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EPPP Study > Lifespan Development > Flashcards

Lifespan Development Flashcards

1
Q

Which 2 psychologists have the most frequently cited theories of moral development?

A

Piaget & Kohlberg

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2
Q

Piaget proposed that ____________ development is necessary for moral development

A

Cognitive

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3
Q

Piaget proposed that the developmental process of understanding moral standards is similar to the process of understanding _______ rules

A

Game

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4
Q

Piaget’s 3 Stages of Moral Development are

A

Premoral Stage
Heteronomous Stage
Autonomous Stage

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5
Q

The following criticisms are attached to which theory:
1. Underestimates the cognitive abilities and moral understanding of young children
2. Erroneously contends that moral development stops in late childhood or early adolescence

A

Piaget’s Theory of Moral Development

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6
Q

This stage lasts from Birth to age 5 or 6. During this stage children have very limited understanding of rules and moral behavior

A

Piaget’s Premoral Stage (1st)

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7
Q

This stage begins at about 5 or 6. During this stage children believe rules are made by authorities and cannot be changed. When judging behaviors that have negative consequences, they based their judgments primarily on the consequences of the behavior

A

Piaget’s Heteronomous Stage (2nd)

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8
Q

During this stage, when judging behaviors that have negative consequences, they based their judgments primarily on the consequences of the behavior

A

Piaget’s Heteronomous Stage (2nd)

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9
Q

This stage begins when children are about 10 or 11. Children in this stage believe rules are determined by agreement between people and can be changed.

A

Piaget’s Autonomous Stage (3rd)

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10
Q

During this stage when judging behaviors that have negative consequences, they based their judgments primarily on the actor’s intentions

A

Piaget’s Autonomous Stage (3rd)

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11
Q

Who studied moral reasoning by presenting subjects with moral dilemmas and asking them to judge each dilemma and explain their reasoning

A

Kohlberg

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12
Q

__________ is one of the best known dilemma’s which asked subjects to decide if it’s better for a husband to steal a drug to save his wife or obey the law and risk his wife’s life

A

Heinz Dilemma (Kohlberg)

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13
Q

Who believed that stages of moral reasoning are universal, always occur in the same order and are related to the person’s level of cognitive development and social perspective taking

A

Kohlberg

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14
Q

Kohlberg proposed that the ability to predict a person’s behavior from their stage of moral development is strongest when?

A

At higher stages of development

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15
Q

What are the 3 Levels of Kohlberg’s Morality

A

Level 1: Preconventional Morality
Level 2: Conventional Morality
Level 3: Postconventional Morality

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16
Q

Punishment and Obedience (acceptability of a bx depends on whether or not the bx leads to punishment) and Instrumental Hedonism (the acceptability of a bx depends on whether or not it leads to rewards or satisfies the person’s needs) are the 2 stages of which of Kohlberg’s Levels of Morality

A

Level 1: Preconventional Morality

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17
Q

Good boy/good girl ( acceptability of a bx depends on whether or not it’s liked by others) and Law and Order orientation (acceptability of a bx depends on whether it violates laws and rules established by legitimate authorities) are the two stages of which of Kohlberg’s Levels of Morality

A

Level 2: Conventional Morality

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18
Q

The morality of contract, individual rights, and democratically accepted laws (acceptability of bx is whether or not it’s consistent with democratically chosen laws) and The morality of individual principles of conscience (acceptability of bx is whether or not it’s consistent with broad, universally applicable general principles; justice and fairness) are the two stages of which of Kohlberg’s Levels of Morality

A

Level 3: Postconventional Morality

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19
Q

The following criticisms are attached to what theory:
Underestimates the moral reasoning of young children
Theory is too rigid and linear and doesn’t take into account that children’s moral judgments vary as a result of context and motivation
Only had male subjects in research (androcentric) and culturally biased, more characteristic of Western culture

A

Kohlberg’s Theory of Moral Reasoning

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20
Q

What are the 5 environmental systems in Bronfenbrenner’s Ecological Model

A
  1. Microsystem
  2. Mesosystem
    3.Exosystem
  3. Macrosystem
  4. Chronosystem
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21
Q

This is the child’s immediate environment and includes the child’s relationships with parents, siblings, others at home, friends, school, church

A

Microsystem

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22
Q

Interactions between elements of the child’s microsystem- influences of family relationships on child’s relationships with peers, teachers, and vice versa

A

Mesosystem

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23
Q

Consists of elements in the environment that affect the child’s immediate environment and include parent’s places of work, extended family, community health services

A

Exosystem

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24
Q

Comprised of social and cultural environments such as cultural practices, economic conditions, and political ideologies

A

Macrosystem

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25
Q

Consists of environmental events that occur over a person’s lifespan and impact the person’s development and circumstances. Includes parental divorce, job loss, birth of sibling, natural disasters.

