise neighboring jurisdictions when the pursuit is headed in their direction, giving direction, status, description of the vehicle, and call-sign of the monitoring supervisor.
4. Contact other agencies when LVMPD officers request assistance, describe the circumstances and specific assistance requested, and remain in contact unless a common radio frequency is available to both agencies.
5. Ensure updates are added to CAD.

Question 38

3.210.6 control of the pursuit states a field supervisor will do what 5 steps?

Answer 38

1. Immediately acknowledge notification and authorize the continuation of the pursuit via the radio, “I am supervising this pursuit,” and assume responsibility for controlling pursuit tactics and continuing the pursuit.
2. Order discontinuation of the pursuit via the radio when the necessity for apprehension is outweighed by the dangers of the pursuit.
3. Consider use of PIT and/ or stop sticks.
4. Respond to the termination point of the pursuit, and ensure the appropriate notifications are made.
5. Ensure all required post- pursuit procedures are completed.

Question 39

7.136

What are a supervisor’s responsibilities regarding BWC use? (4)

Answer 39

1. Ensure officers use BWC in accordance with policy.
2. Ensures BWC is worn in manner that captures optimum view of surroundings.
3. when advised of BWC malfunction
   a. directs officer to remove BWC from service and dock.
   b. issue new BWC kit( cord, camera,battery)
   c. Assign new BWC to officer in Evidence.com
   d. Notify Systems Admin Unit about malfunction to discuss remedy.
4. Retrieve an officer’s BWC and upload it by end of shift if that officer is unable to do so.

Question 40

7.136

When can officers review their BWC? (3)

Answer 40

1. To assist in completing investigation and official reports.
2. To refresh recollection prior to court.
3. To provide statements for internal investigations, including use of force, OIS investigations other deadly force or critical incident.

Question 41

3.210.6 control of the pursuit states area Lieutenant (watch commander) will do what 4 steps?

Answer 41

1. Monitor the pursuit and is responsible for ensuring that the pursuit is conducted according to department polices and procedures.
2. Allow the area field supervisor to remain in control of the pursuit, and limit radio traffic that may cause confusion regarding supervision of the pursuit. The lieutenant should refrain from radio communication unless they are going to countermand the supervisor in control of the pursuit.
3. Order discontinuance of the pursuit when the dangers of the pursuit outweigh the need to apprehend the suspect.
4. Respond to the termination point of the pursuit, and ensure the appropriate notifications are made.

Question 42

3.210.6 control of the pursuit states the air unit will do what 4 steps?

Answer 42

1. Respond to the pursuit scene when dispatched.
2. Arrive in the scene of the pursuit and assume primary radio responsibilities when visual contact of the suspect vehicle is made.
3. Upon request of a field supervisor, assume a surveillance mode, continuing to advise the ground units of the vehicle’s location, traffic congestion, and road hazards that might endanger the ground units or others.
4. Broadcast information to aid ground units if the pursued vehicle is lost or the suspect flees on foot.

Question 43

3.210.6 control of the pursuits states ground units will do what 3 steps?

Answer 43

1. Cease emergency operation (lights and siren), reduce speed, and discontinue visual contact with the suspect vehicle once the air unit advises it has arrived and is in surveillance mode, unless otherwise directed by a supervisor.
2. Consider using the “bubble tactic” based in information being provided by the primary, secondary, and third pursuit units, or the air unit when it takes over the pursuit in surveillance mode.
3. During surveillance mode, will:

A. Discontinue visual contact of the suspect.
B. Utilize the non- code bubble tactic to contain the suspect vehicle.
C. If the suspect flees on foot from the vehicle, the primary pursuing unit will respond to the termination point to apprehend the suspect(s).

Question 44

What factors must be considered for inter- jurisdictional pursuits initiated by LVMPD?

Answer 44

1. Pursuits will be discontinued when leaving Clark county unless the decision to continue is approved by the LVMPD on- duty watch commander or field lieutenant.
2. When a pursuit leaves Clark county, officers and supervisors will re- evaluate the pursuit to include consideration of the following factors:
   A. How long the pursuit has lasted.
   B. Whether assistance is needed from another agency.
   C. Whether communication can be maintained.
   D. All the factors set forth in the policy as to whether the pursuit can be conducted in reasonable safety and in compliance with state law and policy.
3. The pursuing officer or a supervisor may request assistance from another agency. If such a request is made, officers or the supervisors will not request an officer form another agency to actively join in the pursuit; however, other appropriate forms of assistance may be requested.

Question 45

What are additional pursuit prevention/ termination techniques?

Answer 45

1. Tire Deflation Devices (Stop sticks)

2. Use of the PIT

Question 46

When using Stop Sticks as a pre- pursuit deployment tactic, what tactical considerations must be adhered to?

Answer 46

1. Approval from a field supervisor prior to deployment.
2. Will not be pre- deployed by a single officer.
3. Have a tactical plan (e.g. ballistic shield, immediate action, or lethal/ low lethal coverage) in place should the vehicle not be immobilized.
4. Be in position which does not over expose the deployment team from the suspect.

Question 47

7.136

When an officer falls below compliance rate for BWC sergeant will? (7)

Answer 47

1. Review officers detailed APR for unmatched videos.
2. Review CAD for dispatched and cleared times that align w/ any identified unmatched videos.
3. Review Evidence.com for videos w/o an ID# within specified CAD timeframes.
4. Review upload times for any uploads that occurred 36 hrs. after recorded times.
5. Correct any unmatched evidence in Evidence.com by updating ID# with corresponding CAD events.
6. View all unmatched evidence that corresponds with officer’s CAD times.
7. If clear BWC policy violations are discovered during the audit, document the issue in a Contact Report. If problem continues after being documented in a Contact Report. Consider opening Statement of Complaint.

Question 48

When will Officers not deploy tire deflation devices?

Answer 48

1. When transporting prisoners or other non- police personnel.
2. When fleeing suspects have demonstrated a clear intent to injure officers using the fleeing vehicle or other deadly weapon, unless effective cover is avail that the deployment location.
3. As a weapon
4. On bridges, in roadway curves, in or around construction, or any location where the deploying officer feels that it would be too dangerous because of vehicular or pedestrian movement.
5. To slow or stop any of the following vehicles, unless the use of deadly force would be justified:
   A. Motorcycle, moped, or any two- or three- wheeled vehicle.
   B. All- terrain vehicle (ATV)
   C. Any truck transporting explosives or other hazardous materials.

Question 49

7.235

Where should an officer with a complaint about communications (procedure or personnel) direct their complaint?

Answer 49

To their sergeant who will in turn contact the communications supervisor.

Question 50

De-escalation

Answer 50

An officer’s actions to slow down, stabilize, and resolve an incident as safely as possible by reducing danger through the use of verbal persuasion, tactics, resources, and transitioning through force options.

Question 51

Force transition

Answer 51

The movement, progression, or reduction from the application of one force type to another.

Question 52

Imminent threat

Answer 52

An impending violent act, harm, or resistance that will likely occur if not instantly confronted or addressed.

Question 53

Levels of control

Answer 53

Broad categories of force options in escalating stages of intensity that are identified as low-level force, intermediate force, and deadly force.

Question 54

Objectively reasonable

Answer 54

An objective standard of force viewed from the perspective of a reasonable officer, without the benefit of 20/20 hindsight, and based on the totality of the circumstances presented at the moment the force is used

Question 55

Recovery position

Answer 55

The placement of a subject’s body in a manner that does not restrict breathing or obstruct the airway, i.e., on their side or upright.

Question 56

Substantial bodily injury

Answer 56

An injury that creates a substantial risk of death, causes serious permanent disfigurement, or results in a prolonged loss or impairment of the functioning of any body part.

Question 57

Officers are legally authorized to use deadly force to effect an arrest when in compliance with Nevada Revised Statutes (NRS) and the legal standards under Tennessee v. Garner (1985) to:

Answer 57

1. Protect themselves or others from what is reasonably believed to be an imminent threat of death or substantial bodily injury.
2. Prevent the escape of a fleeing felon who the officer has probable cause to believe has committed a violent felony crime and is an imminent threat to human life if escape should occur

Question 58

True or false

Officers may use force to protect themselves or others, overcome resistance, to effect a lawful detention, a lawful arrest, or to conduct a lawful search. Officers should, if reasonable, make clear their intent to detain, arrest, or search the subject.

Answer 58

True

Question 59

The United States Supreme Court’s decisions and interpretations of the Fourth Amendment of the United States Constitution state an officer shall only use such force as is _______ ________ under all of the circumstances.

Answer 59

objectively reasonable

Question 60

True or False?

The reasonableness of a particular use of force must be judged from the perspective of a judicious officer on the scene, rather than with 20/20 vision of hindsight. The consideration must account for the fact that officers are often forced to make split-second judgments in circumstances that are tense, uncertain, and rapidly evolving.

Answer 60

True

Question 61

Objective factors that affect the reasonableness of the force include: (8)

Answer 61

1. The severity of the crime
2. Whether the subject poses an immediate threat to the safety of officers or others
3. Whether the subject is actively resisting arrest or attempting to evade arrest by flight
4. The influence of drugs/alcohol or the mental capacity of the subject
5. The time available to an officer to make a decision
6. The availability of officers or resources (including the number of officers present at the time) to de-escalate the situation
7. The proximity or access of weapons to the subject
8. The environmental factors and/or other exigent circumstances

Question 62

8.330

What is the purpose of a supervisor or sergeants initial interview with a complainant?

Answer 62

To determine if a policy or law has been violated?

Question 63

As stated in NRS ____ , officers will only use the amount of reasonable force necessary to effect an arrest.

Answer 63

NRS 171.1455

Question 64

The standard that courts use to examine whether a use of force is constitutional was first set forth in ____________ and expanded by subsequent court cases.

Answer 64

Graham V. Connor

Question 65

The prospect of a favorable outcome is often enhanced when supervisors become involved in the management of the overall response to a potentially violent encounter by coordinating officers’ tactical actions. Supervisors will acknowledge and respond to incidents in a timely manner when officer use of _____ _____ is probable

Answer 65

Reportable force

Question 66

Supervisors will also manage the deployment of resources and equipment. In dynamic and highly charged incidents, supervisors will provide clear direction and communication to officers regarding their positioning and roles. Upon observing substandard officer _____ or flaws in _____, the supervisor will promptly act to correct any deficiencies.

Answer 66

approaches, tactical decisions

Question 67

At times, _______ may mean the timely and appropriate use of a lower force option to mitigate a later need to use greater force. Officers will make efforts to control a confrontation and not allow it to escalate

Answer 67

De- escalation

Question 68

What is duty to intervene?

Answer 68

Any officer present, regardless of rank, and observing another officer using force that is clearly beyond what is justified or objectively reasonable under the circumstances will, when in a safe position to do so, intercede to prevent the use of unreasonable force. The officer will promptly report these observations and the efforts made to intervene to a supervisor. If the supervisor is using unjustified force, the officer will report it to the next level of supervision. If the observing officer is a supervisor, they will issue a direct order to stop the violation

Question 69

Whenever an officer applies a use of force option upon a subject that results in either ________ or ________ or difficulty in breathing, the officer will continuously monitor the subject and immediately summon medical attention.

Answer 69

Observable signs or complaints of injury

Question 70

Officers will not restrain subjects who are in custody and under control in a manner that compromises their ability to breathe. Proned handcuffed subjects will be immediately placed in a ______ or seated position once safe to do so

Answer 70

Recovery

Question 71

While handcuffed subjects are seated, they will not be forcefully bent forward at the waist, and pressure will not be applied to their ____, ____, or ____.

Answer 71

Back, neck or head

Question 72

Medical attention will be summoned for the following use of force applications, regardless of visible injury or complaint of injury:

Answer 72

1. Baton/Impact weapons – any strikes to the head, neck, chest, spine, kidneys, or groin area
2. Canine – all bites
3. Electronic control device (ECD) – probe strikes to the head, neck, chest, or groin area
4. Oleoresin capsicum (OC) spray – direct exposure to the facial area
5. Use of Force with a Projectile Weapon:
   a. Low lethality shotgun – all strikes
   b. 40mm specialty impact weapon – all strikes
6. Handgun/Shotgun/Rifle – all strikes
7. Use of Force with a Vehicle:
   a. Precision intervention technique (PIT)
   b. Ramming – all

Question 73

4 Levels of resistance?

Answer 73

1. Compliant
2. Obstructive
3. Assaultive
4. Life threatening

Question 74

Compliant definition

Answer 74

Compliant – a person contacted by an officer who acknowledges direction or lawful orders given and offers no resistance.

Question 75

3.505.3 Barricaded Subject

Supervisor will:

Upon arrival, ________ the situation and take command by _________ and ____________ objectives.

Answer 75

• assess
• prioritizing
• communicating

Question 76

3.505.3 Barricaded Subject

Supervisor will:

_________ the inner perimeter and establish a _________ _________ based on the nature of the incident.

Answer 76

• Reinforce
• secondary
• perimeter

Question 77

3.505.3 Barricaded Subject

Supervisor will:

Direct units to stop any inbound ____ or _______ traffic.

Answer 77

• foot

- vehicle

Question 78

3.505.3 Barricaded Subject

Supervisor will:

Assign officers as an _________ ______ ____ (designating roles such as verbal communication, low lethality options, hands on, ect.) to control the subject should they ____ the structure.

Answer 78

• immediate
• action
• team
• exit

Question 79

3.505.3 Barricaded Subject

Supervisor will:

______ intelligence, make a determination for the need of ____ and negotiators to respond, and make request via ______________ (when possible, the patrol Supervisor should also communicate telephonically with the SWAT tactical commander).

Answer 79

• Gather
• SWAT
• Communications

Question 80

8.330

If a complaint only involves the complainant’s disagreement with established proper policy and procedure. What does a supervisor do? (2)

Answer 80

1. Explain to complainant policy procedure ect. And how the issue does not rise to misconduct.
2. Document the discussion in Blue Team as a citizen contact.

Question 81

3.505.3 Barricaded Subject

Supervisor will:

________ or shelter-in place bystanders and injured persons from the vicinity around the _________ location.

Answer 81

• Evacuate

- suspect’s

Question 82

3.505.3 Barricaded Subject

Supervisor will:

Designate an officer with strong ______ skills to make contact with the suspect to determine the suspect’s intent. If contact is made with the suspect, ensure officers remain in a tactically sound position, using effective _____ and ___________. Efforts should be made to persuade the suspect to voluntarily surrender.

Answer 82

• verbal
• cover
• concealment

Question 83

3.505.3 Barricaded Subject

Supervisor will:

_______ a dedicated radio channel with a __________, if required.

Answer 83

• Request

- dispatcher

Question 84

3.505.3 Barricaded Subject

Supervisor will:

Communicate with and direct subsequent arriving ___________ to perform other tasks that require handling.

Answer 84

• supervisors

Question 85

3.505.3 Barricaded Subject

Supervisor will:

Designate an officer to _______ names and addresses of persons and residences evacuated.

Answer 85

• record

Question 86

3.505.3 Barricaded Subject

What will the patrol Lieutenant, incident commander or watch commander discuss with the SWAT or Tactical commander? (3)

Answer 86

1. The available intelligence on the subject’s background and motivation.
2. The nature and severity of the crime (determine the threat to the public).
3. The necessity for a large-scale tactical response and neighborhood evacuations versus surveillance and other means to de-escalate the situation and prevent a use of deadly force.

Question 87

3.505.3 Barricaded Subject

On a barricaded subject, who ensures officers and patrol supervisor are addressing the situation to a standard and make adjustments as needed?

Answer 87

Patrol Lieutenant, incident commander or watch commander

Question 88

Levels of resistance, “Obstructive” definition

Answer 88

the subject is uncooperative, not complying with an officer’s commands, or their physical actions are intended to prevent an officer from placing the subject in custody or under control; the subject’s actions are not directed at harming the officer or others.

