Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PM&R > Lower Extremity MSK > Flashcards

Lower Extremity MSK Flashcards

1
Q

What is the strongest ligament in the body and its function?

A
  • Iliofemoral ligament
  • Limits abduction, extension, and external rotation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What carries blood supply from the acetabulum to the femoral head?

A

Ligamentum capitis femoris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What muscles originate on the ASIS?

A

Sartorius and TFL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What muscle originates on the AIIS?

A

Rectus femoris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are two early findings in hip osteoarthritis?

A
  • Loss of internal rotation
  • superolateral compartment narrowing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How to you assess for a true leg length discrepancy?

A

Measure both sides from ASIS to medial malleolus and compare

  • A: Normal
  • B: True leg length discrepancy
  • C: Tibial length discrepancy
  • D: Femoral length discrepancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Hip precautions after a posterior approach THA?

A
  • No hip flexion past 90 degrees
  • No hip adduction past midline
  • No extreme hip internal rotation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Nerve injured with anterior hip dislocation

A

femoral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Nerve injured with posterior hip dislocation

A

sciatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe a person who is at high risk for femoral neck fracture due to fall

A

old white osteoporotic elderly female with poor nutrition who is smoking and taking steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Garden Clasification System for femoral neck fracture

A

Stages

  1. incomplete fracture line
  2. complete fracture line (non-displaced)
  3. partially displaced
  4. fully displaced with disruption of joint capsule
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Treatment for femoral neck stress fractures

A
  • Compression side (inferior): Rehab with NWB -> WBAT
  • Tension side (superior): Requires ORIF
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the typical patient who suffers slipped capital femoral epiphysis

A

obese adolescent male

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Grading for Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

To whom should you refer a patient with SCFE and why?

A

Endocrinology to evaluate for growth hormone deficiency or thyroid disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pincer lesion

A

acetabulum extends out too far and “pincers” the femoral head causing FAI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

CAM lesion

A

“knuckle” of bone coming out of the femoral neck seen in FAI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Internal snapping hip

A

groin pain caused by iliopsoas tending snapping over the iliopectineal eminence, commonly seen in dancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

External snapping hip

A

pain in lateral thigh due to a tight IT band or gluteus maximus snapping over the greater trochanter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Commonly mistaken for greater trochanteric bursitis

A

Gluteus medius tendonitis/tendinopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is greater trochanteric bursitis?

A

inflammation of the subgluteus maximus bursa located just deep to the gluteus maximus muscle and just superficial to the gluteus medius tendon as it inserts onto the greater trochanter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

activity that commonly causes a hamstring strain

A

water-skiing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Provacative test for piriformis syndrome

A

FAdIR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

most common causes of AVN of the femoral head in adults?

A

alcohol and corticosteroid use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Imaging for suspected AVN of the femoral head?

A

MRI of both hips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

After total hip replacement, when is the risk for pulmonary embolism the highest?

A

during the 2nd and 3rd week post surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Hip precautions after an anterior approach THA?

A

Avoid hip extension and external rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Most common type of hip fracture?

A

Intertrochanteric Hip Fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

most common cause and location for myositis ossificans?

A

hematoma, quadriceps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How long does it take for myositis ossificans to show up on XR?

A

2-3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What type of collage is in hyaline (articular) cartilage?

A

Type II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When is the PCL tense?

A

with knee flexion (think of dashboard injury)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When is the ACL tense?

A

with knee extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What direction does the ACL run?

A

Antero-infero-medially (think putting hands into pockets)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What direction does the PCL run?

A

postero-infero-laterally (think bring hand across body and place on opposite pocket)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What does the ACL do as the knee flexes?

A

Pulls femur anteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is O’Donoghue’s triad?

A

The “terrible triad” of ACL, MCL and medial meniscus tear with lateral blow to the knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Describe the course of the lateral collateral ligament

A

It runs from the lateral femoral condyle to the fibular head (also called fibular collateral ligament)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Orthotic treatment for medial compartment OA of the knee?

A

lateral heel wedge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

osteochondritis dissecans

A

repetitive stress causing AVN to an area of bone with resulting separation (dissection) of piece of bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Segond fracture

A

Avulsion fracture of the lateral tibial plateau commonly associated with ACL tear (close to 100%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Type of brace given for ACL injury?

A

Lenox-Hill Derotation orthosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Most common knee ligament torn?

A

MCL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Knee ligament most commonly injured in sports?

A

ACL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How does blood supply of the medial meniscus affect surgical decison making and its ability to heal?