A

Chronosystem

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26
Q

This type of inheritance occurs when a characteristic is influenced by a single pair of genes (two recessive genes or one recessive and one dominant gene).

A

Single gene pair inheritance

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27
Q

This type of inheritance occurs when a characteristic is influenced by a gene on one of the sex chromosomes, most often the X chromosome

A

Sex linked inheritance

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28
Q

This inheritance occurs when a characteristic is influenced by multiple genes. Most characteristics (height, weight, hair color, intelligence, susceptibility to cancer) fall in this category

A

Polygenic inheritance

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29
Q

New born baby’s brain is about ___% of it’s adult weight at birth & grows to about ___% by 2 years old

A

25% ; 80%

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30
Q

What is synaptogenesis?

A

Creation of new synapses (peaks around 2-3 years old)

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31
Q

What is synaptic pruning?

A

The loss of synapses (continues through adolescence)

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32
Q

What is the least developed part of the brain a birth?

A

Cerebral Cortex

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33
Q

When does the prefrontal cortex reach maturity?

A

early to mid 20s

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34
Q

At what age does brain weight and volume begin to gradually decrease? At what age does this process accelerate?

A

around 30 years old ; around age 60

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35
Q

The decrease in size of the brain is greatest for what two areas?

A

frontal lobe (especially prefrontal cortex) and parietal lobe

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36
Q

What is the least developed sense at birth?

A

Vision

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37
Q

By what age is an infant’s visual acuity similar to normal adults?

A

7-8 months

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38
Q

By what age do infants prefer to look at the face of their mother or other caregivers rather than strangers

A

1-2 months

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39
Q

What is the order that infants develop depth perception

A
  1. Kinetic (motion) cues
  2. Binocular (stereoscopic) cues- integration of images from both eyes

3.Pictorial (static-monocular cues)- can be perceived by only one eye which shows depth, size, texture, shadows

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40
Q

What 2 senses are the first to show age related decline

A

Vision and hearing;

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41
Q

What starts to happen to vision around age 40

A

Around 40 many adults begin to experience presbyopia- hardening of the lens of the eye- hard to focus on nearby objects. Later in life, slower dark adaptation, increased sensitivity to glare, reduced ability to discriminate between colors, decreased depth perception

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42
Q

What starts to happen to hearing around age 40

A

hearing starts to decline, decreased sensitivity to high frequency sounds (presbycusis) which makes it hard to understand women & young children’s voices, non human sounds (like microwave, dryer). Evidence that severity of age related hearing loss is related to risk of Alzheimer’s and other neurocognitive disorders

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43
Q

What is the first sense to develop in utero?

A

Touch

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44
Q

Early exposure to pain heightens later responsivity to pain for full term or pre-term infants?

A

Full term

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45
Q

Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) is increased by what demographic factors

A

Maleness, African American or Native American race, under 6months old, premature birth, low birth weight, poor prenatal care, maternal use of alcohol or drugs during pregnancy, pre and post natal exposure to cigarette smoke, unsafe sleep practices (bed sharing, loose bedding, sleeping on stomach)

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46
Q

Adolescent growth spurt usually begins at ___ age for girls and ____ age for boys

A

Girls 10 or 11 ; Boys 12 or 13

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47
Q

Growth spurt usually reaches it’s peak after about how long

A

2 years

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48
Q

Early onset puberty is associated with positive consequences for who?

A

Boys ; increased self esteem, social maturity, greater popularity, and better athletic skills

But also linked to higher alcohol use, precocious sexual bx, and antisocial bx

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49
Q

Lower levels of self esteem and popularity, poorer academic achievement, higher risk of precocious sexual bx, higher substance use, depression, anxiety and disruptive bx disorders is related to early onset puberty for who?

A

Girls

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50
Q

Maternal mood disorder, absence of biological father, presence of stepfather, discordant family relationships are all related to what?

A

Early onset puberty for girls

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51
Q

Substance use among youth 12-17 years old has decreased in recent years, however, which is the most used substance of this age group?

A

Alcohol

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52
Q

What are some of the potential risk factors that lead to adolescent substance use?