Question 89

3.505.3 Barricaded Subject

Patrol Lieutenant, incident commander or watch commander will:

Establish an ICP that: (3)

Answer 89

1. Is secured and is in close proximity to the scene, but is not in the line of sight of the suspect.
2. Has an area for responding units to stage
3. Has unobstructed radio and telephonic communications.

Question 90

3.505.3 Barricaded Subject

On a barricaded subject, who establishes an ICP?

Answer 90

Patrol Lieutenant, incident commander or watch commander.

Question 91

3.505.3 Barricaded Subject

Patrol Lieutenant, incident commander or watch commander will:

Establish _______/egress routes.

Answer 91

• ingress

Question 92

3.505.3 Barricaded Subject

Patrol Lieutenant, incident commander or watch commander will:

Request fire and medical support to the _______ ____.

Answer 92

• command

- post

Question 93

3.505.3 Barricaded Subject

Who is responsible for assigning an officer to function as a recorder to maintain a chronological log of events?

Answer 93

Patrol Lieutenant, incident commander or watch commander.

Question 94

3.505.3 Barricaded Subject

Patrol Lieutenant, incident commander or watch commander will:

Advise ______________ of the command post phone number.

Answer 94

• Communications

Question 95

3.505.3 Barricaded Subject

According to policy 3.505.3, who maintains control over the relief and deployment of patrol officers?

Answer 95

The Patrol Lieutenant, incident commander or watch commander.

Question 96

3.505.3 Barricaded Subject

If the PIO is not present, who will function as or designate a media liaison?

Answer 96

The Patrol Lieutenant, incident commander or watch commander.

Question 97

3.505.3 Barricaded Subject

Who will the the Patrol Lieutenant, incident commander or watch commander, request to take control of the outer perimeter and any travel routes, thereby reliving patrol personnel?

Answer 97

The Traffic section supervisor

Question 98

3.505.3 Barricaded Subject

Who notifies Emergency Management coordinator when appropriate?

Answer 98

The Patrol Lieutenant, incident commander or watch commander.

Question 99

Levels of resistance, “Assaultive” definition

Answer 99

the subject demonstrates the intent to harm the officer, others or themselves.

Question 100

Levels of resistance, “life threatening” definition

Answer 100

the subject’s actions are likely to result in death or substantial bodily injury to the officer or others.

Question 101

3.505.3 Barricaded Subject

Patrol Lieutenant, incident commander or watch commander will:

_________ a location for evacuated citizens to gather that is safe and has facilities (e.g., schools or shopping centers).

Answer 101

• Designate

Question 102

Levels of resistance, examples of obstructive resistance:

Answer 102

a. Standing stationary and not moving upon lawful direction
b. Becoming “dead weight”
c. Holding onto a fixed object (e.g., utility pole or steering wheel) or locking arms with another during a protest
d. Walking or running away
e. Breaking the officer’s grip

Question 103

Levels of resistance, examples of assaultive resistance:

Answer 103

a. A subject taking a fighting stance, punching, kicking, striking, or attacking with weapons
b. Other actions which present an imminent threat of physical harm
c. A subject fleeing while in control of weapon (e.g., firearm in a waistband)

Question 104

Levels of resistance, examples of life threatening resistance:

Answer 104

a. The imminent use of a firearm, blunt, or bladed weapon

b. Extreme physical force

Question 105

3.505.3 Barricaded Subject

Patrol Lieutenant, incident commander or watch commander will:

Assigns who to the Tactical Operations Center (TOC) if necessary?

Answer 105

Patrol supervisor or designee

Question 106

Levels of control are broad categories of influence and force in escalating stages of intensity.
What are the 3 levels of control?

Answer 106

1. Low level force
2. Intermediate force
3. Deadly force

Question 107

Low Level Force – a level of control that balances against a subject who is compliant or obstructive and is neither likely nor intended to cause injury.

This level of control includes:

Answer 107

a. Officer presence
b. Verbal communication
c. Empty hand tactics (physical constraint, hand control [escorts], takedowns not likely to cause injury)
d. Handcuffs/Hobbles/DSD specialty restraints (excluding restraint chair as defined in NRS 193.350)
e. Baton (as escort tool)
f. Canine (on leash)
g. Stationary vehicle immobilization technique (pinching)

Question 108

Intermediate Force – a level of control that balances against a subject who is assaultive and has the potential to cause injury or substantial pain.

This level of control includes:

Answer 108

a. Empty hand tactics (strikes, kicks)
b. DSD specialty restraint devices (including restraint chair)
c. Baton/Impact tools (jabs, strikes)
d. Oleoresin capsicum (OC) spray
e. Electronic control device (ECD)
f. Low lethality shotgun (fired at a distance of seven yards or greater)
g. 40mm specialty impact weapon (fired at a distance of five yards or greater)
h. Canine (with bites)
i. PIT (speeds 40 mph or below)

Question 109

Deadly Force – a degree of force which balances against a subject whose actions are life- threatening and likely to result in death or substantial bodily injury.

This level of control includes:

Answer 109

a. Baton (striking head, neck, chest, spine, groin, or kidneys)
b. Low lethality shotgun (fired at a distance less than seven yards)
c. 40mm specialty impact weapon (fired at a distance less than five yards)
d. PIT (speeds more than 40 mph)
e. Ramming
f. Firearm use

Question 110

What are the 4 elements of deadly force?

Answer 110

1. Ability
2. Opportunity
3. Imminent jeopardy
4. Preclusion

Question 111

4 elements of deadly force definitions

Ability

Answer 111

exists when a person has the means or capability to cause substantial bodily injury or death to an officer or others. Ability may include the subject’s size, age, strength, combative skill, level of aggression, and any weapons in their immediate control.

Question 112

4 elements of deadly force definitions

Opportunity

Answer 112

exists when a person is in a position to effectively resist an officer’s control or to use force or violence upon the officer or others. Examples which may affect opportunity include:

a. Relative distance to the officer or others.
b. Physical barriers between the subject and the officer.

Question 113

4 elements of deadly force definitions

Imminent jeopardy

Answer 113

based upon the known facts and circumstances, the officer reasonably believes the subject poses an imminent threat to the life of an officer or others, and the officer must act immediately to prevent death or substantial bodily injury

Question 114

4 elements of deadly force definitions

Preclusion

Answer 114

lesser alternatives have been reasonably considered and exhausted before the use of deadly force, to include disengagement.

Question 115

8.330

Types of internal investigations? (5)

Answer 115

1. Citizen contact/ preliminary inquiry- conducted to determine nature of complaint. Not considered formal investigation.
2. Customer dispute- is not an allegation that involves a violation of policy or law.
3. EDS investigation- involves harassment or discrimination. Handled by EDS .
4. Minor investigation- if found to be true could result in written up less than 40 hour suspension or disciplinary transfer.
5. Major allegation- if found to be true could result in 40 hr. suspension, demotion, or termination.

Question 116

8.330

Internal investigation findings? (6)

Answer 116

1. Sustained- misconduct was found to have occurred.
2. Not sustained- not enough evidence found to prove or disprove the allegation.
3. Unfounded- act found not to have occurred.
4. Exonerated- act did occur but was justified, legal, or proper.
5. Misconduct not based on complaint- misconduct did occur but was not part of the initial investigation.
6. Policy failure- the act did occur and was in compliance with policy; determined misconduct could have been prevented had policy been more clear or complete.

Question 117

8.330

Complaints of harassment and discrimination within the department can be reported to whom?(3)

Answer 117

1. Any supervisor.
2. The EDS director.
3. The IAB director.

Question 118

8.200

T or F
An off-duty officer who witnesses an alleged crime committed by another officer are mandated to cooperate with the investigation.

Answer 118

False. It is the off-duty officer’s right to cooperate or not with the investigation.

Question 119

T or F
An on duty officer who is believed to be a witness to a crime committed by another officer is obliged to cooperate with the investigation.

Answer 119

True.

Question 120

When a supervisor is notified of an alleged crime by an officer they will?: (3)

Answer 120

1. Will ensure that the complainant or PR is interviewed to determine facts and circumstances or alleged crime.
2. For reports of suspected criminal misconduct involving department members- immediately notify WC, and Criminal investigations section of IAB.
3. For reports of suspected crimes involving law enforcement officer from any other jurisdiction, immediately notify WC, and appropriate investigative unit.

Question 121

8.220

When an officer committs Domestic battery or DUI their immediate supervisor will? (3)

Answer 121

1. Address the employee’s behavior through:
   a. Discipline; and/or
   b. Counseling, training, or care programs.
2. Ensures any reduction of discipline due to court-referred treatment retains the designation of initial discipline.
3. Coordinate any voluntary follow-up care for the employee through PEAP.

Question 122

8.325

Every supervisor has the responsibility to prevent acts of harassment and/or discrimination which includes: (6)

Answer 122

1. Monitoring work environment daily for signs harassment/discrimination may be occurring.
2. Refrain from participating in or encouraging actions that could be perceived as harassment/discrimination (verbal or otherwise).
3. Counseling members on prohibited behavior and the procedure for reporting and resolving complaints of harassment/discrimination.
4. Stop any observed act that may be considered harassment, and taking appropriate steps to intervene, whether or not involved members are within their line of supervision.
5. With the recommendation of EDS, take action to limit work contact between 2 members where there has been a complaint of harassment, pending investigation.
6. Report all complaints of harassment and/or discrimination to EDS, whether witnessed or reported, formally or informally. Keeping that info confidential and only discussing with others if advised to do so by EDS and/or office of general counsel.

Question 123

8.325

How (in what form)are harassment/ discrimination complaints accepted?

Answer 123

In any form- in person, email, mail, or telephone.

Question 124

8.325

What are the types or discrimination/ harassment complaints. (3)

Answer 124

1. Discrimination
2. Adverse impact.
3. Disparate treatment.

Question 125

When will officers broadcast the intent to use PIT?

Answer 125

If circumstances permit, otherwise notification will be made after the fact.

Question 126

When may PIT be used as non- deadly force?

Answer 126

A. PIT may be used to apprehend violators at speeds of 40 mph and below and downs not meet the criteria for PIT as deadly force.

B. PIT May be used to apprehend violators at speeds of 40 mph and below after the tires have been deflated as a result of a tire- deflation device and do not meet the criteria for PIT as deadly force.

Question 127

What circumstances would warrant the use of PIT as deadly force?

Answer 127

1. Continued movement of the pursued vehicle would place others in danger of bodily harm or death; and/ or
2. Apparent risk of harm, to other than the occupants of the pursued vehicle, is so great as to outweigh the risk of harm in making the forcible stop; and
3. Other means if apprehension have been considered and rejected as impractical (e.g., continue to follow, stop sticks, and/ or call the air unit).

Question 128

Officers will, in all cases, consider the safety of the public and suspects before executing PIT technique, evaluating what locations and hazards?

Answer 128

1. Areas with high concentrations of pedestrians.
2. Other vehicle traffic.
3. Parked vehicle.
4. Telephone/ utility poles.
5. Bridges.
6. Areas adjacent to paved roads with large elevation change.

Question 129

PIT (successful uses, attempts, and/ or declared uses) and vehicle ramming are considered what?

Answer 129

Reportable force and must be reported by completing the use of force report and pursuit report in blue team.

Question 130

What is the definition of foot pursuit?

Answer 130

An incident where an officer chases, on foot, a subject who is attempting to avoid being taken into custody.

Question 131

What is the definition of apprehension?

Answer 131

The pursuit of subject(s) wherein the intent of the pursuing officer(s) is to take the subject(s) into custody as quickly as possible.

Question 132

What is the definition of containment?

Answer 132

The isolation of a subject within a confined/ controlled area, large or small, with the intent of preventing the subjects escape.

Question 133

What officer safety concerns should be considered for a foot pursuit?

Answer 133

1. The potential for violence to officer(s) or citizens.
2. The officer is acting alone.
3. The subject is known or believed to be armed.
4. The officer becomes unsure of his/ her location and direction of travel.
5. Radio contact is lost with dispatch or backup officers.
6. The officer loses possession of his/ her firearm, radio, or other essential equipment.
7. The subject enters a building, structure, confined space, or otherwise isolated area.
8. The officer becomes aware of unanticipated circumstances that increase the risk to officers or the public (I.e. baiting to ambush)
9. An officer pursuing multiple subjects does not reasonably believe he/ she would be able to control the subjects should a confrontation occur.
10. Two or more officers involved in the pursuit become separated, lose visual contact with one another, or obstacles separate them to the degree they commit immediately assist each other.
11. The need to secure department vehicles left unlocked or running.

Question 134

Officers initiating a foot pursuit should broadcast what information?

Answer 134

1. Unit identifier
2. Location and direction of travel.
3. Reason for the foot pursuit.
4. Number of subjects and descriptions; and
5. Whether the subject is known or believed to be armed.

Question 135

A supervisor will respond to a foot pursuit when what occurs?

Answer 135

1. Injury to an officer, citizen, or suspect.
2. An entry into a residence or similar structure, regardless if it is occupied or not.
3. Any reportable force; or
4. Any other unusual occurrence that warrants supervisory oversight.

Question 136

Upon being notified or becoming aware a foot pursuit is in progress, dispatch will do what?

Answer 136

1. Initiate a code red on channel.
2. Request and dispatch air support and K9 whenever possible.
3. Notify the field supervisor.
4. Contact and coordinate additional resources as directed by the field supervisor.

Question 137

4.102 Definition:

Arrest

Answer 137

A show of authority by an officer, in words or actions or both, which would cause a reasonable person to think that they were being deprived of their liberty more than temporarily (i.e., more than an investigative detention), and involves either;

1. Submission by the subject to the officer’s show of authority, or
2. An actual physical touching which places the subject under the control of the officer.

Question 138

4.102 Definition:

Probable cause

Answer 138

Exists when the facts and circumstances known to the officer would warrant a prudent person in believing a crime had been committed and that the accused had committed it.

Question 139

4.102 An officer MAY make an arrest without a warrant for: (6)

Answer 139

1. All crimes which have been committed in the officer’s presence.
2. Felonies and GMs not committed in the officer’s presence when the officer has PC that the crime was committed, and the specific person committed it.
3. Any person who a police officer has PC to believe is about to commit a FELONY crime.
4. Juvenile misdemeanors NOT committed in the officer’s presence.
5. Traffic offenses delineated in NRS 484, other than DUI.
6. Battery between siblings, cousins, and current roommates.

Question 140

4.102 An officer WILL make an arrest without a warrant when PC exists s for the following:

Answer 140

1. All felony and misdemeanor battery consisting of DOMESTIC VIOLENCE.
2. Traffic offenses which are classified as:
   A. DUI
   B. Felony hit and run.
   C. Homicide by vehicle.
3. Protective order violations.

Question 141

4.102 Battery Between Siblings, Cousins, or Current Roommates.
An officer has discretion to arrest, cite, or give an advisement when there is PC to believe a battery has been committed within the preceding 24 hours. Officers will consider the following:

Answer 141

1. The severity of the offense.
2. Whether it’s the first time officers have responded to the location and or interacted with the involved parties, and or if a party has a prior offense of a similar nature.
3. One or both of the parties is in a violent or agitated state, and officer have reasonable concern that by not removing at least one party from the incident, violence may escalate.
4. One or both of the involved parties wants to press charges and completes a citizen’s arrest.

Question 142

4.102 If the arrested person requests that all or part of their personal property be released to a third party and the officer can safely accommodate the arrestee:

Answer 142

1. ALL property will be documented on a Property Report and the report will be completed and signed by the third party as directed.
2. The officer will request the presence of a supervisor for cash being released valuing over $100 or for non-cash property valuing over $250.
   A. The supervisor WILL sign the Property Report PRIOR to the arrestee being transported to the correctional facility.

Question 143

4.104.2 DV definitions: Acts Constituting DV

Answer 143

Considered abusive behavior or coercion used to gain or maintain power and control over another where there is a certain relationship as defined by law.

Question 144

4.104.2 DV definitions: Assault

Answer 144

Unlawfully attempting to use physical force against another person or intentionally placing another person in reasonable apprehension of immediate bodily harm.

Question 145

4.104.2 DV definitions: Battery

Answer 145

ANY willful and unlawful use of force or violence upon the person of another.

