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LESSON 10 Flashcards

1
Q
A
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2
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3
Q

What are the 5 different movement phases?

A
  1. Pushing
  2. Pulling
  3. Rotational Moves
  4. Bend and Lift
  5. Single leg movements

These phases represent various functional movements important for physical training and rehabilitation.

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4
Q

What does IFT stand for in the IDT Model?

A

Integrated Fitness Training

IFT is a key component of the IDT Model, focusing on a holistic approach to fitness.

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5
Q

What are the three components of the IFT Model Muscular Phase?

A
  • Functional
  • Movement
  • Load/Speed

These components emphasize different aspects of muscular training.

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6
Q

What are the three components of the IFT Model Cardio Respiratory Phase?

A
  • Base
  • Fitness
  • Performance

These components focus on the progression of cardiovascular training.

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7
Q

Fill in the blank: The IFT Model Muscular Phase includes _______.

A

Functional, Movement, Load/Speed

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8
Q

True or False: The IFT Model includes a Cardio Respiratory Phase.

A

True

The Cardio Respiratory Phase is crucial for developing cardiovascular fitness.

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9
Q

Fill in the blank: The three components of the IFT Model Cardio Respiratory Phase are _______.

A

Base, Fitness, Performance

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10
Q

What is the definition of Force-couple relationships?

A

Muscles working as a group to provide opposing, directional, or contralateral pulls to achieve balanced movement.

This concept is essential for understanding how muscles coordinate to produce movement.

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11
Q

Define the Length-tension relationship.

A

Refers to the relationship between the length at which a muscle generates its weakest to strongest contraction. An optimal length will produce the greatest force/tension.

This relationship is crucial in sports science and rehabilitation.

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12
Q

What is the Sagittal Plane?

A

The longitudinal plane that divides the body into right and left halves.

Movements such as flexion and extension occur in this plane.

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13
Q

Define the Frontal Plane.

A

A longitudinal plane that divides the body into anterior (front) and posterior (back) portions.

Movements like abduction and adduction occur within this plane.

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14
Q

What is Pronation?

A

Internal rotation of the forearm causing the radius to cross diagonally over the ulna and the palm to face posteriorly.

This movement is important in various sports and daily activities.

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15
Q

Define Calcaneal Eversion.

A

Movement of the plantar surface of the calcaneus laterally away from the midline of the tibia.

This movement is often assessed in foot and ankle evaluations.

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16
Q

What is Scapulohumeral Rhythm?

A

Combined action of scapular and humeral movement. For every 2 degrees of humeral abduction, 1 degree of scapular rotation takes place through the glenohumeral articulation.

This rhythm is crucial for effective shoulder function.

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17
Q

Define Static Stretching.

A

Holding a nonmoving (static) position to immobilize a joint in a position that places the desired muscles and connective tissues passively at their greatest (lengthened) possible stretch.

This technique is often used in flexibility training.

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18
Q

What does Isometric refer to?

A

A type of muscular action in which the muscle is stimulated to generate tension but little or no joint movement occurs.

Isometric exercises are often used in rehabilitation.

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19
Q

Define Base of support (BOS).

A

The area of contact between the feet and their supporting surface and the area between the feet.

This concept is important for balance and stability.

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20
Q

What is the Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL)?

A

A primary stabilizing ligament of the knee that travels from the medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle to its point of insertion anteromedially on the tibial spine.

ACL injuries are common in sports.

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21
Q

Fill in the blank: Absolute Strength is the maximal amount of weight an individual can lift _______.

A

one time.

This measure is often used in strength training assessments.

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22
Q

What is the purpose of functional assessments?

A

To help the personal trainer observe a client’s efficacies in postural stabilization, balance, and core function.

Functional assessments are crucial for understanding how well a client can maintain posture and stability during movement.

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23
Q

What does the right-angle rule of the body describe?

A

How the body represents itself in vertical alignment across the major joints: ankle, knee, hip, shoulder, and spine.

The right-angle rule helps personal trainers identify postural deviations in all three planes.

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24
Q

Why should personal trainers focus on gross imbalances rather than minor postural asymmetries?

A

The body is rarely perfectly symmetrical, and overanalyzing asymmetries can be time-consuming, intimidating, and induce muscle fatigue.