A

stressful life events, parental substance abuse, weak parent-child relationship, affiliation with deviant/substance involved peers, mental health problems (Depression and untreated ADHD), favorable attitudes towards drug use, poor social skills, and academic failuresW

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53
Q

What are some of the protective factors for adolescent substance use?

A

Parental disapproval of substance use, supportive parenting, age-appropriate parental monitoring of social bx, academic success, involvement in extracurriculars, positive peer influences, good self-control, and religiosity.

Religiosity, self-control, and parental support are buffers which means they reduce the adverse effects of stressful life events on substance use

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54
Q

Which part of the brain that is in charge of emotions, motivation, and contains part of the brain’s reward circuit develops before the prefrontal cortex for adolescents? This explains why adolescents may be more likely to engage in impulsive or risk taking behaviors rather than make rational decisions

A

Limbic System (which contains the nucleus accumbens- part of the brains reward circuit)

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55
Q

Which biological process helps explain and contribute to adolescent sleep deprivation

A

Puberty ushers in changes in the secretion of melatonin

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56
Q

Which societal and psychological factors contribute to adolescent sleep deprivation

A

early starting time for school which limits time to sleep and increased autonomy over bed time, increased academic pressures, and excessive screen time in the evening

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57
Q

Which twins are more likely to have the same sexual orientation?

A

monozygotic male twins

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58
Q

The likelihood that a boy will be gay increases due to what factor?

A

The number of older brothers born to the same mother (due to maternal immune hypothesis in which some mothers become immune to male-specific antigens which each male fetus—this research has been challenged)

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59
Q

Changes in a person’s sexual attractions and/or behaviors over time and in different situations that are inconsistent with the person’s self-described sexual orientation

A

Sexual fluidity

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60
Q

Sexual fluidity is more common among which gender?

A

women

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61
Q

What are the 3 stages of Prenatal development?

A

Germinal (conception to the end of the 2nd week when the fertilized egg implants in the uterine wall)
Embryonic (3rd -8th week; major organs and structures are forming)
Fetal (9th week- birth; organs and structures are formed and mature)

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62
Q

At what stage are teratogens, chemicals, or drugs most impactful

A

During embryonic period, most likely that teratogens during this period will cause major defects.

During germinal period, exposure to teratogens is likely to have either all of none effect- if exposed, implantation will not occur. During fetal period exposure to teratogens is most likely to cause minor defects and abnormalities, however, the central nervous system is highly susceptible to major damage from teratogens during embryonic and fetal periods.

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63
Q

What is the age of viability for premature babies

A

22 to 26 weeks

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64
Q

How long does the first trimester last?

A

Week 1-13

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65
Q

How long does the second trimester last?

A

Week 14-27

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66
Q

How long does that third trimester last?

A

Week 28 through birth

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67
Q

Klinefelter syndrome effects which gender and what are some of the traits?

A

Males; Presence of 2 or more X chromosomes in addition to a single Y chromosome. Develop a normal male identity but incomplete secondary sex characteristics, enlarged breasts (gynecomastia), and low testosterone. Can have disproportionally long arms, legs, and delays in language development, learning disabilities, and impaired problem solving and social skills

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68
Q

Turner Syndrome effects which gender and what are some of the traits?

A

Females; Don’t develop secondary sex characteristics, are infertile, short stature, stubby fingers, drooping eyelids, small lower jaw, webbed neck. Learning disabilities, vision and hearing problems, skeletal abnormalities, heart defects, urinary tract abnormalities. This syndrome is due to a partial or complete deletion of 1 of the X chromosomes

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69
Q

Rett syndrome almost exclusively impacts which gender?

A

Females; due to a mutation of a gene. After 18 months of life, begin to develop slowed head and brain growth, loss of speech and motor skills, abnormal breathing, hand movements, and seizures. May also have autistic like sxs

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70
Q

Down syndrome is an ________ disorder which means it’s caused by abnormality on a chromosome that’s not a sex chromosome

A

Autosomal

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71
Q

Trisomy 21 is the most common type of down syndrome which accounts for which percentage of cases?

A

95%

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72
Q

Mild to moderate intellectual disability, hypotonia (decreased muscle tone), short stocky build, wide face, thick tongue, almond shaped eyes, developmental delays, elevated risks for vision, hearing, heart defects, and Alzheimer’s are sxs of what?

A

Down Syndrome

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73
Q

When one parent has Huntington’s disease, a biological child of that parent was chance of inheriting the disease? Two parents?