Question 146

4.104.2 DV definitions: Coercion

Answer 146

The intent to compel another to do or abstain from doin an act which the other Person has a right to do or abstain from doing.

Question 147

4.104.2 DV definitions: Dating Relationship

Answer 147

Frequent, intimate associations primarily characterized by the expectation of affection Al or sexual involvement. The term does not include a casual relationship or an ordinary association.

Question 148

4.104.2 DV definitions: Mutual Arrest

Answer 148

Occurs when there is PC that a separate, distinct battery has been committed by each party against the other and warrants the arrest of both parties.

Question 149

4.104.2 DV definitions: Felony Domestic Violence.

Answer 149

DV involving strangulation, deadly weapons, or substantial bodily harm to the alleged victim, AWDW, felony coercion, Batt DV with prior act of Felony DV, or third DV offense as defined by NRS 200.485.

Question 150

4.104.2 DV definitions: Sexual Assault

Answer 150

When a person subjects another person to sexual penetration or forces another person to make a sexual penetration on himself or herself or another, or on a beast, against the will of the victim or under conditions in which the perpetrator knows or should know that the victim is mentally or physically incapable of resisting or understanding the nature of his or her conduct.

Question 151

4.104.2 DV definitions: Siblings

Answer 151

Siblings, related by blood or marriage, include half-siblings, siblings-in-law, and step siblings.

Question 152

104.3 Acts Constituting Domestic Violence.(7)

Answer 152

1. Battery
2. Assault
3. Coercion
4. Sexual Assault
5. Knowing, purposeful, or reckless course of conduct intended to harass the other person. Such conduct may include, but is not limited to:
   A. Stalking
   B. Arson
   C. Trespassing
   D. Larceny
   E. Destruction of private property
   F. Carrying a concealed weapon without a permit
   G. Injuring or killing an animal
   H. Burglary
   I. Invasion of the home.
6. False imprisonment
7. Pandering

Question 153

4.104.5 DV- Officers SHALL immediately contact their supervisor in cases when: (5)

Answer 153

1. Felony DV has occurred
2. A law enforcement employee of any agency is involved as a suspect or victim
3. Parties involved are believed to be a pimp and prostitute
4. A suspect under arrest has a previous conviction for DV and is in possession of a F/A and/ or ammunition
5. A mutual arrest is considered

Question 154

4.104.5 Are officers permitted to question children present at a DV?

Answer 154

Yes. Ask open-ended questions such as, “what happened? What did you see/ hear/ feel? Are you ok?”

Question 155

4.104.5 When a suspect is being arrested and there is confirmation that the suspect has a previous conviction for domestic violence and is in possession of a firearm and/ or ammunition:

Answer 155

The officer will interview the suspect/ witness to determine whether the relationship in the suspect’s prior conviction meets the federal definition in 18 USC 921(a)(33) to make an arrest.
If there is no PC for the additional charge of a prohibited person in possession of a firearm arm under the federal definition, the firearm MAY be impounded for safekeeping.

Question 156

4.104.5 In a DV investigation, may an officer impound firearms for safekeeping if the officer has an articulable reason that a danger exists and the involved party has control over those firearms?

Answer 156

Yes. If the involved party agrees or gives consent.

Question 157

4.104.5 In a DV investigation. A SafeNest advocate will be requested as early as possible via radio for ALL felony DV investigations, misdemeanor DV where there is PC for arrest, an arrest has been made on scene, or significant repeated calls for service.

Can a SafeNest advocate be utilized for investigative purposes and/ or listed as a witness?

Answer 157

No. Statements to SafeNest are confidential and not intended for law enforcement without the consent of the victim.

Question 158

4.104.5 In a DV investigation, the supervisor WILL: (5)

Answer 158

1. In cases of mutual arrest, ENSURE that every attempt has been made to try and determine a primary aggressor and PC exists for both arrests prior to giving approval for any mutual arrest.
2. In cases meeting FJC call out criteria, immediately notify FJC detectives.
3. If parties involved are believed to be pimp and prostitute, immediately notify the Vice section.
4. In cases when a law enforcement employee of any agency is involved as a suspect or a victim of DV, immediately notify the Watch Commander ( if unavailable, contact the Criminal Investigations section supervisor) and the area lieutenant to respond.
5. Review all reports for accuracy and consistency, including jurisdiction, elements of the crime, and PC.

Question 159

4.104.6 DV Station Reports
Area command or records personnel will notify dispatch for an officer to respond to complete the preliminary investigation and reports if:

Answer 159

A reported Battery DV occurred within the previous 24 hours or a felonious act of DV is reported at any time.

Question 160

4.104.6 DV Station Reports

If a report of Battery DV occurred outside the previous 24 hours, area command/ records personnel will:

Answer 160

Interview victims, make appropriate notifications and complete the Battery DV report themselves.

Question 161

4.108 Transporting prisoners: Prisoner searches

Answer 161

Officers WILL carefully and thoroughly search prisoners, including removal and search of any footwear while handcuffed, and take possession of any weapons and evidence PRIOR to placing prisoners in vehicles for transport.

Question 162

4.108 Transporting Prisoners in Vehicles w/out Prisoner Screens.

Answer 162

• A police officer in a sedan w/ out a prisoner screen, transporting an individual prisoner will place the prisoner in the front o passenger seat.
• In a two-officer unit, the prisoner will be placed in the rear seat behind the passenger’s position and the second officer behind the driver.
• A second prisoner can be placed in the front seat.
• Individual officers will not transport more than one prisoner, nor a two officer unit more than two prisoners w/ out supervisory approval.

Question 163

4.108 Transporting Prisoners in Vehicles with Prisoner Screens.

Answer 163

In a standard one or two-officer patrol sedan equipped with a prisoner screen,

• Up to two prisoners of the same or opposite sex may be transported in the rear seat.
• In a two-officer unit, the second officer in the front passenger seat WILL periodically monitor prisoners.
• No more than two prisoners will be transported w/ out supervisory approval.

Question 164

4.108 Transporting Prisoners, Transport w/out delay.

Answer 164

• Officers will transport prisoners to the appropriate facility w/out delay and will NOT accompany them to their homes, eating establishments, restroom facilities, etc., where sight and control of the prisoner could be compromised.
• Prisoners will be denied public contact with others, and may not smoke, eat, or drink while being transported.
• Officers will not be diverted to any other law enforcement activities while transporting unless the risk to third parties is both clear and grave, the risk to the prisoner is minimal, and supervisory approval is given.
• Under no circumstances will a person under arrest be held in a transport vehicle longer than 2 hours before being transported.

Question 165

4.108 Transporting Prisoners. Escape of Prisoners.

Answer 165

• Transporting officer will notify dispatch and attempt to recapture the prisoner.
• The officer may request additional units to establish a perimeter, taking consideration to the original charge and level of threat to citizens in the area.
• Should the escape occur in another jurisdiction, the officer will notify dispatch and the agency in whose jurisdiction the escape occurred.
• An Officer’s Report will be completed detailing the events of the escape.

Question 166

4.108 Transporting Prisoners.

When will vehicles be searched to ensure no contraband, weapons, or other such items are present.

Answer 166

At the start of shift, immediately prior to and after transporting prisoners.

Question 167

4.108 Transporting Prisoners

Handicapped, Sick, Mentally Ill, or Injured Prisoners

Answer 167

Whenever possible, handicapped, sick, injured, or mentally I’ll prisoners will be transported in the same manner as other prisoners. In emergency situations, ambulance services may be required.

Question 168

4.108 Transporting Prisoners

Can a prisoner be placed in a department vehicle without first being handcuffed?

Answer 168

No, except under extraordinary situations approved by a supervisor.

Question 169

4.116 Driving/ Vehicle Procedures

Policy

Answer 169

The LVMPD must lead by example. Our driving expertise and our attitude toward road safety must be exemplary. We have the obligation to our community and to ourselves to ensure that we think and act with safety in mind while promoting a professional image. Emergency vehicles DO NOT have the absolute right of way and department members will operate police vehicles reasonably and always with due regard for the rights and safety of others at all times and regardless of circumstances.

Question 170

4.116 Driving/ Vehicle Procedures

Emergency Response Driving

Answer 170

The operation of a motor vehicle to respond to an emergency call for police service or to a location requiring immediate police presence or service.
Emergency lights and siren are activated, Code 3, up to 20 mph over posted speed limit, except for pursuits.

Question 171

4.116 Driving/ Vehicle Procedures

NRS 484.261, subsection 4/484B.700:

Answer 171

The provisions of this section do not relieve the driver from the duty to drive with due regard for the safety of all persons and do not protect the driver from consequences of reckless disregard for the safety of others.

Question 172

4.116 Driving/ Vehicle Procedures
Emergency Response Driving - Seatbelts.
All employees, citizens or arrestees occupying department vehicles will comply with NRS 484.461/ 484D.495 and wear seatbelts while the vehicle is in motion. The only exception to this rule is when the vehicle is traveling less than ______ miles per hour and the driver or passenger is expecting to exit the vehicle and take immediate police action once the vehicle has stopped.

Answer 172

15.

Question 173

4.116 Driving/ Vehicle Procedures
Emergency Response Driving- Parking vehicles.
Drivers shall park their vehicles in a practical manner and attempt to avoid parking where __________ may be required. All vehicles will be turned off and ________ when unoccupied.

Answer 173

Backing out, locked.

Question 174

4.116 Driving/ Vehicle Procedures
Emergency Response Driving.
If entering an intersection with right of way, officers will ______ and ensure that the intersection is clear before proceeding.

Answer 174

Slow.

Question 175

4.116.2 Driving/ Vehicle Procedures-Drivers Training

EVOC - Emergency Vehicle Operations Course Is mandatory as follows:

Answer 175

1. Recruits - Academy EVOC
2. PO’s - EVOC in each of the first three years of service
3. PO’s with more than three years of service - Annual web-based EVOC and, for uniformed first-responding officers, biennial EVOC recertification
4. FTO’s with more than three years of service/ Sergeants/ Lieutenants– Annual web-based Supervisor EVOC and biennial EVOC recertification(non-uninformed sergeants and lieutenants are exempt from the biennial recertification)
5. CO’s Civilian Employees, PSR’s, Cadets- Initial certification.

Question 176

4.116.2 Driving/ Vehicle Procedures-Drivers Training
Each sergeant will conduct an initial check ride and document the outcome of the check ride on all newly assigned officers who will be operating department vehicles within the ________ week of assignment.

Answer 176

First.

Question 177

4.116.4 Driving/ Vehicle Procedures-Drivers Training

Failure to Attend or Certify During EVOC.

Answer 177

• Commissioned employees who fail to participate or certify in mandatory EVOC will be assigned duties that do not require the operation of an agency vehicle until they are properly certified.
• The EVOC section will immediately notify, in writing, the officer’s chain of command that the employee has either failed to attend or certify.
• A statement of complaint will be filed against an officer if scheduled EVOC is missed twice without proper notification.

Question 178

4.116.3 Driving/ Vehicle Procedures-Department Vehicle Collisions and Collision Board.

Definitions- Collision

Answer 178

Any occurrence in which a driver of a vehicle COLLIDES with another vehicle, pedestrian, animal, bicycle, road debris, or another stationary object such as a tree, pole, or building, which results in BODILY INJURY, DEATH, DEATH of ANY PERSON, or results in the total damage to any vehicle or item of property to an apparent extent of $750 or more.

Question 179

4.116.3 Driving/ Vehicle Procedures-Department Vehicle Collisions and Collision Board.

Definitions- Incident

Answer 179

Any occurrence in which a driver of a vehicle COLLIDES with another vehicle, pedestrian, animal, bicycle, road debris, or another stationary object such as a tree, pole, or building which does NOT result in bodily injury, complaint of bodily injury, death of any person, or results in the total damage to any vehicle or item of property to an apparent extent of LESS than $750.

Question 180

4.116.4 Driving/ Vehicle Procedures-Department Vehicle Collisions and Collision Board.

Definitions- Excusable

Answer 180

A finding that a member involved in a collision may be preventable, BUT that the collision was unavoidable or excusable, considering all of the circumstances.

Question 181

4.116.4 Driving/ Vehicle Procedures-Department Vehicle Collisions and Collision Board.

Definitions- Preventable

Answer 181

A finding that a member involved in a collision violated department policies, procedures, training standards, or traffic laws.

Question 182

4.116.4 Driving/ Vehicle Procedures-Department Vehicle Collisions and Collision Board.

Definitions- Non-preventable

Answer 182

A finding that a member involved in a collision performed in accordance with department policies, procedures, training standards, and traffic laws.

Question 183

3.510.1 Hostage Plan

Definition- Hostage Incident

Answer 183

An incident in which a hostage taker has taken hostages.

Question 184

3.10.1 Hostage Plan

Definition- Incident Command Post (ICP)

Answer 184

A secure, designated location where the Patrol Division supervisors operate. It consists of the patrol supervisor, fire and medical personnel, and the public information officer (PIO)

Question 185

3.510.3 Hostage Plan

In a confirmed hostage situation, the SWAT commander will be immediately notified by who?

Answer 185

Communications

Question 186

3.510.3 Hostage Plan

Who is responsible for establishing an ICP?

Answer 186

Patrol Lieutenant

Question 187

3.510.3 Hostage Plan

(True or Flase)- Prior to the arrival of SWAT/ CNT, there will be no negotiations for the supply of weapons, ammunition, drugs, alcohol, or exchange of hostages?

Answer 187

True

Question 188

4.116 Driving/ Vehicle Procedures
All department member’s prior to the end of the member’s shift, will report the details of the collision via the Collision Report in Blue team. Who completes the Blue Team if an involved member is incapacitated?

Answer 188

The member’s supervisor.

Question 189

3.520.2 Bomb Threats

Definition- Bomb Threat

Answer 189

The expression of an intention to detonate an explosive device.

Question 190

3.520.2 Bomb Threats

Definition- Bomb extortion

Answer 190

A demand for material value or services in which an explosive device is indicated as a means perpetuating the extortion. This is a situation where clear intent is robbery and not associated with a defined terrorist activity.

Question 191

4.116 Driving/ Vehicle Procedures

Reporting Department Vehicle Collisions/ Incidents

Answer 191

All traffic collisions, training collisions, and incidents involving department vehicles will be thoroughly investigated by the Traffic Bureau or a commissioned patrol supervisor and administratively reviewed by the Vehicle Collision Board (VCB)

All department members involved or responding to a LVMPD involved vehicle collision who have BWC WILL, unless incapacitated, immediately activate the BWC and manually save it as “Pending Review.” This category will save it for FIVE years.

Question 192

4.116 Driving/ Vehicle Procedures
Investigation of Department Vehicle Collisions

The Commissioned Supervisor WILL:

Answer 192

1. Respond and conduct preliminary investigation.
   a. If the collision involves any other citizen’s vehicle, non-motorist, significant private property damage, PIT, blocking, pinching or ramming, request a Traffic Unit to respond.
   b. If the collision only arises to the level of an incident and no other citizen vehicle or non-motorist was involved, complete and submit LVMPD 393, Supervisor’s Report of Depart,meant Vehicle Incident to he involved member’s bureau/ area commander.
2. Ensure a check ride Report, LVMPD 461, is completed and forward a copy to VCB and AOST for entry in the member’s UMLV training record.
3. Ensure the involved member completes a Collision Report in Blue Team.
4. Direct the involved member to contact Litigation Section with any inquiries.

Question 193

4.116 Driving/ Vehicle Procedures
Investigation of Department Vehicle Collisions

Review of Agency Collisions- Vehicle Collision Board (VCB)

Purpose

Answer 193

The VCB will evaluate the causes of collisions involving the department vehicles which are operated or controlled by department members at the time of the collision. The board will determine if the department policies, procedures, training standards, or traffic laws have been violated, and assess appropriate disciplinary action/ training when warranted. If the collision is found to be preventable, the involved member may be subject to disciplinary action determined by the VCB.

