Leukemias and Myelodysplastic Syndromes Flashcards

1
Q

Give 3 similarities between myeloproliferative neoplasms and myelodysplastic syndrome.

A

They are both quantitative, clonal stem cell disorders, and can transform into acute leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Give 3 differences between myeloproliferative neoplasms and myelodysplastic syndrome.

A

Myeloproliferative have cytosis, normal cell morphology, and organomegaly.

Myelodysplastic have cytopenia/ineffective hematopoeisis, abnormal cell morphology, and minimal organomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What’s the difference between leukemia and lymphoma?

A

Leukemia occurs primarily in bone marrow; lymphoma involves extramedullary tissues, esp lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Give the 8 types of myeloproliferative neoplasms according to WHO.

A

Bcr-abl1 positive CML, polycythemia vera, primary myelofibrosis, essential thrombocythemia, chronic neutrophilic leukemia, chronic eosinophilic leukemia, mastocytosis, myeloproliferative neoplasm unclassifiable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which myeloproliferative neoplasm is defined primarily by granulocyte proliferation over the full range of myeloid maturation?

A

CML (main granulocyte = neutrophil)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which myeloproliferative neoplasm is defined by erythrocyte, megakaryocyte, and granulocyte proliferation?

A

Polycythemia vera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which myeloproliferative neoplasm is defined by proliferation of megakaryocytes and granulocytes, but not erythrocytes?

A

Primary myelofibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which myeloproliferative neoplasm is defined by megakaryote proliferation only?

A

Essential Thrombocythemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which myeloproliferative neoplasm is defined by the uncontrolled proliferation of mast cells only?

A

Mastocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In which myeloproliferative neoplasm does marrow fibrosis occur most frequently? What cells are responsible for stimulating the fibroblasts?

A

Primary myelofibrosis; megakaryotes stimulate fibroblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What kind of shift occurs when the number of younger, less well differentiated neutrophils and neutrophil-precursor cells in the blood increases? This generally reflects early or premature release of myeloid cells from the bone marrow.

A

Left shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Philadelphia chromosome / bcr-abl / t(9;22) is associated with what disease? What size protein is typically made and what enzyme function does it have?

A

CML; 210kd tyrosine kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Polycythemia vera, primary myelofibrosis, and essential thrombocytopenia all tend to have mutations that activate what protein? How does this contribute to disease progression?

A

JAK2 gain-of-function: cells become hypersensitive to growth factors and cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Systemic mastocytosis generally involves an activation of what proto-oncogene?

A

C-kit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In which of the following neoplasms does secondary or refractory cytopenia occur: Bcr-abl1 positive CML, polycythemia vera, primary myelofibrosis, essential thrombocythemia, and mastocytosis, MDS, AML?

A

Polycythemia vera, primary myelofibrosis, and mastocytosis, MDS, and AML (the first 3 end up with hypocellular bone marrow due to fibrosis; MDS is due to ineffective release from marrow; AML is due to accumulation of immature myeloid cells in the marrow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which clonal blood disorder features peripheral blood cytopenia, bone marrow failure, <20% blasts in the peripheral blood, and dysplasia in one or more hematopoietic lineages?

A

Myelodysplastic syndrome

17
Q

Which clonal blood disorder features ringed sideroblasts, nuclear hyposegmentation (pseudo-Pelger-Huët cells), and cytoplasmic hypogranulation?

A

Myelodysplastic syndrome

18
Q

Myelodysplastic syndromes feature anemia, neutropenia, and thrombocytopenia due to what general pathophysiological cause: nutrient deficiency, impaired cell production, ineffective hematopoiesis, or increased cell destruction?

A

Ineffective hematopoiesis (so bone marrow is hypercellular but peripheral blood is not)

19
Q

What clonal blood disorder features myeloblast proliferation and release into the blood? What similar disorder features the slightly more mature granulocyte proliferation instead?

A

AML; CML

myeloblast - myelocyte/granulocyte - neutrophil

20
Q

What is the difference between AML and myelodysplastic syndrome in terms of number of myeloblasts seen?

A

AML has >20% blasts in bone marrow or blood; MDS has <20%

21
Q

Subtype of AML with recurrent genetic abnormalities: t(15;17) makes PML-RAR gene

A

APL, acute promyelocytic leukemia

22
Q

What problem tends to occur in APL patients due to the degradation of senescent leukemic cells and subsequent activation of the coagulation cascade?

A

DIC, disseminated intravascular coagulation

23
Q

Give 4 names for the AML subtype that presents as an extramedullary solid tumor of myeloblasts or monoblasts.

A

Myeloid Sarcoma / Monoblastic Sarcoma / Granulocytic Sarcoma / Chloroma

24
Q

What targeted drug therapy can be used to treat CML? APL?

A

Imatinib (or nilotinib, dasatinib); ATRA