A

50% ; 75%

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74
Q

When a person has this disease they are unable to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine (no milk, cheese, meat, fish, eggs)

A

Phenylketonuria (PKU)

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75
Q

Prenatal exposure to alcohol can cause

A

Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorder (includes fetal alcohol syndrome, partial fetal alcohol syndrome, alcohol related neurodevelopmental disorder, alcohol related birth defects)

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76
Q

What are the stages of Piaget’s Constructivist Theory of Cognitive Development and what ages coincide with them

A
  1. Sensorimotor 0-2
  2. Preoperational 2-7
  3. Concrete Operational 7-12
  4. Formal Operational 12- adulthood
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77
Q

Piaget’s Constructivist Theory posits that cognitive development relies on a combination of what

A

Biological maturation & experience through interacting with the environment

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78
Q

According to Piaget, the source of motivation for cognitive development is what? What two processes restore it?

A

Equilibration ; assimilation and accommodation

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79
Q

This occurs when a child attempts to understand a new object or situation using an existing cognitive schema

A

Assimilation

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80
Q

This occurs when a child modifies an existing cognitive schema or creates a new schema to fit the new object or situation

A

Accommodation

81
Q

What is the accomplishment of the sensorimotor stage

A

Object permanence (ability to recognize that people and objects continue to exist even when they can’t be seen or heard) ; begins to develop in the fourth substage

82
Q

Egocentrism is characteristic of what Piaget stage

A

Preoperational

83
Q

Magical thinking and animism are characteristic of what Piaget stage ; what do they mean

A

Preoperational
Magical thinking- belief that just thinking about something can make it happen
Animism- belief that inanimate objects have lifelike qualities

84
Q

At what stage are children in Piaget’s stages able to conserve? What does this mean?

A

Concrete operational; understanding that certain physical characteristics of an object stay the same when the objects outer appearance changes

85
Q

What is the tendency to focus on one aspect of an object or situation to the exclusion of all other aspects. This impacts conservation

A

Centration

86
Q

The sequential emergence of conservation skills such as those that occur in the concrete operational stage is called what? It is the gradual development of a skill within a single stage of development

A

horizontal decalage

87
Q

When does renewed egocentrism occur? What is it?

A

Formal operational stage ; involves the inability to separate one’s own abstract thoughts from those of other people

88
Q

What is imaginary audience

A

adolescent belief that they are always the subject of other people’s attention or concern

89
Q

What is personal fable

A

The adolescent belief that they are special and unique and can’t be understood by others; they are omnipotent and invulnerable to harm

90
Q

What are some criticisms of Piaget’s theory of cognitive development

A
  • underestimate the abilities of infants and young children
    -in some instances children as young as 3 or 4 can learn to conserve
    -did not consider the impact of social interactions on cognitive development (didn’t think interactions with adults were as important as those with other children)
91
Q

According to Vygotsky which comes first in cognitive development:
interpersonal or intrapersonal?

A

interpersonal

exp: teacher provides verbal prompts to help a child solve a problem. Then kids utilize private speech to help them solve problems

92
Q

At what age did Vygotsky said private speech is replaced by inner (silent) speech

A

7

93
Q

According to Vygotsky when is learning most rapid

A

When it occurs within a child’s zone of proximal development (the gap between what a child can currently do independently and what they can do with assistance from an adult or competent peer)

94
Q

What did Vygotsky propose also creates a zone of proximal development that enables kids to practice new social roles and behaviors

A

make-believe (symbolic) play

95
Q

This is the ability to explain and predict other people’s behavior by attributing to them independent mental states such as beliefs and desires. This develops between age 3-5

A

Theory of Mind

96
Q

The effects of misinformation tend to decrease with what

A

increasing age

97
Q

What is the order of least accurate to most accurate eyewitness testimony

A

Young children
Older children
Adolescents
Adults
This is because suggestibility declines with increasing age. HOWEVER….
There is some evidence that certain conditions cause testimony of young children to be more accurate than older children, adolescents, and adults (reverse developmental trend) due to age related differences in knowledge. Increasing age is associated with greater knowledge and greater knowledge increases the likelihood of generating spontaneous false memories from suggestive information

98
Q

Children as young as what age can provide reasonably accurate eyewitness testimony as long as they are interviewed in a nonsuggestive way and not exposed to misinformation

A

3

99
Q

Six month olds can remember information for how long? 20 month olds can remember information for how long?

A

24 hours ; 1 year

100
Q

What are some explanations for childhood amnesia (not being able to recall memories before ages 3-4)

A

Limited language skills; language allows memories to be encoded

Sense of self is necessary for developing personal memories and young children haven’t developed a coherent sense of self

101
Q

What is the reminiscence bump

A

increased memory for events that occurred from mid adolescence to the mid 20s (15-25 yo).
Attributed to factors including identity formation. During this period many memorable events occur

102
Q

Research on older adults has found that they can best recall important events from their lives that occurred when?