This focus helps maintain client engagement and reduces unnecessary fatigue.

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25
Anterior tilting of the pelvis frequently occurs in individuals with tight _________.
Hip flexors ## Footnote Tight hip flexors can lead to various postural issues, including pelvic tilt.
26
An anterior pelvic tilt will increase _________ in the lumbar spine.
Lordosis ## Footnote Lordosis refers to the inward curvature of the lumbar spine.
27
List three key deviations of the thoracic spine and shoulders.
* Shoulders not level * Asymmetry to midline * Protracted (forward, rounded) * Medially rotated humerus * Kyphosis and depressed chest ## Footnote These deviations can indicate poor posture and potential musculoskeletal issues.
28
How long did the 68-year-old female client hold the unipedal stance test with her eyes open?
40 seconds ## Footnote She exceeded the normative figure for her age and gender, which is 30.4 seconds.
29
Using the coefficient of 1.255, how do you calculate a client's one-repetition maximum (1-RM) if they perform eight repetitions with 145 pounds?
145 lbs (65 kg) x 1.255 = 181.975 lbs (rounded to 182 lbs) ## Footnote This calculation allows personal trainers to estimate a client's strength without maximal effort.
30
What are the two categories of factors that can contribute to muscle imbalances and postural deviations?
Correctible and Non-Correctible ## Footnote These categories help in understanding what can be improved through exercise versus structural limitations.
31
List some correctible factors that can lead to muscle imbalances.
* Repetitive movements * Awkward positions * Lack of stability in joints * Limited movement in certain areas * Unbalanced exercise program ## Footnote These are factors that can often be improved through targeted exercise and lifestyle changes.
32
List some non-correctible factors that can lead to muscle imbalances.
* Congenital conditions (e.g., scoliosis) * Diseases (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis) * Structural differences in bones * Past injuries or surgeries * Amputation ## Footnote These factors are more related to the body's structure and cannot be changed directly through exercise.
33
How can a trainer identify scapular winging?
By observing if the inner border or lower angle of the shoulder blade sticks out away from the rib cage ## Footnote This is often noticeable when the arms are raised or pushed forward.
34
How can a trainer identify scapular protraction?
By checking if the shoulder blades are further away from the spine and if the shoulders look rounded forward ## Footnote This position is similar to someone reaching forward, even when arms are resting.
35
What movements might a trainer ask a client to perform to observe scapular winging?
Pushing against a wall ## Footnote This can help make the winging more apparent during observation.
36
If a personal trainer observes that a client has a medially rotated humerus, it might indicate:
Tightness in the pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, and subscapularis muscles ## Footnote This indicates muscular imbalances affecting shoulder mechanics.
37
What muscles would you suspect are tight in a client with a forward-head position?
Cervical extensors ## Footnote This position often results from tightness in the muscles at the back of the neck.
38
The _________________________ can be used to test a client's static balance.
Unipedal stance test ## Footnote This test evaluates the ability to maintain balance on one leg.
39
To assess dynamic balance, personal trainers can use the _________________________.
Y balance test ## Footnote This test measures the reach in multiple directions to assess balance.
40
The Y balance test is performed in _________________________ directions.
3 ## Footnote The directions are anterior, posteromedial, and posterolateral.
41
McGill suggests that a ratio between flexion and extension should be less than _________________________ to indicate balanced endurance among the muscle groups.
1.0 ## Footnote This ratio helps assess the balance of muscular endurance in the trunk.
42
The Thomas test is used to assess _________________________.
B. Hip flexor length ## Footnote The Thomas test is a physical examination technique for evaluating hip flexor tightness.
43
If a client exhibits lumbar dominance in the squat movement, this indicates _________________________.
B. A lack of core and gluteal strength ## Footnote Lumbar dominance can lead to compensatory movements and potential injury.