Question 194

4.116 Driving/ Vehicle Procedures
Investigation of Department Vehicle Collisions

Supervisor’s Report of Department Vehicle Incident LVMPD 393.

Answer 194

Investigator
1. Commissioned Supervisor
Criteria
2. Visible damage is apparently minor
3. No injuries.
4. No other citizen vehicle or non-motorist involved.
5. Minor damage to private party.
6. Training collisions with minor injuries or minor to moderate damage.
7. Email to chain of command of member up to Division Commander.

Question 195

4.116 Driving/ Vehicle Procedures
Investigation of Department Vehicle Collisions

Incident Report LVMPD PD42 or PDO.

Answer 195

Investigator
1. Traffic Officer or Traffic Supervisor
Criteria
2. Visible damage is apparently minor.
3. No injuries or claimed injuries.
4. Involves citizen vehicle or non-motorist.
5. Training collision with serious injury or death or major property damage.
6. Any use of PIT, Blocking with contact, Pinching, or Ramming.
7. Email chain of command of member up to Assistant Sheriff.

Question 196

3.520.7 Bomb Threats

Upon arrival- Patrol officer will: perform an initial ___-foot search around the arrival area, then another ____- foot search around the arrival area, to include the CP and the staging area.

Answer 196

• 25

- 100

Question 197

4.116 Driving/ Vehicle Procedures
Investigation of Department Vehicle Collisions

State of Nevada Traffic Collision Report PDO/ NHP 5.

Answer 197

Investigator
1. Traffic Officer AND Traffic Supervisor.
NHP 5
2. Moderate to major damage.
3. Any injury or claimed injuries.
4. Notify watch commander.
5. Email to chain of command of member up to the Assistant Sheriff.

PDO collision reports are completed for non-injury, moderate to major damage which do not involve: non-motorists, unsolved hit-and-runs, commercial vehicle or school buses and trailers.

Question 198

3.520.6 Bomb Threats

When initiating evacuations of a high-rise building. How many floors should be evacuated?

Answer 198

At least 2 floors above and below the device.

Question 199

3.520.7 Bomb Threats

Failure to respond to an evacuation order is a violation of which NRS?

Answer 199

NRS 457.070

Question 200

4.130 Missing Persons and Runaways.

The Missing Persons Detail has the primary responsibility for follow-up on all missing persons, whether juvenile or adult. LVMPD will not require any waiting period to make a missing persons report based on what Act?

Answer 200

National Child Search Assistance Act of 1990.

Question 201

3.520.7 Bomb Threats

(True or False)- If a person is not readily available or able to easily be evacuated and is not in harms way based on the the information of threat and is outside of the mandatory evacuation zone listed on the FBI Bomb Threat Stand-off card, the person may shelter in place?

Answer 201

True

Question 202

3.520.7 Bomb Threats

Department personnel will not in any way _______, _______ or ______ an explosive device, either suspected or known.

Answer 202

• handle
• touch
• move

Question 203

4. 130 Missing Persons and Runaways.

In accordance with the National Child Search Act of 1990 and the federally mandated Suzanne’s Law, entry into NCIC will be made under the following circumstances:

Answer 203

1. All juveniles, 17 years old and younger, will be entered into NCIC within TWO hours of receiving the required minimum data elements.
2. Missing persons 18 through 20 years old will also be immediately entered into NCIC in accordance with the federally mandated Suzanne’s Law within TWO hours of receiving the required minimum data elements.
3. Adults may go missing for a variety of reasons. However, adults can only be entered into NCIC if the have a disability, are in physical danger, involuntary circumstances, victim of a catastrophe, or other suspicious circumstances.

Question 204

3.520.8 Bomb Threats

What two command and control locations will be established when a device or suspected device is located?

Answer 204

1. The Tactical Operations Center

2. The Field Command Post

Question 205

4.130 Missing Persons and Runaways

Minimum Data Elements for Missing Persons 20 years old and younger:
Obtained within two hours of initial contact for entry into NCIC. (9)

Answer 205

1. Name
2. DOB
3. Sex
4. Race
5. Height
6. Weight
7. Hair color
8. Eye color
9. Date of last known contact

Question 206

3.520.9 Bomb Threats

Department personnel will not release the following information on explosive devices to anyone outside law enforcement. (6)

Answer 206

1. Type of explosive
2. Components
3. Packing
4. Method used to detonate
5. Opinions as to why the device did or did not detonate
6. Investigative techniques used to mitigate the threat.

Question 207

4.130 Missing Persons and Runaways.

Does a report need to be finished if the juvenile is located before it is complete?

Answer 207

Yes, the report must still be completed and the NCIC record must be cancelled by contacting Records, the Fingerprint Bureau, and NCIC unit.

Question 208

4.130 Missing Persons and Runaways.

Contact a supervisor and notify the Missing Persons Detail, if the case remains unresolved after completing the preliminary investigation and the following criteria still applies: (6)

Answer 208

1. The missing person is under the age of TWELVE or the juvenile or adult has a documented diminished mental capacity equivalent to under TWELVE.
2. The missing person, adult or juvenile, has a physical or medical condition which could hinder their ability to care for themselves, posing a significant risk of death or serious bodily harm.
3. The missing person, adult or juvenile, is a possible victim of foul play.
4. The missing person, adult or juvenile, is actively threatening/ attempting suicide.
5. The missing person, adult or juvenile, has a potential life threatening situation.
6. The missing person is in possession of a large amount of money or a firearm.

Question 209

4.130 Missing Persons and Runaways.

Who is responsible for reporting a missing juvenile/ runaway placed into protective custody?

Answer 209

The CPS worker, the foster parent, or the group home manager is the responsible party.

Question 210

If feasible, before the use of any approved weapon, the officer will communicate with other officers in the area and issue a warning to the subject. Officers will give the subject a ______ _______ to comply. This is particularly important in preventing sympathetic fire when utilizing projectile weapons or the ECD.

Answer 210

Reasonable opportunity

Question 211

Officers will not use a baton, ECD, or projectile weapon on a woman who is believed to be ______unless the subject displays life-threatening resistance.

Answer 211

Pregnant

Question 212

Chokeholds are not permitted. Officers will not use an arm bar across the ____ or any technique that encircles the neck, including the Lateral Vascular Neck Restraint®(LVNR®). Any action that is likely to restrict the flow of air into a person’s lungs or blood into a person’s brain is prohibited

Answer 212

Throat

Question 213

Officers will not use an ECD or projectile weapon when the subject is in an elevated position where a fall is likely to result in substantial bodily injury or death unless the subject displays _________ resistance. This is particularly important when utilizing the ECD.

Answer 213

Life-threatening

Question 214

Officers will not use physical force solely to stop a person from swallowing a substance that is in their mouth or to retrieve ______ from a person’s mouth.

Answer 214

Evidence

Question 215

When a vicious dog (or other aggressive, unsecured animal) is encountered and the safety of officers or others is compromised, an officer should use a catchpole (preferred tool) or may use OC spray or ECD to stop or ward off an attack as options other than ____ _____

Answer 215

Deadly force

Question 216

4.162 Dispatch on 421 (Sick or Injured Calls) and Natural Deaths

Will patrol units be dispatched to routine 421 calls such as general illness?

Answer 216

No, but Patrol Units will be dispatched on 421 calls which:

1. Are suspicious in nature.
2. Are related to unknown trouble calls.
3. Involve injuries as a result of criminal activity or traffic accident.
4. Are the result of a gunshot.
5. Other circumstances indicate a need for police involvement.

Question 217

4.162 Dispatch on 421 (Sick or Injured Calls) and Natural Deaths

Is an ICR required if an injured person is suffering from a potential life-threatening injury or substantial head trauma?

Answer 217

Yes, An ICR (Sick or Injured) will be completed and photographs will be taken to document the details of the event.

Question 218

4.162 Dispatch on 421 (Sick or Injured Calls) and Natural Deaths

If an officer arrives on a call where a resident, or person responsible for the structure, is transported and there is no other responsible party to care for the structure, the officer should secure the structure or request dispatch to call the on-call company to secure the structure. ___________________ will be billed by the on-call company for the service.

Answer 218

The property owner.

Question 219

4.162 Dispatch on 421 (Sick or Injured Calls) and Natural Deaths

Manners of Death as defined by the Clark County Coroner’s Office: (5)

Answer 219

1. Natural
2. Accidental
3. Homicide
4. Suicide
5. Undetermined

Question 220

Officers are to exercise care and caution in handling department-approved weapons. Officers will refrain from the ______ drawing, handling, or exhibiting of a weapon while in public; the purpose of drawing and manipulating a department-approved tool is to address a potential conflict or tactical situation at hand.

Answer 220

Unnecessary

Question 221

4.162.2 Response to Homicides and Suspicious Deaths

Patrol officer will:
1. Upon arriving at the scene, determine the death to be suspicious or the result of a homicide, and:
A. Secure the scene, obtain all the contact information from the witnesses, family members, person reporting, and/ or suspects.
B. Request a crime scene analyst
C. Notify the Homicide Section via communications.
D. Maintain security of the scene, witnesses, family members, person reporting, and/ or suspects until relieved by Homicide personnel.
E. Complete the Major Incident Log.
F. Separate and have the witnesses begin filling out Voluntary Statements.

The Supervisor WILL:

Answer 221

Respond to the scene, confirm with the patrol officer that the death appears to be suspicious be the result of a homicide, and:

1. Ensure the crime scene analyst have been requested.
2. Ensure detectives from Homicide have been notified.

Question 222

4.162.3 Response to Dead Bodies - Not SuspiciousDeaths

Supervisors will respond to the scene (unless the death appears to be natural),confirm with the patrol officer that the death is NOT suspicious or the result of a homicide and :

Answer 222

1. Ensure the crime scene analyst have been requested on all suicides, overdoses, and other deaths that are not considered natural.
2. Ensure the Deputy Coroner Investigator has been requested.
3. Ensure the Dead Body Incident Report is complete and detailed on all death events, as this may be the only documentation of the death.

Question 223

4.162.5 Personal Property of the Decedent on a Dead Body Call.

Who is responsible for impounding person property belonging to a decedent such as identification, money, jewelry, and automobiles?

Answer 223

The Deputy Coroner Investigator.

If the vehicle is a hazard in the roadway, LVMPD will have it towed.

Question 224

4.162.5 Firearms at the scene of a Dead Body Call.

Only the firearm used in the incident (Suicide, Accidental Shooting, etc.) will be impounded by _____________________.
All other firearms will be the responsibility of the ____________________________.
___________________ may impound other firearms for safekeeping when a threat to life or safety exists.

Answer 224

Crime scene analyst.
Deputy Coroner Investigator.
Patrol officers.

Question 225

4.162.9 Response to Deceased Children

A Patrol Officer and a supervisor will be dispatched on all events related to the death of a child.
The Abuse/ Neglect Detail Lieutenant will be notified on all child related deaths.
The Homicide Section and/ or the Abuse/ Neglect Detail will respond to child deaths resulting from the following:

Answer 225

1. Non accidental.
2. An intentional act.
3. Injuries and/ or deaths resulting from blunt force trauma or the child may have been “shaken”.
4. Medical neglect.

Question 226

4.180 Community Policing and the SARA Method

It is the policy of this department to address both __________ and __________________ problem solving issues through community policing.

Answer 226

Crime

Quality of life

Question 227

4.180 Community Policing and the SARA Method

Definition SARA:

Answer 227

A nationally recognized model developed to implement and facilitate the problem solving process consisting of four steps:

1. Scanning
2. Analysis
3. Response
4. Assessment

Question 228

4.180 Community Policing and the SARA Method

Goals for the SARA response:

Answer 228

1. Eliminate the problem.
2. Reduce the number of incidents.
3. Reduce the seriousness of the incidents.
4. Design methods for a better handling of the incident.
5. Remove the problem from police consideration.

Question 229

4.180 Community Policing and the SARA Method

What forms are used to document the problem solving efforts.

Answer 229

Citizen Service Request, LVMPD 132.
Community Policing Service Request, LVMPD 241.
Project Worksheet Long Form, LVMPD 239
Small Problem or Spot Checks, LVMPD 240,
Problem Scanning Monitoring Log LVMPD 242

Question 230

60-Minute Rule

Answer 230

Investigative detention based on reasonable suspicion is strictly limited to 60 mins (NRS 171.123). Any detention beyond 60 minutes is a de facto arrest and requires probable cause to justify.

Question 231

Search & Seizure-Abandonment define

Answer 231

Adjective words or actions clearly show that a person has disclaimed ownership, dominion and control over real or personal property.


Question 232

Search & Seizure- Administrative checkpoint define

Answer 232

These are policy justified searches which do not require reasonable suspicion or probable calls; however, the intrusion in such cases must be brief and slight, and the determination to stop must be made according to some articulable, non-arbitrary standard and comply with an NRS 484B.0570

Question 233

Search & Seizure- Administrative search warrant define

Answer 233

A warrant issued by a judge on the application of agency. Agencies with enforcement powers seek administrative warrants to search for evidence non-compliance with the law. 

Question 234

Search & Seizure- purpose and scope

Answer 234

To strictly adhere to the constitution of the United States. The fourth amendment protects an expectation of privacy that must be both reasonable and legitimate

Question 235

Search & Seizure- The 4th amendment

Answer 235

The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers and effects against unreasonable searches and seizures shall not be violated with no warrants shall issue but upon probable cause supported by oath of affirmation and particularly describing the place to be searched and the person or things to be seized. 

Question 236

Search & Seizure- forced entry define

Answer 236

Entry into a structure or vehicle which requires a tool or use a force to gain entry and may cause damage to the structure or vehicle, A “tool” includes but not limited to a ram, Halligan tool, etc

Question 237

Approved Use for Handcuffs:

Answer 237

a. During investigative detentions (“Terry Stops,” see LVMPD 5.100, Search and Seizure) where one or more of the following factors are present and only for as long as the circumstances exist, not to exceed 60 minutes (per NRS 171.123):
1) Articulable facts that the subject is physically uncooperative
2) Articulable facts that a subject’s actions may present physical danger to themselves or others if not restrained
3) Reasonable possibility of flight based on the actions of the subject
4) Information that the subject is currently armed
5) The stop closely follows a violent crime, and the subject matches specific parts of a description
6) Articulable facts that a crime of violence is about to occur
b. Suicidal persons
c. During a search warrant service, as is reasonably necessary, to safely execute the warrant
d. Persons being transported to detoxification facilities
e. By officers moving in-custody subjects

Question 238

OC spray will not be used on a handcuffed subject unless the subject is displaying ______ ________.

Answer 238

Assaultive resistance

Question 239

The ECD will not be used:

Answer 239

1) On a handcuffed person.
2) When the officer knows a subject has come in contact with flammable liquids or substances.
3) On a fleeing subject (without other known factors). Mere flight from an officer cannot be the sole justification for use of the ECD.
4) On persons with known heart conditions.

Question 240

When deploying an ECD, officers will:

Answer 240

1) Use the standard ECD five second cycle, and then evaluate the need to apply another five second cycle after providing the subject with an opportunity to comply. Each subsequent five second cycle requires additional justification. Once the subject has been exposed to three cycles, the ECD will be deemed ineffective and another use of force option will be considered unless exigent circumstances exist.
2) Begin restraint procedures, including cuffing under power, as soon as reasonably safe to minimize the total duration of ECD exposures.

Question 241

Use of force with a vehicle,

“Blocking” definition:

Answer 241

The positioning of a police vehicle in the path of an occupied subject vehicle where contact between the vehicles is anticipated to be minimal, and the potential for injuries is low. The intent of blocking is to prevent an avenue of escape by the safe placement of a police vehicle. Blocking is not a use of force.

Question 242

Use of force with a vehicle

“Precision intervention technique” (PIT) definition:

Answer 242

A specific manner of intentional contact using a police vehicle against a fleeing vehicle during a pursuit to cause the fleeing vehicle to come to an abrupt stop, rendering it immobile.

Question 243

Use of force with a vehicle

“Ramming” definition:

Answer 243

The utilization of a police vehicle to intentionally hit another vehicle.