A

During the 10 year period prior to being tested. This is followed by the reminiscence bump of ages 15-25yo

103
Q

Older adults experience the greatest age related decline in what type of memory

A

Recent long term memory (secondary memory). Older adults are less likely than younger adults to use effective encoding strategies

This is followed by the working memory aspect of short term memory

104
Q

What aspects of memory are relatively unaffected by increasing age?

A

the storage aspect of short term memory (primary memory) and remote long term memory (tertiary memory)

105
Q

Nondeclarative memory is sometimes referred to as ______ memory and consists of memories that are retrieved automatically with little effort. What type of memories does it include?

A

implicit

Procedural memories (learned skills and actions)
Memories created by classical conditioning
Memories affected by priming

106
Q

Declarative memory is sometimes referred to as ______ memory and consists of memories that are retrieved consciously and intentionally. What type of memories does it include?

A

explicit

episodic memories- memories of autobiographical events
semantic memories- memories of facts, concepts, and other kinds of knowledge

self-defining memory (SDM) is sometimes included as a component of episodic memory- memories that contribute to the construction and maintenance of personal identity

107
Q

According to the synchrony effect, there are age related differences with regard to the optimal time for successful performance on various visual and verbal memory tasks, problem solving, and other cognitive tasks. What does this effect theorize

A

The optimal time of task performance for older adults is in the morning and the late afternoon and evening for younger adults

108
Q

Who obtains higher scores of many measures of verbal ability throughout childhood and adolescence

A

Girls

However, boys outperform girls on measures of verbal analogies

109
Q

Who outperforms who on measures of mathematical reasoning and typically acquire more mathematical problem solving strategies

A

Boys

However, by adolescence girls outperform boys on measures of computational skills

110
Q

Who has higher scores on measures of visual/spatial abilities especially tasks requiring mental rotation

A

Boys

111
Q

Who engages in more physical aggression? Who engages in more relational aggression?

A

Boys ; Studies are inconsistent, there may be no significant gender differences

112
Q

For both genders, self esteem is relatively ______ in childhood, ________ in adolescence, _______ in late adolescence through middle adulthood, and ________ in late adulthood

A

high in childhood
drops in adolescence
increases in late adolescence through middle adulthood
declines in late adulthood

113
Q

The gender gap in self esteem tends to be larger where?

A

In larger individualistic countries that are developed and wealthy (US, Canada, Netherlands)

It’s smaller in collectivistic, less developed and poorer countries (india, indonesia, malaysia)

114
Q

Who is more vulnerable to pre and perinatal hazards and diseases and more likely to have developmental problems (autism, ADHD, intellectual disability, speech defects)

A

boys

115
Q

Gender differences in cognitive abilities and personality is often due to what

A

social and cultural factors including gender role stereotypes that create self fulfilling prophecy

116
Q

What are the sociodemographic and individual factors associated with increased risk of divorce

A

Decreases risk of divorce:
older age

Increases risk of divorce:
lower ses group
having a child before marriage
those previously married
those with psychopathology
high neuroticism

117
Q

The economic wellbeing of who declines following divorce

A

women and their children. these tend to be chronic

Men often experience improved financial situation

118
Q

Who tends to experience transient health problems after divorce? why?

A

Men

Tend to engage in risky health bxs, increased stress, isolation.

119
Q

How does divorce impact children’s relationships with their parents?

A

noncustodial fathers tend to be more indulgent and permissive

custodial mothers tend to show less affection (especially towards sons), be less consistent, and more authoritarian in discipline.

Post divorce, parents tend to have a diminished capacity to parents—continues for up to 2 years

120
Q

These factors have more impact on children’s outcomes after divorce than frequency of children’s contact with their non resident father

A

father’s payment of child support
closeness of the father child relationship
father’s reliance on authoritative parenting style

121
Q

Which age group has the most negative outcomes after parent’s divorce in the short run

A

Pre-school age

122
Q

What is the sleeper effect that that happens after parents divorce and who does it impact the most?

A

Girls

Girls who were in preschool or elementary school when parents divorced may have few problems initially, but become non compliant , have lower self esteem, more emotional problems as adolescents, likely to become pregnant before marriage, marry young, and worry excessively about abandonment and betrayal in romantic rxs

123
Q

Who tends to have more difficulty adjusting to step parents

A

girls

girls living with step fathers are more likely to avoid and be hostile towards their stepfathers and be more at risk for academic and behavioral problems. Girls living with step mothers have even more problems and tend to view step mothers as threats to rx with fathers.

