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Maternal and Child Nursing > Lesson 1 > Flashcards

Lesson 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the promotion and maintenance of optimal family health to ensure cycles of optimal childbearing and childrearing?

A

PRIMARY GOAL OF MCN

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2
Q

A group of people related by blood,
marriage, or adoption living together? Two or more people who live n in the same household (usually), share a
common emotional bond, and perform
certain interrelated social tasks?

A

FAMILY

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3
Q

Basic Family Types: the
family one is born into (e.g., oneself, mother, father, and siblings, if any)?

A

FAMILY OF ORIENTATION

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4
Q

Basic Family Types: the
family one establishes (e.g.
oneself, a spouse or significant
other, and children, if any)?

A

FAMILY OF PROCREATION

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5
Q

Family structure: those that have no children?

A

DYAD FAMILY

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6
Q

Family structure: unmarried couple that has children?

A

COHABITATIONAL FAMILY

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7
Q

Family structure: family unit that typically consists of two parents and their children?

A

NUCLEAR FAMILY

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8
Q

Family structure: a family where one person is married to multiple spouses?

A

POLYGAMOUS FAMILY

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9
Q

Family structure: a family structure where multiple generations of relatives, like grandparents, parents, children, aunts, uncles, and cousins, live together or in close proximity, sharing a kinship network that extends beyond the immediate nuclear family unit?

A

Extended (multigenerational) family

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10
Q

Family structure: a family where one parent is responsible for raising the children without a spouse or partner to share the responsibilities?

A

SINGLE PARENT FAMILY

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11
Q

Family structure: a family consisting of a couple and their children from this and all previous relationships?

A

BLENDED FAMILY

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12
Q

Family structure: a same-sex family or rainbow family, is a family where at least one person is lesbian, gay, bisexual, transgender, non-binary, or queer?

A

GAY or LESBIAN FAMILY

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13
Q

Family structure: are the family that takes in a foster child or children into their home, which is known as a “foster home.”?

A

Foster family

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14
Q

Family structure: a family where the parents have adopted a child who is not biologically related to them?

A

Adoptive family

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15
Q

Nurturer,provider,decision maker, financial manager, problem solver, health manager, culture bearer, environmentalist, and gatekeeper are the family ___?

A

roles

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16
Q
  • Physical maintenance
  • Socialization of family members
  • Allocation of resources
  • Maintenance of order
  • Division of labor
  • Reproduction, recruitment, and release of
    family members
  • Placement of members into larger society
  • Maintenance of motivation and morale
    What are these?
A

FAMILY FUNCTIONS

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16
Q
  1. Marriage
  2. Early childbearing Family
  3. Family with a preschool Child
  4. Family with a school-aged Child
  5. Family with an adolescent
  6. Family with a young adult (“launching”)
  7. Family of middle years
  8. Family in retirement or older age
A

Developmental stages of the Family

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17
Q

Common test for determination of genetic abnormalities: a visual presentation
of the chromosome pattern of an individual?

A

KARYOTYPING

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18
Q

It is the most common male chromosomal disease, otherwise known as 47,XXY, is caused by an extra X chromosome.
*primary features are infertility and small
poorly functioning testicles?

A

KLINEFELTER SYNDROME

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18
Q

It is a genetic condition caused by an extra chromosome?

A

DOWN SYNDROME or TRISOMY 21

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19
Q

A baby
has an extra 18th chromosome. These
babies usually have many problems, and
most don’t live longer than a year?

A

Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18)

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19
Q

It is a condition that affects only females, results when one of the X chromosomes (sex chromosomes) is missing or partially missing?

A

TURNER SYNDROME

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20
Q

A baby has
an extra 13th chromosome. These babies
usually have heart problems and severe
mental impairment. Most won’t live more
than a year?

A

Patau syndrome (trisomy 13)

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21
Q

It is a test that measures the quantity of fetal
serum protein.
* Significant ↓
○chromosomal defects
such as Down’s
Syndrome.
* 15-20 weeks of gestation?

A

Alpha-fetoprotein testing

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22
Q

Is retrieval and analysis of
chorionic villi for chromosome
analysis.
 Tissue of fetal origin
◦ Use to obtain samples of
chorionic villi to test for
genetic disorder in the
fetus.
 Timing at 10 to 12 weeks?

A

Chorionic Villi Sampling (CVS)

22
Q

Aspiration of 20 cc
amniotic fluid from the
pregnant uterus through
the abdominal wall
-15th to 20th week,
amniotic fluid has reached
about 200ml at this point
-determine genetic
disorder, sex, and fetal
maturity?

A

AMNIOCENTESIS

23
Q

ANALYSIS information from AMNIOCENTESIS: NORMAL

A

COLORLESS

24
Q

ANALYSIS information from AMNIOCENTESIS: Normal in late pregnancy

A

YELLOW TINGE

24
Q

ANALYSIS information from AMNIOCENTESIS: blood
incompatibility

A

strong yellow

24
Q

ANALYSIS information from AMNIOCENTESIS: Green

A

meconium stain
fetal distress

25
Q

They are protein
component of the
lung enzyme
surfactant that
alveoli begin to form
about 22nd to 24th
week of pregnancy; : ratio of 2.5:1 or 3:1 a
mature indicator in infants whose
mother is diabetic; Normal ratio is 2:1 or
greater which signifies lung maturity?

A

LS RATIO ( Lecithin / Sphingomyelin ratio)

26
Q

NORMAL: Negative for
blood or should
have no false positive
reading?
POSITIVE: The presence of bilirubin may be
analyzed if a blood
incompatibility is
suspected?