Question 244

Use of force with a vehicle

“stationary vehicle immobilization technique” (pinching) definition:

Answer 244

A preplanned containment tactic restricted for use only by specialized units (not approved for Patrol Division). It employs extremely low-speed and intentional vehicle contact with a subject’s vehicle. The purpose is to prevent a vehicle pursuit and render a vehicle immobile.

Question 245

Deployment Requirement for PIT:

Answer 245

a. Prior to initiating a PIT, officers will use their emergency equipment and will give the operator of the subject vehicle a reasonable opportunity to stop.
1) Officers will advise Dispatch the intent to use a PIT if circumstances permit. Otherwise, notification will be made immediately after.
a) Dispatch will update the CAD event accordingly.

Question 246

Disapproved Use of PIT:

Answer 246

a. Officers driving department trucks or non-patrol SUV-type vehicles are not authorized to use a PIT (exception: Major Violator Section, Narcotics Section, and Viper Section trucks/mini- vans/SUVs).
b. On motorcycles

Question 247

Tactical Considerations:
Officers will consider the safety of the public and subjects before utilizing PIT, the stationary vehicle immobilization technique (pinching), or ramming.
a. Environmental factors:

Answer 247

1) Areas with pedestrians
2) Other vehicle traffic
3) Parked vehicles
4) Telephone/utility poles
5) Bridges/overpasses
6) Areas adjacent to paved roads with a significant elevation change
7) Significant curves in the roadway

Question 248

Tactical Considerations:
Officers will consider the safety of the public and subjects before utilizing PIT, the stationary vehicle immobilization technique (pinching), or ramming.

Subject factors:

Answer 248

1) Severity of the crime
2) Number of subjects
3) Subjects known to have access to firearms
4) Potential of the subject to use the vehicle as a weapon
5) Potential of creating a crossfire situation
6) Size/weight of the subject’s vehicle compared to the police vehicle

Question 249

When time permits, two officers will be present for the deployment of a projectile weapon; this is the most effective and best practice in utilizing a low lethality shotgun or 40mm specialty impact weapon. In ______ circumstances, a single officer can deploy and use a projectile weapon; however, the officer will apply sound tactics to mitigate risk and will maintain a readiness to transition to their firearm.

Answer 249

Exigent

Question 250

Witness Identification-General

Answer 250

When eyewitness identification is used as an investigative tool, officers shall adhere to the procedure set forth in order to maximize the reliability of identification, Minimize unjust accusations of innocent persons and to establish evidence that is reliable in conformance with established legal procedures. This policy pertains especially to photo lineups, lineups, and show ups. Mug books generated by officers will not be shown to witnesses for identification purposes, unless specifically requested by the district attorneys office. 

Question 251

Projectile weapons may be used against persons who are holding a firearm if it can be utilized to de-escalate and intervene with a potential deadly force situation; however, the following conditions must be met:

Answer 251

1) A minimum of two officers are present, one officer acting as lethal coverage.
2) Officers have considered the use of available cover/concealment.

Question 252

Witness Identification- Eyewitness define

Answer 252

A person, including a victim, who views a photo lineup live lineup, or a show up and who’s identification by sight of another person may be relevant in a criminal proceeding.

Question 253

Disapproved Use for Projectile Weapons:
a. In a civil unrest situation unless authorized by an _______ ________ or above. Each application must target a specific individual who presents an imminent threat, and it must be reasonably assured that other individuals in the crowd who pose no threat will not be struck by the munitions. Officers will not intentionally target the head, neck, spine, pelvis, or any other vital area of the body unless the person poses an immediate threat of physical harm or death to officers or others

Answer 253

incident commander

Question 254

Witness Identification- Fillers define

Answer 254

Individuals or photographs of individuals that resemble the description of the suspect, will not permitting the suspect to stand out, that are used to fill in a live lineup or photo lineup. A minimum of five fillers will be used with any simultaneous  or sequential lineup. Individuals who are suspects in the same case will not be used as fillers. Only one suspect per lineup (Live or photo) will be used. 

Question 255

What are “special purpose rifle (SPR) overwatch assignments”

Answer 255

SPR officers assigned in an over-watch capacity at special events whose primary function is observation and intelligence gathering.

Question 256

What is “directed rifle patrol”

Answer 256

Open carry/overt carry deployment where the rifle will remain in the cruiser ready condition. The rifle will remain in that condition until there is potential for the use of deadly force.

Question 257

When is a weapon “cruiser ready”

Answer 257

Empty chamber, bolt forward, magazine inserted, and the safety on.

Question 258

Witness Identification- Independent administrator define

Answer 258

An officer who is not participating in the investigation of the criminal offense, is unaware of which person in the lineup is the potential suspect and shows the photo lineup to the eyewitness. The use of an independent administrator in a photo lineup is known as the “double blind” method.

Question 259

Witness Identification-Live lineup define

Answer 259

And identification procedure conducted at a detention center in which a group of persons, including the suspect, is displayed to an eyewitness to determine whether the eyewitness identifies the suspect as the perpetrator of a crime.

Question 260

Officers will not discharge their firearm at a moving vehicle unless:

Answer 260

a. A person in the vehicle is an imminent deadly threat to officers or others by means other than the vehicle (such as an occupant firing a handgun at an officer).
b. The driver is using the vehicle as a weapon to inflict mass causalities (such as a truck driving through a crowd).

Officers will not discharge a firearm from their moving (department) vehicle unless a person is an imminent deadly threat to officers or others (such a discharge must be limited to the most extreme circumstances).

Question 261

Humanely Euthanize Injured or Dangerous Animals:

a. Approved use:

Answer 261

1) Only after attempts have been made to request assistance from the agency responsible for the disposal of animals (e.g., Humane Society, animal control, or game warden) (see LVMPD 3.340, Safe and Humane Disposal of Animals at Resident Locations for an exception).
2) If the animal’s owner is present and does not wish to transport the animal to veterinary care.
3) When the animal is so badly injured as to require humane relief from further suffering.

Question 262

Witness Identification-Photo lineup define

Answer 262

An identification procedure in which a array of photos, including a photograph of the suspect, is displayed to an eyewitness in hardcopy or by digital image to determine whether the eyewitness identifies the subject as the perpetrator of the crime. Photo lineups are shown in either a simultaneous or sequential format.

Question 263

Rifle Deployment:

a. An officer may deploy a rifle based on any of the following:

Answer 263

1) There is a potential for deadly force or the subject is armed with a deadly weapon.
2) Distance and the use of cover are considerations due to the suspect’s location.
3) The suspect is barricaded.
4) The deployment has been pre-approved (e.g., Airport Bureau or officers assigned to a special event).

Question 264

Officer(s) deploying rifle(s) will: (3)

Answer 264

1) Announce via radio the deployment of the rifle, and whether accompanied by a cover officer (acting as an observer), and receive an acknowledgment from Dispatch. (Dispatch will update the event in CAD.)
2) Whenever possible, a rifle will be deployed using a two-officer team, consisting of a single rifle carrier supported by a cover officer. The rifle carrier should not go hands-on during the incident and should not be manipulating or moving any objects.
a) The cover officer will deploy along with a rifle officer and will assist with security, safety, going hands-on, radio communication, verbal communication, and other tasks so the rifle officer can focus on their role. It is preferred that cover officers are rifle certified.
3) Advise Dispatch of deployment location and update whenever location changes, thus providing situational awareness to on-scene personnel.

Question 265

Witness Identification-sequential photo lineup define

Answer 265

An array of photographs of individuals that include the potential suspect and five fillers who are similar in appearance to the description of the suspect provided by the eyewitness that are presented one at a time to an eyewitness for identification purposes.

Question 266

Rifle Deployment:

After an officer deploys a rifle
Bureau/area supervisor will:

Answer 266

1) Proceed immediately to the incident and assume tactical control.
2) Ensure proper deployment of rifles and address over-deployment and crossfire issues.

Question 267

True or false

When multiple officers have deployed rifles, the supervisor will designate one deploying officer to complete the Rifle Deployment Report, listing all officers who deployed a rifle.

Answer 267

True

Question 268

The (rifle deployment) report will detail the following: (3)

Answer 268

1) Details of the incident.
2) Nature of the threat resulting in the decision to deploy a rifle.
3) Number and locations of all rifle-deployed officers in the incident.

Question 269

Witness Identification- Show up, (commonly referred to as one on one) define

Answer 269

An identification procedure in which the suspect appears individually for the possible identification by the eyewitness as the perpetrator of a crime

Question 270

POST USE OF FORCE INVESTIGATIONS DEFINITIONS

Monitor officer

Answer 270

A designated officer who is not involved in the use of deadly force and whose responsibilities are to prevent discussions regarding the incident among subject officers, witness officers, witnesses, and with other individuals who arrive at the scene prior to the Force Investigation Team (FIT).

Question 271

Witness Identification-simultaneous photo lineup (six pack) define

Answer 271

A computer generated array of photographs of individuals that include the potential suspect and five fillers who are similar in appearance that is presented on a single sheet of paper to an eyewitness for identification purposes.

Question 272

POST USE OF FORCE INVESTIGATIONS DEFINITIONS

“Public Safety Statement” (PSS)

Answer 272

A series of questions to obtain information to determine if there is an immediate threat to public safety.

Question 273

Non-deadly force requiring a Use of Force Report will be investigated by the officer’s ____ __ _______.

a. Acting supervisors are not authorized to complete this investigation.
b. Supervisors involved in the use of force incident will not investigate other subject officers; investigative duties will be relinquished to the next level of supervision in the officer’s chain of command.

Answer 273

Chain of command

Question 274

True or false

All reportable uses of force on a subject, regardless of visible injury, will be photographed and downloaded into Blue Team.

Answer 274

True

Question 275

When an ECD is used, the officer will:

Answer 275

1) Handle the probes in the same manner as contaminated needles in accordance with bio- hazard disposal procedures (see LVMPD 10.254, Occupational Exposure to Blood or Other Potentially Infectious Materials), and impound all probes, wires, and cartridges as evidence.
2) Provide the ECD to a supervisor for data download.

Question 276

Body Word Cameras

Answer 276

Body worn cameras (BWC) are a valuable tool for promoting professionalism, public trust and transparency in policing by recording citizen contacts with officers. BWCs are also effective in capturing video and audio evidence for use in criminal prosecutions and internal investigations. In it’s utilization of BWCs , the department respects the legitimate privacy interest of citizens.

Question 277

Investigative Responsibilities – Use of Non-Deadly Force

A supervisor will:

Answer 277

a. Respond, without delay, to an incident in which reportable force is used.
b. Determine the level of force;
c. Conduct an investigation by interviewing the subjects, officers, medical personnel, and witnesses.
d. Ensure photographs are taken and placed into Blue Team, to include the subjects, the scene, officers involved, and collect any evidence.
e. For the review of body worn camera video, see LVMPD 7.136, Body Worn Cameras.
f. Check the surrounding area for any video surveillance, obtain a copy, and ensure the third-
party video is impounded as evidence and noted in Blue Team.
g. Review all applicable reports to ensure accuracy and completeness.

h. When an ECD has been used:
1) Ensure the data record has been uploaded into Blue Team.
2) Verify the probes, wires, and cartridges are properly impounded, and arrange for replacement cartridges (accidental discharges will not require impounding unless there has been an injury).
i. Document the investigation in a Citizen Contact (CC) in Blue Team when alleged use of force is determined to be unfounded.

Question 278

Body Word Cameras Use

Answer 278

The digital technology section (DTS) is responsible for the management of LVMPD‘s BWC program. 

Question 279

a. When an officer discharges a firearm, uses deadly force, has a negligent discharge of a firearm during a police operation, uses any force resulting in death or causes substantial bodily injury, or becomes aware of an in-custody death, the officer will:

Answer 279

1) Ensure life safety.
2) Ensure the scene is safe and secure.
3) Notify Dispatch (via radio if on-duty; Dispatch will update the CAD event accordingly):
a) If needed, request medical assistance and provide information on injuries.
b) Include suspect description and location.
4) Once the scene is static, an officer should not modify, load, or unload any firearm used prior to the countdown by FIT. In addition, the officer will not modify their attire to include positioning of their equipment and BWC.

Question 280

What is the supervisor’s criteria for response to a STAR protocol?

Answer 280

1. There is credible information the subject is armed with a firearm or other dangerous weapon (not simulated or unseen) AND is using it in a manner that can cause death or serious bodily injury.
2. Subject is acting in a threatening manner with the weapon.
3. This will not include open carry subjects or pocketknives, when carrying the weapon(s) is the sole justification for the call.

Question 281

Body Word Cameras Use- Digital technology section (DTS) issues cameras to:

Answer 281

1. Uniform officers and sergeants regularly assigned to:

A. The community policing division (CDP)
B. The tourist safety division (TSD)
C. SWAT
D. The gang enforcement team (GET)
E. K9
F. Headquarter security detail

2. Plainclothes officers and sergeants assigned to the Major Violators and Narcotics bureaus (MVNB)
3. Any employee who transfers or is promoted to another assignment based on a TPAN which requires the employee to wear a BWC.



Question 282

Upon notification of a STAR protocol, patrol supervisor will what steps?

Answer 282

1. Announce their acknowledgment and self dispatch to the call. If unavailable to respond, will ensure communications requests a sergeant/ lieutenant from another area command to respond.
2. Be responsible for tactics and supervision of the incident.
3. Make the determination for the use of a shotgun, rifle, arrest team, less lethal option, or other tools/ resources (I.e. shield, air unit, K9, swat)
4. Rifle deployment will be determined by department policy.
5. Ensure an officer or communications contacts fusion watch to get a complete work up on the subject when necessary.
6. Maintain the STAR de-escalation protocol, unless the first arriving unit confirmed the incident no longer meets the criteria of a STAR de-escalation response.

A. In incidents determined to no longer meet the criteria of a STAR de-escalation protocol, supervisors will ensure units advise communications of the reasoning and that communications updates event accordingly.

7. Advise communications via radio communications of applicable STAR code.

Question 283

What is the definition of National Incident Management System?

Answer 283

NIMS was developed so responders from different jurisdictions and disciplines can work together to react better to natural disasters and emergencies, including acts of Terrorism. Benefits include a unified approach to incident management; standard command and management structures; and emphasis on preparedness, mutual aid, and resource management.

Question 284

What is the definition of Incident Command System (ICS)?

Answer 284

The standard tool used for command, control, response coordination, and overall management of complex incidents, planned events, or emergencies. This system permits a clear point of command and can be expanded or contracted with ease.

Question 285

What is the definition of Unified Command?

Answer 285

A team effort that allows agencies with jurisdictional responsibility, either geographical or functional, to participate in the management of an incident.

Question 286

Body Word Cameras Use- Camera operator responsibilities

Answer 286

1. Officers will not use personally owned video recording devices only utilize their assigned BWC
2. Officers must be trained prior to use. All training related to BWC’s will be developed and conducted jointly by the system administration unit (SAU) and the organizational development bureau (ODB).
3. Officers and supervisors assigned a BWC where the device while in uniform.

A. The BWC‘s will be worn on the collar, epaulette, eyewear or head mount as instructed during BWC training.

B. Officers will wear their BWC on the non-weapon bearing shoulder to allow for firing a long gun. This will ensure, under most circumstances, the BWC has an optimum or unobscured forward view.

C. If the BWC shifts and is no longer recording an unobscured view, officers will reposition the BWC, once aware, and it is safe to do so to maintain an optimal field of view.

4. Plainclothes officers who have been issued a BWC, regardless of assignment, will wear the BWC:

A. During a preplanned enforcement activities when it is practical and safe to don the BWC. The department recognizes that the BWC is not for surveillance, and is not expected to record the entirety of operations. This mandate applies to LVMPD officers assigned to federal task force; however, BWC activation may be restricted for specific or sensitive investigations Per the department of justice (DOJ) parameters.