Boys more likely to view step parents as sources of support

124
Q

Children between what ages tend to have the most problems adjusting to new stepparents

A

9-15yo

125
Q

What is the rx between living together prior to marriage and divorce

A

Living together before marriage decreased likelihood for divorce in the first year, but increased likelihood for divorce in subsequent years.

Younger age is more important than cohabitation for predictng divorce

126
Q

What is the order of life satisfaction for single and married men and women

A

Married/cohabitating men, married women, never married women, never married/single men

127
Q

What is the relationship between the transition into parenthood for couples

A

associated with decline in relationships satisfaction and increase in conflict.

This can vary due to length of marriage prior to children (married longer have less dissatisfacton). Adoptive parents report less decrease in marital satisfaction.

Availability of support from family and friends and sharing of parenting responsibilities lessens dissatisfaction

128
Q

On studies of international adoptees, domestic adoptees, and nonadopted peers, who had higher rates of internalizing and externalizing problems

A

Domestic adoptees, followed by international adoptees

129
Q

What are the impacts of custodial impacts on the grandparents

A

Positive:
second chance, sense of purpose, opportunity to nurture family rxs

Negatives:
higher levels of stress, depression, anxiety, insomnia, chronic health problems, social isolation, financial difficulties (more than traditional , graddparents)

130
Q

What happens to married women’s marital satisfaction when they become empty nesters

A

increased marital satisfaction due primarily to increase in quality of interactions with their husbands rather than quantity of time with their husbands

131
Q

This 3 phase model includes the following stages:
1. tension building phase
2. acute batter incident
3. loving contrition

What is the model and what happens in each phase

A

Walker’s Cycle of Violence describing intimate partner violence (IPV)

  1. hostility and tension gradually escalates, the victim tries to placate the abuser and keep them calm
  2. abuser expresses intense rage and/or physically attacks victim; may happen when woman can no longer control partner’s hostility
  3. also known as honeymoon phase. Abuser expresses remorse, tries to convince partner abuse won’t happen again
132
Q

This type of IPV is most often perpetrated in heterosexual couples by male partner who uses violence to control through threats, economic control, sexual and emotional abuse, and isolation. This is most characteristic of Walker’s cycle of violence

A

intimate terrorism

133
Q

This type of violence is most often perpetrated in heterosexual couples by the female partner as a response to the bx of her violent and controlling male partner. Motivation is defending herself, not control

A

Violent resistance

134
Q

This type of violence is perpetrated by both partners to gain control over the relationship. This is the least common type of IPV

A

mutual violent control

135
Q

This type of IPV is perpetrated by male and female partners, can be either one sided or mutual and ranges from mild to severe. This is situationally provoked (by arguments that escalate). It may involve a desire to control the situation, but not usually control over the relationship. This is the most common type of IPV

A

Situational couple violence

136
Q

From elementary to graduate school who tends to get called on more and gets more attention, praise, and feedback that encourages them to learn

A

males

get this attention from male and female teachers

137
Q

High quality daycare does what for children?

A

increases bx problems, but improves performance on measures of cognitive and language skills and some social skills.

Does not necessarily impact attachment security.

138
Q

What is the most common type of child maltreatment, followed by what

A

Neglect
Physical abuse
Sexual abuse
Psychological maltreatment

139
Q

which race and ethnicity have the highest level of childhood victimization

A

american indian and alaska native, followed by african american children

140
Q

what seems to mediate the relationship between childhood maltreatment and adult obesity

A

Depression

141
Q

Paralanguage refers to _____ something is said rather than to ________ is said and is often used to modify the meaning of what is said to express emotion

A

how ; what

142
Q

Paralanguage includes prosody which refers to what

A

refers to the stress, rhythm, tone, and intonation of speech

(tone= change in pitch for syllables or entire words to express emotion
intonation= changes in pitch over entire phrases or sentences. Used to express emotion, mark the beginning and end of a phrase or sentence, and indicate whether a sentence is a statement or question)

143
Q

This language error occurs when a child uses a word too broadly. This language error occurs when a child uses a word too narrowly.

A

Overextension
(exp: using the word doggie for all furry 4 legged animals)

Underextension
(exp: using the word doggie only for his pet)

144
Q

This language error occurs when a child misapplies rules for the plurals and past tense of something

exp: saying foots instead of feet and telled instead of told

A

Overregularization

145
Q

PKU is an autosomal recessive disorder which means what?

