LESSON 5 Flashcards

1
Q

What is a diuretic?

A

Medication that promotes an increase in urine volume and is often prescribed to reduce excessive production of urine.

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2
Q

Define Acute Myocardial Infarction (AMI).

A

A myocardial infarction resulting from acute obstruction of a coronary artery.

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3
Q

What is intermittent claudication?

A

Muscle pain (ache, cramp, numbness, or sense of fatigue) that occurs during exercise and is relieved by a short period of rest.

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4
Q

What causes Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)?

A

Narrowing or occlusion of the coronary arteries, most commonly due to atherosclerotic deposits.

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5
Q

How do beta blockers affect the heart?

A

They slow the heart rate and decrease maximal heart rate by blocking sympathetic nervous system stimulation.

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6
Q

What is the primary action of antihistamines?

A

They block histamine receptors in the body.

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7
Q

How do bronchodilators work?

A

They relax and widen the constricted bronchial smooth muscle.

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8
Q

What do calcium channel blockers do?

A

They relax and widen blood vessels.

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9
Q

What is the function of ACE inhibitors?

A

They reduce the activity of the angiotensin-converting enzyme, preventing the formation of angiotensin II.

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10
Q

What is the role of Angiotensin II Receptor Antagonists?

A

They block the action of angiotensin II receptors, allowing blood vessels to dilate.

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11
Q

What does sympathomimetic mean?

A

Characteristics of medications that mimic the effects of the sympathetic nervous system.

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12
Q

Define vasoconstriction.

A

Narrowing of the opening of blood vessels, leading to increased blood flow to a part of the body.

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13
Q

What three factors does the new health-screening process consider?

A
  1. Current level of physical activity. 2. Diagnosed cardiovascular, metabolic, or renal disease. 3. Desired exercise intensity.
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14
Q

What three categories of individuals does the new health-screening process identify?

A
  1. Those needing medical clearance before exercise. 2. Those with significant diseases who may benefit from supervised exercise. 3. Those needing exclusion from exercise until conditions are controlled.
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15
Q

True or False: The risk of cardiovascular complications during resistance exercise is low.

A

True.

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16
Q

What document is used for self-guided screening in the preparticipation health screening?

A

The PAR-Q+.

17
Q

Why is information about a client’s medication use important during screening?

A

Some substances alter biochemistry and may affect exercise performance and physiological responses.

18
Q

What is the difference between self-directed exercise screening and personal trainer-guided screening?

A

Self-directed uses a standardized questionnaire with little feedback, while personal trainer-guided allows for rapport building and immediate implementation of methods.

19
Q

If a client shows shortness of breath and dizziness, what should be done?

A

Stop exercise and obtain clearance from a physician.

20
Q

Is medical clearance recommended for a new client with type 2 diabetes before exercise?

21
Q

What is the next step for a client with a history of diabetes wanting to add vigorous-intensity exercise?

A

Get clearance from a doctor.

22
Q

The risk of exercise-related acute myocardial infarction is highest among individuals who ______.

A

Perform a level of physical activity to which they are not accustomed.

23
Q

Beta-adrenergic blocking agents _______.

A

Limit sympathetic nervous system stimulation.

24
Q

The BEST way to monitor exercise intensity for a client on a beta blocker is to use ______.

A

Rating of perceived exertion.

25
Calcium channel blockers ________.
Lower blood pressure.
26
For which condition are diuretics usually prescribed?
High blood pressure.
27
What is the goal of the ACSM preparticipation guidelines?
Remove unnecessary barriers to becoming more physically active.
28
The PAR-Q+ was developed with the goal of __________.
Reducing unnecessary barriers to exercise.
29
List the diseases personal trainers should be aware of for medical clearance.
1. Cardiovascular disease. 2. Metabolic disease. 3. Renal disease.
30
What signs and symptoms should personal trainers assess for medical clearance?
Pain, shortness of breath, orthopnea, dizziness, ankle edema, palpitations, intermittent claudication, known heart murmur.
31
Is using a standard target heart rate appropriate for a client on a beta blocker?
No, it is not appropriate due to altered heart rate responses.
32
What methods could be used to monitor exercise intensity for a client on a beta blocker?
Rating of Perceived Exertion or the talk test.
33
What is the purpose of the ACSM preparticipation guidelines?
To remove unnecessary barriers to becoming more physically active ## Footnote The guidelines aim to facilitate increased physical activity by simplifying the preparticipation health-screening process.
34
What does risk factor profiling entail in relation to exercise preparticipation health screening?
It is not part of the exercise preparticipation health-screening process due to lack of supporting evidence ## Footnote Risk factors without underlying disease do not necessarily increase the risk for activity-related cardiovascular events.
35
What is the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire for Everyone (PAR-Q+)?
An evidence-based form designed to reduce unnecessary barriers to exercise ## Footnote The PAR-Q+ serves as a self-guided screening tool or as an additional element for personal trainers.
36
How can the PAR-Q+ be utilized?
As a self-guided screening tool or as an additional element of screening by personal trainers ## Footnote It helps in gathering additional client information.
37
True or False: Risk factor classification is a necessary step in the exercise preparticipation health-screening process.
False ## Footnote Risk factor classification is not supported by sufficient evidence and may hinder participation.