B. In circumstances where police action is anticipated and the time permits the officer to don the BWC.

5. Officers will check at the start of shift that the BWC has a fully charged battery and is functioning properly
6. During an officers shift the BWC must remain powered on to ensure the BWC or capture a 32nd window of footage prior to it and Officer activating the camera.
7. Officers must notify a supervisor when they become aware there is a malfunction or damage to the BWC, document the malfunction/damage in an email and submit to SAU.
8. Officers will place the BWC into a docking station for upload and charge at the end of shift.
9. Officers will ensure videos are uploaded to evidence.com, properly labeled, and assigned an appropriate retention category.
10. BWC officers working special events will wear their assigned BWC during the shift unless directed otherwise by the Events Planning Section.

Question 287

Investigative Responsibilities – Use of Deadly Force or Force Resulting in Death or Substantial Bodily Injury

The first-arriving supervisor will:

Answer 287

a. Act as incident commander (per LVMPD 3.500, Major Incident and All Hazard Plan) until relieved and will:
1) Ensure medical attention is provided for those in need.
2) Ensure the crime scene is safe and secure, preventing the possibility of contamination or alteration.
a) This responsibility includes the removal of unauthorized persons, including officers from the inner perimeter of the crime scene. A degree of tact and good judgment must be exercised to avoid alienating potential witnesses who may possess information of value.
3) Update Dispatch and request that notifications be made. a) Dispatch will update the CAD event accordingly.
4) Coordinate the search for outstanding suspects.
5) Oversee the identification and isolation of witnesses.
6) Ensure witness officers and subject officers are separated and placed in a secure environment with a monitor officer. The monitor officer will:
a) Not talk to the officer about the facts and circumstances of the incident.
b) Ensure that under no circumstance any representative be allowed to speak to or move the location of any subject or witness officer prior to a FIT supervisor’s approval.
c) Ensure that subject officers and witness officers do not discuss the incident being investigated.
d) Remain with the officer until the firearms countdown is completed or dismissed by a FIT supervisor.

b. Provide FIT detectives on the names and locations of the subject officers and potential witness officers. If there is concern that an officer is not a witness officer, but a subject officer, the ranking FIT supervisor will make the final determination regarding the status of the officer(s).
c. Remain on scene, and do not leave until released by the FIT supervisor.

Question 288

3.510.3 Hostage Plan

What will any subsequent arriving supervisor do?

Answer 288

Assess and determine where they are needed and establish communication with the first arriving supervisor to provide support.

Question 289

3.520.2 Bomb Threats

According to the FBI Bomb Threat Stand-Off Card, what is the mandatory evacuation distance for a Pipe Bomb or 5lbs explosive capacity?

Answer 289

70 ft

Question 290

3.520.2 Bomb Threats

According to the FBI Bomb Threat Stand-Off Card, what is the mandatory evacuation distance for a Suicide bomber or 20lbs explosive capacity?

Answer 290

110 ft

Question 291

3.520.2 Bomb Threats

According to the FBI Bomb Threat Stand-Off Card, what is the mandatory evacuation distance for a Brief case or 50 lbs explosive capacity?

Answer 291

150 ft

Question 292

3.520.2 Bomb Threats

According to the FBI Bomb Threat Stand-Off Card, what is the mandatory evacuation distance for a Car or 500 lbs explosive capacity?

Answer 292

320 ft

Question 293

3.520.2 Bomb Threats

According to the FBI Bomb Threat Stand-Off Card, what is the mandatory evacuation distance for a SUV/Van or 1,000 lbs explosive capacity?

Answer 293

400 ft

Question 294

3.520.2 Bomb Threats

According to the FBI Bomb Threat Stand-Off Card, what is the mandatory evacuation distance for a Small delivery truck or 4,000 lbs explosive capacity?

Answer 294

640 ft

Question 295

3.520.2 Bomb Threats

According to the FBI Bomb Threat Stand-Off Card, what is the mandatory evacuation distance for a Container/Water truck or 10,000 lbs explosive capacity?

Answer 295

860 ft

Question 296

3.520.2 Bomb Threats

According to the FBI Bomb Threat Stand-Off Card, what is the mandatory evacuation distance for a Semi-Trailer or 60,000 lbs explosive capacity?

Answer 296

1570 ft

Question 297

3.520.2 Bomb Threats

Personnel are cautioned against radio transmissions in the vicinity of a device as it could cause detonation. How should they update the event?

Answer 297

Through MDT or phone line. Land lines should be used when possible

Question 298

3.520.5 Bomb Threats

In the event that a bomb threat is called against LVMPD HQ, radio silence will be maintained. HQ operation will not be disrupted, and personnel will not be ___________ without justification as determined by officers on scene.

Answer 298

evacuated

Question 299

3.520.6 Bomb Threats

5-Line Report:

Answer 299

1. Specific location of the suspected item- This will help determine the command post (CP), route to staging, and assist in establishing a good perimeter.
2. Unit number/Cell number of officer or patrol supervisor on scene- the ARMOR commander will need to contact the officer on scene to gather intelligence prior to dispatching resources.
3. Detailed description of item, photo (if available), and placement method- size, shape, container, was it thrown, placed, projected, ect.
4. Description of what resources, person(s) or critical infrastructure is threatened- Utility facility (water, power, gas, ect.), crowds, ect.
5. Protective measures taken- Perimeter, CP location, staging area, all locations taken.

Question 300

3.535 Protests

______ ___________ rights do not safeguard violations of established laws, advocating imminent violence, endangering or physically harassing people, rioting, looting, blocking the entrance to a building, or assembling on private property without the consent of the owner.

Answer 300

First Amendment

Question 301

3.535 Protests

Under Federal, State, and local law, governments are allowed to place _________ time, place and manner restrictions on the freedom of speech.

Answer 301

Reasonable

Question 302

3.535.1 Protests

What 3 forms of Protests are there?

Answer 302

• peaceful demonstrations
• civil disobedience
• riots

Question 303

3.535 Protests

Does the First Amendment safeguard against violations of established laws?

Answer 303

No

Question 304

3.535.2 Protests

Ideally, police action in a peaceful demonstration will be ________.

Answer 304

Minimal

Question 305

3.535.2 Protests

When it is necessary to implement crowd management measures or take enforcement action, it should be an __________ and well-communicated effort involving multiple officers and ___________ oversight.

Answer 305

• organized

- supervisory

Question 306

3.535.3 Protests

The department utilizes what tool as a standard for command and control, response coordination, and overall management of complex incidents, planned events or emergencies?

Answer 306

• (ICS) Incident Command Structure

Question 307

3.535.1 Protests

Definition of Protest:

Answer 307

A form of dissent, varying in degrees of action or disruption, identified as:

1. Peaceful Demonstration (A lawful public expression of objection, disapproval, or disent- toward an idea or action)
2. Civil Disobedience (Nonviolent protest where there is an intentional breach of the law)
3. Riot (An assembly that constitutes a clear and present danger of violent or unlawful acts, including, civil unrest, destruction of property, arson, looting, or when another immediate threat to public safety, peace, or order appears.)

Question 308

3.535.3 Protests

Who is responsible for attempting to communicate with Protest organizers or leaders?

Answer 308

Department supervisors

Question 309

3.535.3 Protests

What does communication between the department and protest leaders do?

Answer 309

• helps to clarify expectations of both demonstrators and police
• increases the likelihood that a demonstration will remain a peaceful and lawful gathering.

Question 310

3.535.3 Protests

Department ____________ will attempt to communicate with professional members of the media and legal observers.

Answer 310

Supervisors

Question 311

3.535.3 Protests

During Protests, if asked, do officers have to give their names and P#’s?

Answer 311

Yes- Officers Will give their names and P# if asked

Question 312

3.535.3 Protests

Officers will maintain a fair and professional attitude to all parties involved in a protest and avoid _________ any personal _________ concerning the protest.

Answer 312

• expressing

- opinion

Question 313

3.535.3 Protests

What will officers do to maintain impartiality during a protest?

Answer 313

• avoid fraternizing with parties involved in the protest.

Question 314

3.535.3 Protests

True or False

To help maintain the appearance of being impartial, if offerd by involved parties during a protest, officers may accept food or beverages.

Answer 314

False- officer will not accept food, beverages or any gratuity from any persons.

Question 315

3.535.3 Protests

In a protest, officers who do not have an issued body worn camera will be assigned with who?

Answer 315

• assigned with another officer who is equipped with a BWC.

Question 316

3.535.4 Protests

In an anticipated event who is responsible for acting as the liason with LVMPD and event organizers who are planning a protest?

Answer 316

The affected Partol Bureau and the Support Operations Bureau Captain.

Question 317

3.110 Use of Force

Officers will only use a level of force that is _________ __________ to bring an incident or persons under control and to safely accomplish a lawful purpose.

Answer 317

objectively reasonable

Question 318

3.110 Use of Force

De-Escalation:

Supervisors will __________ a thorough knowledge of _________ and ensure that officers under their supervision perform to a standard (in accordance with LVMPD policy and training).

Answer 318

• possess

- tactics

Question 319

3.110 Use of Force

Duty to Intervene:

Who does an Officer report observations of unjustified force used to, if their supervisor is using unjustified force?

Answer 319

The officer will report it to the next level of supervision.

Question 320

3.110 Use of Force

Duty to Intervene:

If you as a supervisor observe one of your officer’s using force that is unjustified, what will you do?

Answer 320

‐ issue a direct order to stop the violation

Question 321

7.430 Early Identification and Intervention Program (EIIP)

Is the LVMPD’s non-disciplinary approach to addressing ___________ ___________ problems.

Answer 321

Employee performance.

Question 322

7.430 Early Identification and Intervention Program (EIIP)

Primary responsibility is to identify ___________ and _____________ in employee behavior before they become realized risks and liabilities.

Answer 322

Trends, patterns.

Question 323

7.430 Early Identification and Intervention Program (EIIP)

Uses a proactive, multi-pronged, approach to research these TRENDS and PATTERNS which includes: (5)

Answer 323

1. Analysis - Disciplinary History; SOC, CC, CRB, UOF, sick time, OT, productivity.
2. Examination - Documentation; DOA’s, CAD, BWC, Dispatch recordings.
3. Interviews - All levels of Chain of Command regarding identified Trends and Patterns.
4. Training - POST with an eye toward best practices.
5. Recommendations - Training, Remedial Action, Support Services to address underlying issues.

Question 324

7.430 Early Identification and Intervention Program (EIIP)

Most Significant Benefits: (5)

Answer 324

1. Improving Supervision
2. Identifying TRENDS and PATTERNS in Employee Behavior early on
3. Strengthening the culture of INTEGRITY and ACCOUNTABILITY
4. REDUCING LITIGATION COSTS
5. Adopting proven BEST PRACTICES

Question 325

7.430 Early Identification and Intervention Program (EIIP)

Who can request Employee Performance Reviews (EPR) on their employees from EIIP?

Answer 325

Any supervisor.

Question 326

7.430 Early Identification and Intervention Program (EIIP)

The EIIP Alert System in an employee’s Blue Team Dashboard consists of 3 colors:

Answer 326

1. Green - No identified issues.
2. Yellow - ONE incident away from an identified threshold.
3. Red- Reached or surpassed identified threshold.

Question 327

7.430 Early Identification and Intervention Program (EIIP)

EIIP Alert thresholds are calculated over a rolling year, with the exception of___________ ______________ which are calculated over a rolling 60 months.

Answer 327

Firearm discharges

Question 328

7.430 Early Identification and Intervention Program (EIIP)

First line supervisors will review their employees’ Blue Teem on a MONTHLY basis and respond to EIIP Alerts in Blue Team within __________ calendar days of the chain receiving an EIIP Alert email notification.

Answer 328

14 days

Question 329

7.430 Early Identification and Intervention Program (EIIP)

EIIP alerts will be COMPLETELY COORDINATED through the employee’s chain of command and returned to EIIP via Blue Team within ________ calendar days of the chain of command receiving an alert email notification.

EIIP alerts will NOT be documented in Contact Reports.

Answer 329

45

Question 330

7.430 Early Identification and Intervention Program (EIIP)

Significant Event Reporting (SER) is:

Answer 330

A Blue Team based, confidential, and non-disciplinary process which focuses on employee well being. It allows EIIP to identify employees involved in significant events to ensure employee wellness over the long term by monitoring employee exposure to traumatic events.

Question 331

3.505 Barricaded Subject Plan

Barricaded Subject/ Incident Definition:

Answer 331

A subject who is believed to have been involved in a criminal act or is a significant threat to themselves or the safety of others; refuses to submit to arrest and may be armed; is in a position of advantage, affording cover and concealment; or is contained in an open area, and the presence or approach of police officers could precipitate an adverse reaction by the subject.

Question 332

3.505 Barricaded Subject Plan

Tactical Operations Center (TOC) Definition:

Answer 332

A secure, centralized location where SWAT Team Supervisors, Crisis Negotiation Team, Patrol Liason, and Investigative Services Division representative control tactical operations and coordinate negotiations.

Question 333

3.505 Barricaded Subject Plan

Incident Command Post (ICP) definition:

Answer 333

A secure, designated location where the Patrol Division supervisors operate. It consists of the patrol supervisor, fire and medical personnel, and the PIO.

Question 334

3.505 Barricaded Subject Plan

Patrol Supervisor will:

Answer 334

10. Upon arrival, assess the situation and take command by prioritizing and communicating objectives.
11. Reinforce the inner perimeter and establish a secondary perimeter based on the nature of the incident.
12. Direct units to stop any Inbound foot or vehicle traffic.
13. Assign officers as an immediate -action team (designating roles such as verbal communication, low lethality options, hands on, etc.) to control the subject should they exit the structure.
14. Gather intelligence, make a determination for the need of SWAT and negotiators to respond, and make the requests via Communications (when possible, the supervisor should also communicate telephonically with the SWAT tactical commander).
15. Evacuate or shelter in place bystanders and injured persons from the vicinity around the suspects location.
16. Designate an officer with strong verbal skills to make contact with the subject to determine the subject’s intent. If contact is made with the subject, ensure officers remain in a tactically sound position, using effective cover and concealment. Efforts should be made to persuade the suspect to voluntarily surrender.
17. Request a dedicated radio channel with a dispatcher, if required.
18. Communicate with and direct subsequent arriving supervisors to perform other tasks that require handling.
    a. Any subsequent arriving supervisor will asses and determine where they are needed and establish communication with the first arriving supervisor to provide support. All supervisors on-scene have a responsibility in the command and control process.
19. Designate an officer to record names and addresses of persons and residences evacuated.

Question 335

3.505 Barricaded Subject Plan

Patrol Lieutenant, Incident Commander, or Watch Commander will:

Answer 335

20. Ensure officers and patrol supervisor are addressing the situation to a standard and make adjustments as needed.
21. Discuss the incident with the SWAT or Tactical Commander.
    a. The available intelligence on the subject’s background and motivation.
    b. The nature and severity of the crime. (Determine the threat to the public)
    c. The necessity for a large scale tactical response and neighborhood evacuations versus surveillance and other means to de-escalate the situation and prevent the use of deadly force.
22. Desígnate a location for evacuated citizens to gather that is safe and has facilities( schools, or shopping centers).
23. Establish an IC that:
    a. Is secured and is in close proximity to the scene, but is not in the line of sight of the suspect;
    b. Has an area for responding units to stage; and
    c. Has unobstructed radio and telephonic communications.
24. Establish ingress/ egress routes.
25. Request fire and medical support to the command post.
26. Assign an officer to function as a recorder to maintain a chronological log of events.
27. Advise communications of the command post phone number.
28. Assign a patrol supervisor or designee to the TOC, if necessary.
29. Request the Traffic Section supervisor to take control of the outer perimeter and any travels routes, thereby relieving patrol personnel.
30. Maintain control over the relief and deployment of patrol officers.
31. Function as or designate a media liaison, unless the public information office is present.
32. Notify emergency management coordinator when appropriate.

Question 336

3.510. An incident in which a hostage taker has taken hostages.

Answer 336

Hostage Incident

Question 337

3.510
A person who ceases unwilling persons to affect an escape, commit a crime, or further a cause, and possess a clear and present danger to the hostages and to the public at large.