A

Both parents need to be carriers. A child has a 25% chance of inheriting the disease

146
Q

These parents are high in demandingness and responsiveness. These parents are warm and affectionate and encourage independence and individuality while also having clear rules.

A

Authoritative

Kids have high academic achievement, but this may vary by culture (not as strong for Asian and African American students as it is for European students)

147
Q

These parents are high in demandingness but low in responsiveness. They have many rules and emphasize parental control, respect for authority, and often have harsh punishments. Little nurturance and affection is provided.

A

Authoritarian

148
Q

With this parenting style kids tend to be moody, insecure, dependent, easily annoyed , and have poorer social skills. Also links to increased likelihood that child will be a bully or a victim of a bully

A

Authoritarian

149
Q

These parents are low in demandingness and responsiveness. They are unaware of their kids needs, rarely consider their opinions, and more concerned about their own needs than those of their children.

A

Uninvolved

150
Q

With this parenting style children tend to have the worse outcomes: low self esteem and self control, moody, irritable, non-compliant and demanding, low academic achievement, poor social skills, prone to drug use and antisocial bx.

A

Uninvolved

151
Q

These parents are low in demandingness and high in responsiveness. They rarely attempt to control their children and encourage them to express their feelings. Extremely accepting and supportive of children’s bxs, even when they are undesirable

A

Permissive

152
Q

With this parenting style, children tend to be self-centered, immature, rebellious, and have poor impulse control and social skills, and low levels of academic achievement. At an increased risk of bullying others or being a bully.

A

Permissive

153
Q

These children have the best outcomes

A

Authoritative

154
Q

Thomas and Chess describe children as __________ when they tend to have a positive mood, adapt easily to new people and situations, can tolerate frustration, have regular feeding and sleeping routines

A

Easy children

155
Q

Thomas and Chess describe children as ____________ when they have a mildly negative mood, take time to adapt to new people and situations, have low levels of activity, and have moderately regular feeding and sleeping routines

A

slow to warm up children

156
Q

Thomas and Chess describe children as __________ when they have a negative mood, cry frequently, respond negatively to new people and situations, are very active, and have irregular sleeping and eating routines

A

Difficult children

157
Q

Freud and Erikson’s stages for birth - 1 year

A

Oral

Trust v Mistrust (hope)

158
Q

Freud and Erikson’s stages 1-3 years

A

Anal

Autonomy v Shame and Doubt (Will)

159
Q

Freud and Erikson’s stages 3-6 yo

A

Phallic

Initiative v guilt (purpose)

160
Q

Freud and Erikson’s stages 6-12 yo

A

Latency

Industry v Inferiority (competence)

161
Q

Freud and Erikson’s stages for adolescence

A

Genital

Identity vs Role confusion (fidelity)

162
Q

Erikson stage for young adulthood

A

Intimacy v isolation (love)

163
Q

Erikson stage for middle adulthood

A

Generativity v stagnation (care)

164
Q

Erikson stage for late adulthood

A

Integrity v Despair (wisdom)

165
Q

Which big 5 personality traits increase with age

A

Agreeableness and Conscientiousness

166
Q

Which big 5 personality trait decreases with age

A

Neuroticism

167
Q

This theory of language development proposes that language development is the result of imitation and reinforcement

A

learning theory

168
Q

This theory of language development proposes that humans are biologically programmed to acquire language. According to Chomsky, humans have a language acquisition device which is an inborn linguistic processes that enables children to understand language and speak in rule governed ways. All languages have the same underlying grammatical structure and rules.

A

Nativist theory

169
Q

This theory of language proposes that language acquisition depends on a combination of biological and social factors. Children have a desire to understand and be understood by others. Caregivers use “parentese” to speak to kids

A

Social interactionist theory

170
Q

The smallest units of sound in language are called

A

Phonemes (phonology)

exp: c, t, th
English has about 50

171
Q

The smallest units of language that have meaning (includes pre-fixes and suffixes)

A

morphemes

172
Q

This refers to rules that determine how words can be combined into sentences

A

Syntax

173
Q

This is concerned with the meaning of words, phrases, and sentences and focuses on their literal meaning (the dictionary definition of the word)

A

Semantics

174
Q

This refers to the use and meaning of verbal and nonverbal language in different social contexts

A

Pragmatics

exp: turn taking, staying on topic, using rules appropriate for the listener (child vs adult) and appropriately using body language and non literal language

175
Q

Infants cry to signal what emotions

A

hunger or discomfort, anger or frustration, pain

176
Q

The critical period of acquisition of syntax is what

A

in the first year of language

177
Q

What kind of relationship exists between age of exposure to spoken or signed language and language proficiency

A

Strong negative relationship

178
Q

According to Schaffer and Callender, the critical period when separation from the mother is experienced as traumatic occurs around what age

A

“the middle of the first year of life” around 7 months

179
Q

What is the most common pattern of attachment in both Western and non-Western cultures?

A

Secure attachment

180
Q

The Insecure/Avoidant attachment pattern is most prevalent in what type of cultures?

A

Individualized Cultures; US, Germany

This seems to transcend race and ethnic culture in the US

181
Q

Insecure/Resistant attachment pattern is more common in what type of cultures

A

Collectivist; Japan, Israel

182
Q

Low SES children are more likely than those from other SES backgrounds to have what kind of attachment

A

insecure ; this is due to risk factors associated with low SES rather than low SIS itself (poor parental education, parental drug use, father absence)
Secure attachment occurs in spite of povery when parenting quality is good.

183
Q

Adults on the Adult Attachment Interview who were classified as autonomous usually have children who have what kind of attachment

A

Secure

Those classified as autonomous provided coherent descriptions of their childhood relationships with their parents.

184
Q

Adults on the Adult Attachment Interview who were classified as preoccupied usually have children who have what kind of attachment

A

Insecure/Resistant (ambivalent) attachment pattern
Exhibited angry, confused, or passive preoccupation toward a parent when describing childhood

185
Q

Adults on the Adult Attachment Interview who were classified as Dismissing usually have children who have what kind of attachment

A

Insecure/Avoidant attachment

usually provided positive descriptions of their childhood relationships, but their descriptions were not supported or were contradicted by actual memories

186
Q

At 6-8 months, infants start displaying what 3 things that indicate the development of attachment

A
  1. Social referencing- looking to caregivers to determine how to act in ambiguous and unfamiliar situations
  2. Separation Anxiety- begins at about 6-8 months and grows the most intense from 14-18 months

3.Stranger anxiety- begins at about 8-10 months, declines around 2 yo

186
Q

Signs of attachment first become apparent at what age?

A

Around 6 months

187
Q

Harlow and Zimmerman’s experiments with wire and cloth mothers for infant monkeys shows that what kind of comfort is an important contributor to an infant’s attachment to caregivers

A

Contact Comfort

187
Q

Bowlby’s ________ theory proposes that infants and their mothers are biologically predisposed to form an attachment to help ensure the survival of the infant.

A

Ethological

188
Q

What are the innate attachment related behaviors that predispose mothers and infants to form attachment according to ethological theory

A

Crying, Smiling, Cooing, and Sucking

189
Q

Shortly after birth infants display what 3 emotions

A

contentment
interest
distress

190
Q

Primary emotions are

A

joy, surprise, sadness, disgust, anger, and fear

191
Q

At around 18-24 months children develop what 3 emotions

A

envy, empathy, embarrassment

192
Q

At around 30-36 months infants develop what additional 3 emotions

A

shame
guilt
pride

193
Q

Research shows that older adults tend to remember more positive or more negative events than younger adults do?

A

More positive memories or memories associated with positive emotions. This is known as “positivity effect”.

Older adults tend to be more motivated than younger adults by emotional gratification

194
Q

While both guilt and shame induce motivation to change, which is more likely to induce the motivation to distance oneself from the event?

A

Shame

Guilt is more likely to induce motivation to apologize for or otherwise repair the aftermath of the event

195
Q

The APA task force on Media Violence found that the greater the exposure to violent videogames led to what outcomes

A

higher level of aggression (even when controlling for aggressive risk factors (antisocial traits, parents conflict, child and parent depression)

196
Q

Parent training for improving parent-child interactions and reducing aggression and other externalizing bxs had what kind of results of economically disadvantaged families

A

Equally as effective for economically disadvantaged families (as nondisadvantaged families) immediately post treatment when problems were severe, but less helpful when problems were mild.

At one year follow up, disadvantages families had poorer outcomes than advantaged families regardless of initial severity of child’s sxs

197
Q

What does “culture of honor refer to”

A

Concerns about maintaining one’s status, and reputation and willingness to respond to threats to one’s honor with aggressive or violent bx

More popular in southern US due to warmer temperatures, greater poverty, tradition of slavery, tradition of herding, etc.

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