A

BILIRUBIN DETERMINATION

27
Q

A few fetal skin cells are always
present in amniotic fluid.
* This cell may be cultured and
stained for karyotyping.
* Chromosomal study of fetal tissues
should be free of diseases?

A

CHROMOSOME ANALYSIS

28
Q

Diagnose pregnancy as early
as 6 weeks
✓ Confirm the presence, size,
location, of the placenta and
amniotic fluid
✓ Establish fetus is growing and
no gross anomalies
✓ Establish the sex
Establish presentation and
position of the fetus
✓ Predict gestational age
✓ Discover complication of
pregnancy and genetic
disorders
✓ Detect fetal death
✓ Detect retained placenta or
poor uterine involution after birth
Explain the procedure
✓ Ask patient to drink a full glass of water every 15 minutes
beginning 90 minutes before the procedure
✓ Ensure full bladder
✓ Instructed the patient not to void until after the procedure
✓ Assist the patient on the examining table and drape exposing
the abdomen
✓ Place towel under right buttock to tip the body slightly so the
uterus will roll away from the vena cava, thus will prevent
SUPINE HYPOTENSION SYNDROME?

A

ULTRASONOGRAPHY (UTZ)

29
Q

Visualization of the fetus thru a
fetoscope an extremely narrow, hollow
tube inserted by amniocentesis
technique thru minor abdominal
incision
- Long tube with a camera on one end,
inserted thru a small abdominal incision
- Can be performed approximately 16th -
17th week?

A

FETOSCOPY

30
Q

urine is tested for
the ff:
- proteinuria
(protein)
- glycosuria (sugar)
- nitrites (bacteria)
- pyuria (WBC)?

A

Urinalysis

31
Q

-hemoglobin, hematocrit,
and red cell index for
anemia,
-white blood cell for
infection
-platelet count to
estimate clotting ability?

A

Blood Serum Studies
CBC (Complete Blood Count)

32
Q

It is the measures the number of lymphocytes, a type of
white blood cell, in a given blood sample.
- If numbers are elevated it could indicate an
abnormal immune system response?

A

LYMPHOCYTE COUNT

33
Q

What are the 5 WBC?

A

Neutrophils
Basophils
Eosinophils
Lymphocytes
Monocytes

34
Q

It is the type of WBC that is the first responder/ fight off fungal, bacteria, or viruses infections? When this type of WBC die, pus is formed?

A

NEUTROPHILS

35
Q

Type of WBC that has an important role in asthma?

A

BASOPHILS

36
Q

Type of WBC that is known for their role in allergy symptoms?

A

EOSINOPHILS

37
Q

Type of WBC that fight infections by producing antibodies?

A

LYMPHOCYTES

38
Q

It is a test that can help determine
the severity of an allergic reaction
– more being associated with a
more acute reaction?

A

EOSINOPHIL COUNT

39
Q

It is the unusually low number of neutrophils?

A

NEUTROPENIA

39
Q

It is type of WBC that clean up dead cells?

A

MONOCYTE

39
Q

levels represent
red blood cell
volume in the
given blood
sample. Size of
those red blood
cells is also
reported? Size and number of red
blood cells are an
indication of overall
health and dietary
efficiency?

A

HEMATOCRIT

39
Q

It is to find evidence of anemia
such as sickle cell anemia?

A

hematocrit and hemoglobin
levels

40
Q

it is to determine infection?

A

white blood cell count

40
Q

it is to estimate clotting ability?

A

platelet count

40
Q

It is to detect ABO and Rh
incompatibility
- blood must be available in case
bleeding occur?

A

Blood typing and Rh factor

40
Q

it is a test if syphilis is present must be treated
early before fetal damage occur?

A

Serologic test for Syphilis

40
Q

It should be collected at initial pelvic
examination
- often asymptomatic infections
- patient is treated with antibiotic
- test for repeat culture at 35 and
37 weeks
- all patient 25 years and under
must repeat the test at 35 and 37
weeks?

A

Culture for chlamydia and gonorrhea

41
Q

MSAF) and
pregnancy associated
plasma protein A
- accurate at 16-18 weeks?

A

Maternal Serum alpha Fetoprotein

42
Q

It is a test that determine whether the
Rh antibodies are present in
Rh-negative woman
- test repeated at 28 weeks?

A

Indirect Coombs test

43
Q

Serum antibody titer for?

A

✓Rubella
✓Hepa B (HBsAg) – can be
repeated at about 36 weeks
✓Hepa C
✓Varicella (chicken pox)

44
Q

should be done in early
pregnancy
- high risk should be retested in the
3
rd trimester
- ELISA (enzyme-linked
immunosorbent assay)- screening
test
- Western Blot a confirmatory test
once ELISA is positive?

A

HIV screening

44
Q

Meaning of ELISA?

A

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay

45
Q

measure of the amount of sugar
attached to hemoglobin
- reflects the average blood
glucose over the past 4 to 6
weeks?

A

Glycosylated
hemoglobin (HgA1C)

46
Q

Mantoux Test
● PPD /tuberculin test
● 0.1 of tuberculin units are injected
by a needle and syringe
intradermally
● If induration area is at least 10 cm in
diameter, the test is considered
positive?

A

Tuberculosis Screening

47
Q

Test that measures the
fetal heart rate
after the
mother’s uterus is
stimulated to
contract. This test
is done to make
sure the fetus can
handle contractions
during labor and
get the oxygen
needed from the
placenta?

A

Contraction stress test

47
Q

It is a prenatal ___ assesses fetal heart rate and movement. It provides useful information about the oxygen supply to the fetus. This test indicates the fetus needs more monitoring and testing?

A

NON STRESS TEST

Maternal and Child Nursing (3 decks)

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