Answer 337

Hostage Taker.

Question 338

3.510
A secure, designated location where the patrol division supervisors operate. It consist of the patrol supervisor, fire and medical personnel, and the public information officer.

Answer 338

Incident Command Post (ICP)

Question 339

3.510 Hostage Plan

A secured, centralize location where SWAT team supervisors, crisis negotiation team, patrol liaison, and investigative services division representative control tactical operations and coordinate negotiations.

Answer 339

Tactical Operations Center (TOC)

Question 340

3.520 Located Explosive Devices - Detonations.

The expression of an intention to detonate an explosive device.

Answer 340

Bomb threat

Question 341

3.520 Bomb Threats - Located Explosive Devices - Detonations.

A demand for material value or services in which an explosive device is indicated as a means of perpetrating the extortion. This is a situation where the clear intent is robbery and not associated with a defined terrorist activity.

Answer 341

Bomb extortion.

Question 342

3.520 Bomb Threats - Located Explosive Devices - Detonations.

CBRNE

Answer 342

Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear, Explosive.

Question 343

3.520 Bomb Threats - Located Explosive Devices - Detonations.

Any package\bag\item that, due to a proper threat assessment, is a possible danger to the people or property in the area.

Answer 343

Suspicious item.

Question 344

3.520 Bomb Threats - Located Explosive Devices - Detonations.

Unattended item

Answer 344

Any item that does not outwardly present itself as suspicious or threatening in nature; cannot be associated with a communicated threat; is not positioned to avoid observation and backslash or detection where people congregate; and critical assets are present. The owner may not be readily determined or located; however, there is usually a plausible explanation as to why the item was left unattended.

Question 345

3.520 Bomb Threats - Located Explosive Devices - Detonations.

Weapon of Mass Destruction (WMD)

Answer 345

Any weapon, device, or destructive device that is intended to create a great risk of death, or serious bodily injury through the release, dissemination, or impact of toxic or poisonous chemicals or their precursors; a biological agent, toxin, or vector; or radiation.

Question 346

3.520 Bomb Threats - Located Explosive Devices - Detonations.

25 foot and 100 foot Searches.

Answer 346

When responding to a bomb threat, unattended item, or suspicious item, officers should conduct 25 foot and 100 foot searches.

1. Upon arrival officers should do a visual search of 25 feet around their initial arrival location;
2. After the initial 25 foot search, a 100 foot search should be conducted;
3. If a new location is established for a command post, the 25 foot and 100 foot search shall be conducted again. These searches should be done from low to high in a 360° manner around the “safe area.”

Question 347

3.110 Use of Force

In a confrontation, an officer will continuously _________ their response and adjust any use of force accordingly based upon the level of resistance encountered.

Answer 347

• reassess

Question 348

3.110 Use of Force

What ages are considered to be extremes of age?

Answer 348

Under 13 and over 70

Question 349

3.110 Use of Force

Supervisors will acknowledge and respond to incidents in a timely manner when officer use of reportable Force is _________

Answer 349

• probable

Question 350

3.110 Use of Force

What will a supervisor do upon observing substandard officer approaches or flaws in tactical decisions?

Answer 350

• the supervisor will promptly act to correct any deficiencies.

Question 351

3.110 Use of Force

Whenever an officer applies a use of force option on a subject, when will they be required to immediately summon medical attention?

Answer 351

In uses of force that results in observable signs or complaints of injury or difficulty in breathing.

Question 352

3.110 Use of Force

After prisoner transport, if the prisoner experienced any of the following force applications. Who will the arresting officer notify?

1. Baton/Impact weapons – any strikes to the head, neck, chest, spine, kidneys, or groin area
2. Canine – all bites
3. Electronic control device (ECD) – probe strikes to the head, neck, chest, or groin area
4. Oleoresin capsicum (OC) spray – direct exposure to the facial area
5. Use of Force with a Projectile Weapon:
   a. Low lethality shotgun – all strikes
   b. 40mm specialty impact weapon – all strikes
6. Handgun/Shotgun/Rifle – all strikes
7. Use of Force with a Vehicle:
   a. Precision intervention technique (PIT)
   b. Ramming – all

Answer 352

Detention personnel and facility medical staff.

Question 353

3.110.01 Use of Force

Use of Force Model:

What level of Force has the potential to cause injury or substantial pain?

Answer 353

Intermediate

Question 354

3.110.1 Use of Force

What are the 4 Levels of resistance?

Answer 354

• Compliant
• Obstructive
• Assaultive
• Life-Threatening

Question 355

3.110.1 Use of Force

While attempting to place a suspect in handcuffs, they pull their arms into their body, keeping you from placing them in cuffs. What level of resistance is the suspect displaying?

Answer 355

-Obstructive

Question 356

3.110.3 Use of Force

Who will complete the Firearm Discharge report, if an officer discharges their firearm at a dog in self defense?

Answer 356

CIRT

Question 357

3.110.3 Use of Force

Investigative Responsibilities- Use of Non Deadly Force

True or False- If the Sergeant of an officer who was involved in the use of non deadly force, is not able to respond, an acting supervisor may complete the investigation?

Answer 357

-False (Acting supervisors are not authorized to complete this investigation)

Question 358

3.110.3 Use of Force

Investigative Responsibilities- Use of Non Deadly Force

Supervisors involved in the use of force incident will not Investigate other subject officers. Who will the Investigative duties be relinquished to?

Answer 358

The next level of supervision in the officer’s chain of command.

Question 359

Policy 7.240

When will emergency calls be dispatched?

Answer 359

emergency calls will be dispatched to on-shift units up to the conclusion of their shift

Question 360

Policy 7.240

Who will be notified of pending emergency calls?

Answer 360

Area Supervisor will be immediately called

Question 361

Policy 7.240

If no patrol units are available, who will be dispatched to the emergency call?

Answer 361

Area Supervisor

Question 362

Policy 7.240

When will units be dispatched to non-emergency calls?

Answer 362

up until 45 minutes before conclusion of shift

Question 363

Policy 7.240

Can non-emergency calls be held for PSR or Cadet if area units are available?

Answer 363

No, unless they are responding to higher priority calls

Question 364

Policy 7.240

Who’s responsible for keeping track of pending events and and personnel in the area?

Answer 364

Area Sergeant

Question 365

Policy 7.240

When will dispatcher advise are sergeant of calls holding?

Answer 365

after holding for 60 minutes

Question 366

Policy 7.240

What will the sergeant do if a call has been holding for 90 minutes?

Answer 366

contact PR and advise of extended delay

will decide to hold for next available unit or request for unit from neighboring area

Question 367

Policy 7.240

What will Area Sergeant do after advising PR of delay?

Answer 367

update event either via radio, MDT, or over the phone

Question 368

Policy 7.240

What will Area Sergeant do if a call is cancelled or delayed at their direction?

Answer 368

Contact PR and advise of reason for cancellation or delay

update event

Question 369

Policy 7.240

If a sergeant is unavailable to call a PR, who will call?

Answer 369

Dispatcher

Question 370

Policy 7.240

If an in custody call holds for 90 minutes, what will area sergeant do?

Answer 370

call PR and advise of delay

Send next available unit unless emergency circumstances exist

Question 371

Policy 7.240

How long will an in-custody call hold before dispatch advised the area sergeant?

Answer 371

60 minutes

Question 372

3.520 Bomb Threats- Located Devices and Detonations

5 pounds (Pipe Bomb) of explosives mandatory evacuation distance is:

Answer 372

Mandatory Evacuation 70 ft .

Shelter in Place 71-1199 ft.
Preferred Evacuation Distance +1200 ft.

Question 373

3.520 Bomb Threats- Located Devices and Detonations

20 pounds (Suicide Bomber) of explosives mandatory evacuation distance is:

Answer 373

Mandatory Evacuation 110 ft .

Shelter in Place 111-1699 ft.
Preferred Evacuation Distance +1700 ft.

Question 374

3.520 Bomb Threats- Located Devices and Detonations

50 pounds (Briefcase/ Suitcase) of explosives mandatory evacuation distance is:

Answer 374

Mandatory Evacuation 150 ft .

Shelter in Place 151-1849 ft.
Preferred Evacuation Distance +1850 ft.

Question 375

3.520 Bomb Threats- Located Devices and Detonations

500 pounds (Car) of explosives mandatory evacuation distance is:

Answer 375

Mandatory Evacuation 320 ft .

Shelter in Place 321-1899 ft.
Preferred Evacuation Distance +1900 ft.

Question 376

3.520 Bomb Threats- Located Devices and Detonations

1,000 pounds (SUV/ Van) of explosives mandatory evacuation distance is:

Answer 376

Mandatory Evacuation 400 ft .

Shelter in Place 401-2399 ft.
Preferred Evacuation Distance +2400 ft.

Question 377

3.520 Bomb Threats- Located Devices and Detonations

4,000 pounds (Small Delivery Truck) of explosives mandatory evacuation distance is:

Answer 377

Mandatory Evacuation 640 ft .

Shelter in Place 641-3799 ft.
Preferred Evacuation Distance +3800 ft.

Question 378

3.520 Bomb Threats- Located Devices and Detonations

10,000 pounds (Container/ Water Truck) of explosives mandatory evacuation distance is:

Answer 378

Mandatory Evacuation 860 ft .

Shelter in Place 861-5099 ft.
Preferred Evacuation Distance +5100ft.

Question 379

3.520 Bomb Threats- Located Devices and Detonations

60,000 pounds (Semi-Trailer) of explosives mandatory evacuation distance is:

Answer 379

Mandatory Evacuation 1570 ft .

Shelter in Place 1571-9299 ft.
Preferred Evacuation Distance +9300ft.

Question 380

3.520 Bomb Threats- Located Devices and Detonations

When the ranking field supervisor requests ARMOR, a responsible person from the establishment will be advised, by the field supervisor, of the potential for explosion, and an evacuation of the premises will be initiated. At least _______________ above and below the device should be evacuated in a high-rise building.

Answer 380

Two floors.

Question 381

3.520 Bomb Threats- Located Devices and Detonations

If a person i in the mandatory evacuation zone, the person must be evacuated to safety. Failure to respond to an evacuation order is a violation of NRS_______________.

Answer 381

NRS 475.070.

Question 382

3.530 Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear or Explosive Incident Plan.

ARMOR stands for:

Answer 382

All hazaRd Multi-agency Operations and Response ——section of the emergency operations bureau.

Question 383

3.530 Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear or Explosive Incident Plan.

Who is designated as a lead agency for all Weapons of Mass Destruction and Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear, Explosive incidents?

Answer 383

The FBI per Presidential Decision Directive 39 - PDD39.

Question 384

3.530 Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear or Explosive Incident Plan.

The systematic removal of persons from a POTENTIALLY hazardous situation or environment?

Answer 384

Evacuation.

Question 385

3.530 Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear or Explosive Incident Plan.

The systematic removal of persons from a hazardous situation or environment. ____________ in the contaminated area will only be conducted by properly equipped personnel.

Answer 385

Rescue(s).

Question 386

3.530 Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear or Explosive Incident Plan.

The first officer will stay up wind, evaluate the situation and inform the Communications Bureau of the details, including:

Answer 386

1. Location,
2. Type of hazardous material,
3. Carrier-making type,
4. Injuries,
5. Need for additional assistance,
6. Wind direction.

Question 387

3.530 Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear or Explosive Incident Plan.

The first supervisor on scene will establish a command post and assign a second or third unit to check the immediate area for possible ____________________.

Answer 387

Secondary devices.

Question 388

Transporting prisoners- Prisoner Searches

Answer 388

Officers will carefully and thoroughly search prisoners, including footwear/ socks, and take possession of all weapons and evidence prior to placing on vehicles. When practical, prisioneros will be searched by person of same sex.

Question 389

3.535 Protests: Peaceful Demonstrations, Civil Disobedience, and Riots

What is a verbal announcement given to the crowd to inform them of the law they are violating and the consequences of such violation?

Answer 389

Dispersal order.

Question 390

3.535 Protests: Peaceful Demonstrations, Civil Disobedience, and Riots

When confronting a dangerous crowd or a situation where public safety has been compromised, the department will declare it an unlawful assembly an attempt to provide orders to disperse at least ____________________, giving demonstrators ample time to leave the area.

Answer 390

Three times.

Question 391

3.535 Protests: Peaceful Demonstrations, Civil Disobedience, and Riots

Unless there is an immediate risk to public safety or significant property damage is a occurring,_______________ time will be allowed for the crowd to comply with commands before enforcement action is taken.

Answer 391

reasonable.

Question 392

3.535 Protests: Peaceful Demonstrations, Civil Disobedience, and Riots

True/ False If there is an immediate threat of physical harm or death to a person then no order to disperse must be provided.

Answer 392

True.

Question 393

3.535 Protests: Peaceful Demonstrations, Civil Disobedience, and Riots

How many orders to disperse must be provided if there is an immediate threat of harm to Property?

Answer 393

One.

Question 394

3.535 Protests: Peaceful Demonstrations, Civil Disobedience, and Riots

True or False. Officers should generate separate event numbers from the overall protest event for reporting a Use Force.

Answer 394

True.

Question 395

3.540 Multi-Assault Counter Terrorism Action Capabilities Response Policy

Can the MACTAC response policy be used in conjunction with traditional STAR de-escalation protocol?

Answer 395

No, STAR de-escalation protocol emphasizes slow momentum to gather resources whereas the MACTAC response policy highlights the need for immediate intervention.

Question 396

3.540 Multi-Assault Counter Terrorism Action Capabilities Response Policy

MACTAC notification.

Answer 396

A general notification for Area Commands that are not affected. Patrol squads do not need to respond to the rally point but should orient themselves in the event they are placed on alert or are activated.

Question 397

3.540 Multi-Assault Counter Terrorism Action Capabilities Response Policy

MACTAC Alert

Answer 397

A report of a MACTAC incident occurring or potentially occurring. “In the box” patrol squads may be placed on alert in preparation or as a reserve to Activated units. “In the box squads” placed on alert will respond to the rally point, prepare, and await further direction.

Question 398

3.540 Multi-Assault Counter Terrorism Action Capabilities Response Policy

MACTAC Activation

Answer 398

Confirmed MACTAC incident is occurring, and the affected area command will respond directly to the incident. The “in the box” patrol squads who have been activated will respond to the rally point, received a brief, gear up, and respond as directed.

Question 399

3.540 Multi-Assault Counter Terrorism Action Capabilities Response Policy

First arriving units will ensure officer and public safety by utilizing the four A’s concept:

Answer 399

Assess, Announce, Assemble, and Act.

Question 400

3.540 Multi-Assault Counter Terrorism Action Capabilities Response Policy

The first arriving supervisor on scene should_________________ with the initial officers providing direction and overall command and control.

Answer 400

Make entry.

Question 401

3.540 Multi-Assault Counter Terrorism Action Capabilities Response Policy

The Incident Commander will complete LVMPD 422 within ______ calendar days of the conclusion of the event. The IC is responsible for the completion of LVMPD 422. Only one Lvmpd 422 is necessary for an incident\ event.

Answer 401

10.

Question 402

Transporting prisoners- officer/prisoner seating

(Vehicles without prisoner screens)

Answer 402

A police officer and a standard sedan without a screen transporting one prisoner will place the prisoner in the front seat. Two officer unit, prisoner will be placed in the rear seat behind the passengers position and the second officer behind the driver. A second prisoner would be placed in front seat. Individual officers will not transport more than one prisoner, nor a two officer unit more than two prisoners without supervisory approval. 

Question 403

Transporting prisoners-officer/prisoner seating

(vehicle with prisoner screens)

Answer 403

1. Screens are not bullet resistant and are not intended to replace good safety practices suggest searches of the suspect in vehicle interiors, upper handcuffing techniques and monitoring prison activities
2.  and a standard one or two officer patrol sedan equipped with a prisoner screen, up to two prisoners of the same or opposite sex may be transported in the rear seat. And a two officer unit, the second officer in the front seat will periodically monitor prisoners. No more than two prisoners will be transported without supervisory approval.
3. When two prisoners are combative, officers may, at their discretion, how will the prisoners or transport separately
4. If a prisoner is to be held in a parked vehicle for an extended period of time, consideration should be given to leave in the safety barrier in the lowered position and the front windows open slightly for air circulation. A prisoner will not be left alone in the vehicle unless under close observation.