A

The inner 2/3rds is poorly vascularized and is usually surgically resected. The outer 1/3 is well vascularized and can be repaired.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Causes anterior knee pain with locking and buckling

A

Plica: redundant fold of synovial tissue that can become inflamed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Where is a Baker Cyst usually located?

A

between the semimembranosus and medial head of the gastrocnemius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Pain in the anterior knee at knee tendon with excessive kneeling

A

Superficial and Deep infrapatellar bursitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Anterior knee pain worse with climbing stairs or running downhill. Associated with knee stiffness after prolong sitting.

A

Patellofemoral Pain Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Treatment for Patellofemoral Pain Syndrome

A
  • Stretch tight IT band and vastus lateralis
  • Strengthen VMO
  • Patellar knee sleeve with patellar cutout
  • Kinesiotaping
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What group is Patellofemoral Pain Syndrome commonly seen in?

52
Q

Lateral knee pain felt with downhill skiing or downhill running

A

Popliteus Tendonitis

53
Q

Anterior/Lateral knee pain worse after running

A

IT Band Syndrome

54
Q

Cause of IT Band Syndrome

A
  • Gluteus medius weakness
  • Tight/Weak IT Band and TFL
55
Q

Physical exam test that is positive in IT Band Syndrome?

56
Q

What provides attachement for the posterior horn of the lateral meniscus and stabilizes the posterior lateral knee?

A

Arcuate Popliteal Ligament Complex (APLC)

57
Q

With McMurray’s test, which way do you rotate the tibia to stress the medial compartment?

A

externally

58
Q

What physical exam test is most specific for ACL injury?

A

Pivot Shift

  • The tibia is internally rotated while a valgus stress and axial load is applied.
  • Begin in full knee extension and gently flex the knee.
  • Anterolateral subluxation of the lateral tibial plateau indicates a positive test.
  • 5 mm of motion is considered a Grade I tear
59
Q

With knee ligament testing, how much motion indicates a complete tear?

A

> 10 mm

  • Grade 1: 3 to 5 mm of translation
  • Grade 2: 5 to 10 mm translation, likely reflecting partial tear
  • Grade 3: >10 mm translation, likely reflecting complete tear
60
Q

What is the most sensitive clinical marker for acute ACL injury?

A

severe effusion in the first 2-12 hours following injury

61
Q

List two factors that increase the Q angle

A

genu valgum and internal torsion of the femur

62
Q

Internally rotated bicycle cleats stress what part of the knee?

63
Q

Most common site of patellar tendonitis?

A

inferior pole

64
Q

Describe the 4 compartments of the leg and their contents

A
  • Anterior: TA, EHL, EDL, fibularis tertius, anterior tibial artery
  • Lateral: fibularis longus, fibularis brevis, superficial fibular nerve
  • Superficial Posterior: gastrocnemius, soleus, plantaris
  • Deep Posterior: TP, FDL, FHL, posterior tibial artery, tibial nerve (Tom, Dick and Harry + tibial vessels)
65
Q

How does the plantaris differ from the gastocnemius and soleus muscles and why is this important?

A

plantaris does not become part of the achilles tendon and can cause a falsely negative Thompson test.

66
Q

How is the tarasl tunnel related to compartments of the leg?

A

All deep posterior compartment contents pass through the tarsal tunnel

67
Q

Which malleolus of the ankle is lower?

A

lateral (extension of the fibula)

69
Q

Most commonly injured ankle ligament?

A

Anterior talofibular (ATFL)

70
Q

Second most commonly injured ankle ligament?

A

calcaneofibular ligament (CFL)

71
Q

How much displacement defines a positive ankle anterior drawer test seen in ATFL tear?

72
Q

Which ligament is close to the fibularis longus and brevis tendons?

A

calcaneofibular ligament (CFL)

73
Q

Maisonneuve Fracture

A

proximal fibular fracture due to a severe high ankle sprain with rupture of tibiofibular syndesmosis

74
Q

common running error leading to medial tibial stress syndrome (shin splints)?

A

overpronation

75
Q

mechanism of injury leading to talus fracture

A

forced dorsiflexion with an axial load

76
Q

type of talus fracture with high risk of AVN?

A

talar body (dome)

77
Q

most common foot fracture

A

calcaneus fracture

78
Q

Sever’s Disease

A

posterior heel pain in children 2/2 to calcaneal apophysitis

79
Q

mechanism causing syndesmosis injury

A

excessive external rotation (common football injury)

80
Q

Order of ligaments torn in a lateral ankle sprain

A
  1. ATFL
  2. CFL
  3. PTFL
81
Q

Grading of a lateral ankle sprain

A
  1. Partially ATFL tear
  2. Fully torn ATFL, partially torn CFL (Positive anterior drawer)
  3. Fully torn ATFL and CFL (Positive anterior drawer and Talar Tilt)
82
Q

What tendons can be damanged with lateral ankle sprain?