44
The body-weight squat assessment evaluates _________________________.
A. Lower-extremity muscular endurance ## Footnote This assessment helps in determining the endurance capacity of the lower body.
45
What is a stretch for the hypertonic or shortened hip flexors?
Kneeling hip flexor stretch ## Footnote Alternative: Side-lying hip flexor stretch
46
What exercise is selected for the hypertonic or shortened lumbar extensors?
Cat-cow ## Footnote Refer to Fig. 11.34
47
What is a stretch for the hypertonic or shortened anterior chest/shoulders?
Anterior shoulder and chest wall stretch ## Footnote Refer to Fig. 11-74
48
What is one stretch for the hypertonic or shortened latissimus dorsi?
90 Lat stretch ## Footnote Alternative: Child's pose (Refer to Fig. 11-77)
49
What exercise is recommended for the hypertonic or shortened neck extensors?
Neck flexion and extension ## Footnote Refer to ACE Exercise Library
50
What is a stretch for the hypertonic or shortened rectus abdominis?
Cobra ## Footnote Refer to Fig. 11-51
51
What exercise is selected for the hypertonic or shortened upper-back extensors?
Cat-cow ## Footnote Refer to Fig. 11-34
52
What is a stretch for the hypertonic or shortened ankle plantar flexors?
Standing calf stretch ## Footnote Refer to Fig. 11-86
53
What is one stretch for the hypertonic or shortened hamstrings?
Passive hamstrings stretch ## Footnote Refer to Fig. 11-12
54
What is a stretch for the hypertonic or shortened upper fibers of posterior obliques?
Quadruped thoracic spine rotation ## Footnote Refer to Fig. 11-61
55
What muscle group is inhibited in the context of hip extensors?
Hip extensors ## Footnote Includes muscles such as gluteus maximus.
56
Which exercise is selected for hip extensors?
Glute bridge ## Footnote Refer to Fig. 11-48 for visual guidance.
57
What muscle group is facilitated/hypertonic and shortened related to external obliques?
External obliques ## Footnote Engaged during lateral flexion and rotation.
58
Which exercise is selected for external obliques?
Side plank ## Footnote Refer to Fig. 11-49 for visual guidance.
59
What muscle group is facilitated/hypertonic and shortened related to rectus abdominis?
Rectus abdominis ## Footnote Important for trunk flexion.
60
Which exercises are selected for rectus abdominis?
Kneeling ABC's with stability ball, Modified curl-up ## Footnote Refer to Fig. 11-83 and Fig. 11-84 for visual guidance.
61
What muscle group is facilitated/hypertonic and shortened related to upper-back extensors?
Upper-back extensors ## Footnote Vital for maintaining an upright posture.
62
Which exercise is selected for upper-back extensors?
Prone extension ## Footnote Refer to Fig. 11-46 for visual guidance.
63
What muscle group is facilitated/hypertonic and shortened related to scapular stabilizers?
Scapular stabilizers ## Footnote Essential for shoulder stability.
64
Which exercise is selected for scapular stabilizers?
Stability ball shoulder stabilization- I,Y,T,W ## Footnote Refer to Fig. 11-44 for visual guidance.
65
What muscle group is facilitated/hypertonic and shortened related to neck flexors?
Neck flexors ## Footnote Play a role in head movement and stability.
66
Which exercise is selected for neck flexors?
Neck flexion and extension ## Footnote Refer to ACE Exercise Library for details.
67
What muscle group is facilitated/hypertonic and shortened related to iliacus/psoas major?
Iliacus/psoas major ## Footnote Important for hip flexion.
68
Which exercise is selected for iliacus/psoas major?
Step-Up ## Footnote Refer to Fig. 11-79 for visual guidance.
69
What muscle group is facilitated/hypertonic and shortened related to internal obliques?
Internal obliques ## Footnote Assist with trunk rotation and lateral flexion.
70
Which exercise is selected for internal obliques?
Side plank ## Footnote Refer to Fig. 11-49 for visual guidance.
71
What muscle group is facilitated/hypertonic and shortened related to lumbar extensors?
Lumbar extensors ## Footnote Important for spinal extension.
72
Which exercise is selected for lumbar extensors?
Back extension on stability ball ## Footnote Refer to Fig. 11-41 for visual guidance.
73
What muscle group is facilitated/hypertonic and shortened related to rectus femoris?
Rectus femoris ## Footnote A key muscle in knee extension.
74
Which exercise is selected for rectus femoris?
Step-Up ## Footnote Refer to Fig. 11-49 for visual guidance.

ACE PFT (13 decks)

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