Question 404

Transporting prisoners-

Transport vehicles

Answer 404

Officers will place prisoners in the rear of the special prisoner transport vehicle, not to exceed the manufacturer specifications. Contingent upon the assignment, one or two officers will be assigned and seated in the front. Discretion is allowed of supervisors in transporting situations based on the functions to be performed, number of prisoners, security and safety of prisoners, and the anticipated violence level of the prisoners. 

Question 405

Transporting prisoners-

(resident officer vehicles)

Answer 405

Resident officers may transport two persons (same or opposite sex) in the rear of the vehicle. If the two persons are combative, the least violent prisoner will be placed in the front seat. More than two prisoners may be transported at the same time with permission of a supervisor.

Question 406

Transporting prisoners-

DSD Vehicles

Answer 406

Corrections officers and inmates will be seated in DSD vehicles according to the type of vehicle, number of correction personnel present, number of inmates, and security classifications of the inmates.

Question 407

Transporting prisoners-

(Transport without delay)

Answer 407

A. Due to the relatively short distance involved officers will transport prisoners to the appropriate facility without delay and will not accompany them to their homes, eating establishments, restroom facilities, etc., where sight and control of the prisoner could be compromised. Prisoners will be denied public contact with others, and may not smoke, eat, or drink while being transported. Officers will not be diverted to any other law enforcement activities while transporting unless the risk to third parties is both clear and grave, the risk to the prisoner is minimal, and supervisory approval is given. Under no circumstances will a person under arrest be held in a transport vehicle longer than two hours before being transported to the detention facility and booked.

B. Conversely, patrol officers assigned to operate prisoner transport vehicles are to engage in other law-enforcement activities, such as traffic and pedestrian stops, writing citations, field investigations, assisting citizens, advising of hazards, making arrests etc., when not transporting prisoners.

Question 408

Transporting prisoners- officer/prisoner seating

(Escape of prisoner)

Answer 408

A. In the event of a prisoner escape, the transporting officer will notify communications and attempt to re-capture the prisoner. The officer may request additional units to establish a perimeter and/or conduct a search, taking into consideration the original charge for which the prisoner was in custody and the level of threat to citizens in the area.

B. Should the escape occur in another jurisdiction the transporting officer will notify communications, if possible, and the agency in whose jurisdiction the escape occurred. An officer’s report will be completed detailing the events of the escape.

Question 409

Transporting prisoners-

(Transporting from one facility to another)

Answer 409

At the destinations point, officers will secure their weapon in gun lockers. Handcuff will not be removed until the prisoner is place in a holding cell or placed in custody of the correction officer, court security officer, medical officer, etc. Documentation accompanying the prisoner will be turned in to the receiving officer and his signature obtained. Prisoners taken to medical facilities for admittance or examination will be kept under close security at all times. 

Question 410

Transporting prisoners-

(vehicle search an examination)

Answer 410

Vehicles will be searched at the start of shift, immediately prior to the end of transporting prisoners to ensure that no contraband, weapons, or other such items are present. Special transport vehicles will also be checked for condition, operation, and presence of tools and safety equipment, as applicable. 

Question 411

Transporting prisoners-special transport situation

(prisoner of the opposite sex)

Answer 411

When a prisoner is transported by an officer of the opposite sex, the start/stop mileage, to include 10th of a mile, will be entered on the tablet. If the prisoner of the opposite sex is transported in a vehicle without a tablet, the start/stop mileage will be voiced reported to the dispatcher. Prisoners of both sexes may be transported together as long as the ability to restrict contact exists. Every effort should be taken to prevent an opportunity for an allegation of misconduct

Question 412

Transporting prisoners- Handicapped, sick, mentally ill, or injured person

Answer 412

Whenever possible, handicap, sick, injured, or mentally ill prisoner will be transported and restrained in the same manner as other prisoners. In emergency situation, ambulance services may be required. Treatment of the prisoners incurring injuries during the arrest process and other medical services will be handled in accordance with the medical care and billing for prisoners (LVMPD 7.127)

Question 413

Transporting prisoners-

Transporting to funerals, etc.

Answer 413

The DSD transportation section may transport prisoners to funerals, reading of wills, visiting a critically ill person, etc., when directed by court order. Special precautions, such as the use of additional restaurants, additional personnel, swat, etc. should be taken if the person that possesses a security risk. 

Question 414

Transporting prisoners-Restraining devices

(Handcuffs)

Answer 414

Except under extraordinary situations approved by a supervisor, no member will permit a prisoner to enter a department vehicle without first being handcuffed. Prisoners in police vehicles will be handcuffed behind the back, unless impractical or impossible to prisoner obesity, handicap, or other reason. Special restaurants will not be used unless approved by supervisor.

B. Handcuffs, belly chains and/or leg irons will be used by correction officers and DSD vehicles and patrol officers operating prisoner transport vehicles, as appropriate for the transporting vehicle and security requirements.

Question 415

Transporting prisoners-Restraining devices

(Leg restraints)

Answer 415

A. Officers may restrain the leg of a combative prisoner with soft leg restraints, commonly known as hobbles. Hobbles may be commercial leg restraint devices or any issued by the department. Rope hobbles may not be used. Officers must receive defensive tactics training and proper level straight procedures before handling prisoners. 

B. When the prisoners legs are hobbled, the trailing end of the restraint will be anchored out of the passenger door of the vehicle so it is not catch on anything while the vehicle is in motion. Officers will not attempt to restrain the prisoners legs without the assistance of another officer. 

C. Hobbled will not be used to secure prisoners legs to fix positions inside the vehicle, as this could result in serious injury in the event of an accident. Restraining devices will not be affixed to the prisoners handcuffs, nor will the prisoner be transported face down with their hands behind their back and their legs were restrained. Transporting face down on an ambulance gurney is permissible when the attending medical personnel determine that will be not harmful to the prisoner.

Question 416

Transporting prisoners-Restraining devices

Seat belts

Answer 416

Unless physically impossible because of size, handicapped, etc., all prisoners transported in department vehicles that are equipped with seat belt/restraints will be secured with the restraint before the vehicles are set in motion.

Question 417

8.325.9

Retaliation

A form of discrimination against an individual who has complained, assisted, or otherwise participated in complaints of harassment and/or discrimination. Retaliation occurs when an individual has: (3)

Answer 417

a. Complained, assisted, or participated in matters of harassment and/or discrimination.
b. Been subjected to adverse employment actions.
c. A causal link exists between a and b.

Question 418

8.325.14 Confidentiality
All complaints and investigations, whether handled by the EDS, IAB, or the bureau/area command will remain strictly confidential. Information regarding matters of ______ and/or _________ will only be released by the EDS director or the IAB commander at the direction of General Counsel.

Answer 418

Harassment. Discrimination

Question 419

Pursuant to NRS 33.031 members who carry a firearm in the performance of his/her duties and are subject to an “extended order for protection” for domestic abuse may carry only ______ _______ _________, and only while in the performance of their duties.

Answer 419

Department-authorized firearms

Question 420

Any supervisor, or person acting in a supervisor capacity, being notified of criminal or suspected criminal misconduct by an LVMPD employee shall immediately notify the _____ ________ and the _______ ________ Section of the Internal Affairs Bureau (IAB).

Answer 420

Watch commander. Criminal investigations

Question 421

BWCs will only be used during law enforcement operational duties. The BWC shall not be used to record:

Answer 421

1. Follow-up investigative briefings;
2. Large-scale special events (e.g., New Year’s Eve, mega-sports event, etc.) unless a circumstance arises that requires activation. The normal interaction with the crowd that occurs during these events does not require continuous recording;
3. Any telephone call or personal conversation between other department employees without the recorded employee’s knowledge (see LVMPD 8.172, Covert Mechanical Recordings);
4. Non-work-related activity where a reasonable expectation of privacy exists, such as locker rooms, dressing rooms, or restrooms;
5. Inside a detention facility (BWC will remain activated until the officer walks into the booking area of the facility);
6. Administrative matters, training, shift briefings, management meetings, professional development conversations, work performance counseling, disciplinary processes, or bargaining and contractual matters;
7. Encounters with undercover officers or confidential informants.

Question 422

To ensure the details of an evolving incident have been captured on BWC, officers will continue recording until:

Answer 422

1. They have cleared from the scene and are no longer assigned to the event; and
2. They have discontinued contact with (and are no longer in proximity to) the subject(s).

Question 423

Officers will deactivate their BWC on static crime scenes when directed by a supervisor or investigative personnel. All other officers assigned to other responsibilities related to the event will have their BWC activated until advised by a supervisor. Officers will not record briefings with investigative units, any discussions about charges against a subject, or activities at command posts.
The decision and reason to deactivate a BWC will be stated prior to deactivation. The following are examples of when an officer may exercise discretion:

Answer 423

1. A citizen with standing has requested the officer stop recording within the citizen’s premises, and the officer has entered the premises on consent. As a rule, if an officer must legally ask permission to enter the premises, a citizen may put conditions on the officer’s entry, such as deactivation of the BWC.
2. The officer is participating in informal, non-enforcement-related contact with the public when no event number is generated (e.g., First Tuesday, Coffee with a Cop, etc.).

Question 424

Officers may view their own BWC recordings to:

Answer 424

1. Assist in completing an investigation and preparing official reports;
2. Refresh their recollection prior to court;
3. Provide a statement pursuant to an internal investigation, including use of force, officer-involved shooting investigations, and other deadly force or critical incidents.

Question 425

Domestic Violence Investigations- Acts constituting domestic violence

Answer 425

Abusive behavior or coercion used to gain or maintain power and control over another where there is certain relationships as defined by law.

Question 426

Domestic Violence Investigations-assault

Answer 426

Unlawful attempting to use physical force against another person or intentionally placing another person in reasonable apprehension of immediate bodily harm.

Question 427

Domestic Violence Investigations-Battery

Answer 427

Any willful and unlawful use of force or violence upon the person of another.

Question 428

Domestic Violence Investigations- Coercion

Answer 428

The intent to compel another to do or abstain from doing an act which The other person has a right to do or abstain from doing. 

Question 429

Domestic Violence Investigations-dating relationship

Answer 429

Frequent, intimate associations primarily characterized by the expectation of affectional or sexual involvement. The term does not include a casual relationship or an ordinary association between persons in a business or social context.

Question 430

Domestic Violence Investigations-Mutual arrest

Answer 430

Occurs when there is probable cause that a separate, distinct battery has been committed by each party against the other and warrants the rest of both parties

Question 431

Domestic Violence Investigations-Felony domestic violence

Answer 431

Domestic violence involving strangulation, deadly weapons, substantial bodily harm to the alleged victim, assault with a deadly weapon, felony coercion, battery domestic violence with a prior acts of felony domestic violence, or third domestic violence offenses.

Question 432

Domestic Violence Investigations-Sexual assault

Answer 432

 when a person subjects another person to sexual penetration or forces another person to make a sexual penetration on himself or herself or another, or on a beast, against the will of the victim or under conditions in which the perpetrator knows or should know that the victim is mentally or physically in capable of resisting or understanding the nature of his or her conduct. 

Question 433

Domestic Violence Investigations-Siblings

Answer 433

Siblings, related by blood or marriage, include half siblings, siblings in law, and stepsiblings

Question 434

Domestic Violence Investigations-ask constituting domestic violence

Answer 434

Battery
Assault
Coercion
Sexual assault
Stalking
Arson
Trespassing
Larceny
Destruction of private property
Carrying a concealed weapon without a permit
Injuring or killing an animal
Burglary
Invasion of the home
False imprisonment
 pandering

Question 435

Domestic Violence Investigations- T/F roommates, siblings, cousins (except those in custodial/guardianship relationship with each other) are all domestic relationships

Answer 435

False.

Question 436

Domestic Violence Investigations-T/F siblings or cousins in a custodial/guardianship relationship, related by blood marriage (excluding siblings and cousins), spouses, former spouses, dating, have a child in common, The custodial/guardianship of a minor child are domestic relationships.

Answer 436

True.

Question 437

Domestic Violence Investigations- When shall officers immediately contact their supervisor on DV cases?

Answer 437

Felony domestic violence has occurred.

Law-enforcement employee of an agency is involved as a suspect or victim. 

Parties involved or believe to be a pimp and prostitute.

A suspect under arrest has a previous conviction for domestic violence and is in possession of a firearm and or ammunition.

A mutual arrest is considered. 

Question 438

Domestic Violence Investigations- T/F Officers may complete a citizens citation or citizens arrest for all misdemeanor acts constituting domestic violence (excluding battery) (Examples, allegations of trespassing, petit larceny, destruction of property etc.)

Answer 438

True.

Question 439

Domestic Violence Investigations-Mutual arrests

Answer 439

Mutual arrest are discouraged. Officers Shall attempt to determine primary physical aggressor by considering:

Prior domestic violence

The relative severity of injuries inflicted upon the persons

The potential for future injury

Whether one of the alleged batteries was committed in self-defense

Any other factors that may help officers decide (e.g. corroborating evidence, statements, witnesses, or damage to property)

Question 440

Domestic Violence Investigations- T/ F A domestic battery report is required to be completed when responding to a domestic violence call for any act constituting domestic violence has occurred or is alleged regardless if an arrest is made or not?

Answer 440

True.

Question 441

Domestic Violence Investigations- T/F when a subject is being arrested for domestic violence and is in possession of a firearm and/or ammunition  and they are not prohibited person the firearm may be impounded for safekeeping

Answer 441

True.

Question 442

Domestic Violence Investigations- Domestic battery arrest/prohibited person possession of a firearm

Answer 442

Officer will complete a firearms notification (LVMPD 181), and fax it to the local office of the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF) and LVMPD CCW dispositions detail.

Then

Impound the firearm and/or ammunition is evidence, and right on the impound form evidence/prohibited person.

Question 443

Domestic Violence Investigations-Safe Nest

Answer 443

 request Safe Nest advocates as early as possible via radio for any felony domestic violence investigations, misdemeanor domestic violence where probable cause exist for an arrest, or arrest of been made on scene, Residence with significant repeated calls for service. 

Question 444

Domestic Violence Investigations- safe Nest- T/F officers may allow the suspect to have access to the safe nest advocates or remain on scene while the Safe Nest advocate speaks with the victim

Answer 444

False. Never allow the suspect to have access to the advocate or the victim while speaking with to advocate. 

Question 445

Domestic Violence Investigations- Emergencies with safe nest on scene

Answer 445

If an emergency arises or a supervisor request the oversight officer to clear, notify the Safe Nest advocate prior to clearing. Safe Nest advocates have been trained to immediately leave when notified that police are not able to standby on scene. 

Question 446

Domestic Violence Investigations-When Safe Nest is unavailable

Answer 446

Request verbal consent from the victim to provide their information to Safe Nest for follow up services

verbal consent from the victim contact information will be relayed by Dispatch to Safe Nest
(If Officer contact Safe Nest officer must update CAD)

Note victims verbal consent via CAD

Provide victims with a VIG And domestic violence card



Question 447

Domestic Violence Investigations- T/F safe Nest can be utilized for investigative purposes and will be listed as witnesses.

Answer 447

False. Victim statements provided to Safe Nest are confidential and not intended for law-enforcement without consent of the victim. 

Question 448

Domestic Violence Investigations-safe Nest will not be called out for victims who____

Answer 448

Are a threat to officers

Are a threat to advocates

Highly intoxicated and unable to cooperate

Question 449

Domestic Violence Investigations-Station reports

Answer 449

If a domestic battery has occurred within 24 hours or a felonious act of domestic violence is reported at any time the area command will notify dispatch for patrol response. 

Question 450

Policy 7.240

When will dispatcher advise are sergeant of calls holding?

Answer 450

after holding for 60 minutes