A

fibularis longus and brevis tendons

83
Q

Work-up for lateral ankle sprain?

A

stress view XRs

84
Q

What structures pass through the tarsal tunnel?

A

TP, FDL, FHL, tibial artery/nerve/vein

85
Q

cause of tarsal tunnel syndrome?

A

compression of tarsal tunnel structures due to tight flexor retinaculum

86
Q

Haglund deformity

A

bony deformity of posterior heel due to to increased achilles tendon tension

87
Q

bursas in the posterior ankle?

A

retrocalcaneal and retroachilles

88
Q

Which lower leg compartment most commonly develops acute compartment syndrome?

89
Q

Presents with extreme pain with muscle stretch that is out of proportion to exam

A

compartment syndrome

90
Q

lower leg pain, paresthesias, and weakness worse with prolonged exercise

A

chronic exertional compartment syndrome

91
Q

What increases the risk of tibilais posterior tendon injury?

A

excessive pronation

92
Q

presents with positive “too many toes” sign?

A

tibialis posterior tendon injury

93
Q

population at risk for flexor hallucis longus (FHL) injury?

94
Q

Cause of achilles tendon injury?

A

repetitive eccentric overload

95
Q

Where is the achilles tendon prone to tears?

A

distal 2-6cm due to poor vascularity

96
Q

risk factor for achilles tendon injury

A

older age, overtraining, overpronation, tight achilles tendon

97
Q

Three main characteristics of acute compartment syndrome?

A

pain, paresthesias, and paralysis

98
Q

In acute compartment syndrome, are pulses usually normal or abnormal?

99
Q

How is pain related to activity with shin splints?

A

pain may improve with exercise but worsens after completion of activity

100
Q

most common stress fracture location in running sports?

101
Q

X-ray findings seen with stress fracture?

A

periosteal thickening followed by cortical lucency

102
Q

First choice test to dx stress fractures?

A

MRI (most sensitive and specific)

103
Q

Supplementation rx’d to treat stress fractures?

A
  • calcium 1,500mg daily
  • vitamin D 400-800 IU daily
104
Q

Describe the different bones in the foot

105
Q

Lisfranc ligament

A

connects second metatarsal head to the first cuneiform

106
Q

Test positive in complete tear of CFL?

A

Talar tilt

107
Q

Pain on the anterolateral aspect of foot and ankle

A

Talocalcaneal ligament strain (Sinus Tarsi)

108
Q

Surgical treatment for tibialis anterior spasticity?

A

SPlit Anterior Tibial Tendon Transfer (SPLATT)

109
Q

What maintains the medial logitudinal arch of the foot?

A

calcaneonavicular “spring” ligament

110
Q

Name two conditons that can cause clawing of the toes and intrinsic muscle weakness in the feet.

A

CMT, diabetic neuropathy

111
Q

What is a March fracture?

A

metatarsal stress fracture

112
Q

when is surgical treatment indicated for a metatarsal stress fracture?

A

involves 5th metatarsal or there is displacement

113
Q

Jones fracture?

A

fracture across the base of the 5th metatarsal

114
Q

Nutcracker fracture?

A

Cuboid fracture due to trauma (imagine a nutcracker cracking a cube)

115
Q

Hammer Toe

A

MTP extension, PIP flexion, DIP extension

116
Q

mallet toe

A

MTP normal, PIP normal, DIP flexion

117
Q

Claw toe

A

MTP extension, PIP flexion, DIP flexion

118
Q

Turf toe?

A

hyperextension injury of the 1st MTP

119
Q

What is often misdiagnosed as a lateral ankle sprain?

A

Lisfranc joint/ligament injury

120
Q

Treatement for lisfranc ligament injury?

A
  • NWB for 6-8 weeks
  • ORIF if unstable or displaced
121
Q

Where does a morton neuroma usually present?

A

between 3rd and 4th metatarsals

122
Q

Treatment for morton neuroma?

A

metatarsal pads

123
Q

pulling-like medial heel pain worst with first steps in the morning?

A

plantar fasciitis

124
Q

risk factors for plantar fasciitis?

A

tight achilles tendon, pes planus, pes cavus

125
Q

provactive manuver for plantar fasciitis?

A

hyperextension of the great toe with palpation of medial plantar heel

126
Q

most common metatarsal fractured?

127
Q

Dancer’s fracture?

A

fracture of the 5th metatarsal distal shaft

PM&R (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions