Leik 2 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

visual fields by confrontation is used to evaluate for

A

peripheral vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A tonometer is used to evaluate

A

glucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What causes condylomata acuminata?

A

genital warts
HPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What findings are consistent with syphilis?

A

painless chancre
maculopapular rash of palms and soles
lymphadenopathy
condylomata lata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When evaluating for coarctation of the aorta, the BP in the ____ is higher than in the ____

A

higher in the arms than in the legs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The NP is reviewing a patient’s lab results and notes a normal ferritin, high serum iron, elevated TIBC, normal MCHC, & abnormal hemoglobin electrophoresis….what diagnosis is most likely?

A

Thalassemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What diagnosis is most likely?
low ferritin
decreased serum iron
elevated TIBC
decreased MCHC
normal hemoglobin electrophoresis

A

iron deficiency anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Patients on atypical antipsychotics are at risk for:

A

obesity
hyperglycemia
T2DM
hyperlipidemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The acronym TORCH stands for:

A

Toxoplasma gondii
Other infections
Rubella
CMV
Herpes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The anti-hepatitis C virus (HCV) test of a 60 y/o F is positive. What test is a appropriate for f/u?

A

HCV RNA

anti-HCV detects antibodies but cannot distinguish between active and previous HCV infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Treatment for acne
1st:
2nd:
3rd
4th

A

1st topical agents
2nd Retin-A 0.25%
3rd Tetracycline oral
4th Accutane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When does an infant triple it’s birth weight?

A

12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are adverse effects of atypical antipsychotics

A

orthostatic hypotension
sedation

EX zyprexa, Seroquel, Risperdal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Characteristics of Osgood-Schlatter disease

A

pain over the tibial tuberosity with palpation of a bony mass over the anterior tubercle of one or both knees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What do you prescribe for a patient with acute epididymitis most likely caused by chlamydia/gonorrhea as well as the probability of enteric organisms obtained by men who practice anal sex?

A

Ceftriaxone IM AND ofloxacin orally BID x10days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

CN IX

A

glossopharyngeal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

CN X

A

vagal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

CN XI

A

spinal accessory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

CN XII

A

hypoglossal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following antibiotic regimens is recommended as 1st line tx for CAP in patients with no comorbidities?

A

doxycycline 100mg PO BID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

For patients with comorbidity and CAP what’s the treatment?

A

Beta-lactam AND macrolide or doxy
OR
monotherapy with fluoroquinolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the hematologic changes with pernicious anemia?

A

hypersegmented granulocytes
elevated MCV
decreased cobalamin
elevated MCHC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The first permanent teeth erupt at 6 years…what’s the first teeth?

A

First molars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how to determine fundal height

A

after 20 weeks gestation fundal height in cm = number of weeks gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are people with PMR at high risk for?

A

giant cell arteritis (temporal arteritis)

26
Q

A 5 y/o pt is up-to-date on immunizations. He has not had chickenpox. What following immunizations are indicated on this visit?

A

DTaP
IPV
MMR
varicella

27
Q

The Tdap is reserved for patients older than ____ years

A

11 years

28
Q

a 40 y/o man c/o severe stabbing pains behind his left eye for the past 2 days. They are accompanied by nasal congestion and rhinorrhea, which is clear in color. The pt denies pharyngitis and fever. What condition is most likely?

A

cluster headache

29
Q

What are symptoms of a cluster headache? 5

A

-excruciating, unilateral pain
-orbital or supraorbital
and/or temporal pain
-Attack ranges from 15mins to 3+hrs
The following symptoms on one side of the face
-Ptosis (drooping eyelid)
-Miosis (pupil constriction)
-lacrimation
-rhinorrhea in

30
Q

What are symptoms of trigeminal neuralgia (tic douloureux)

A

unilateral headache from compression or inflammation of the trigeminal nerve (CN5)

31
Q

What causes infectious mono?
how to make clinical diagnosis?
what will labwork show?

A

EBV

Dx:
-fever
-pharyngitis
-lymphadenopathy lasting 1 to 4 weeks

Lab:
-Elevated WBC
-Increased lymphocytes
->10% abnormal lymphocytes
-positive monospot test

32
Q

An elderly man is diagnosed with conductive hearing loss in the left ear by the NP. What is the expected result when performing a Rinne test on this patient?

A

BC > AC

normal Rinne: AC > BC

33
Q

Erythromycin ___ (inhibits or induces) the CYP450 system…what drugs should be avoided

A

inhibits

Avoid: Theophylline, coumadin, valium

34
Q

What medication increases the risk of bleeding for patient’s receiving coumadin?

bactrim
sucralfate
Losartan
Lasix

A

Bactrim

35
Q

What would you expect on a wet mount slide ofa patient diagnosed with BV?

A

A large # of squamous epithielial cells who surfaces and edges are coated with large #s of bacteria along with a few leukocytes

36
Q

Dx of BV

A

3 out of 4 Amsel criteria
1) white, thick adherent discharge
2) pH >4.5
3) positive whiff test (mixed with KOH)
4) clue cells >20%

37
Q

A pt is diagnosed with acute strep pharyngitis. Her throat is bright red with no tonsillar exudate, and clear mucus on lower nasal turbinates. The UA shows a large amount of WBCs & is positive for nitrites. The patient has a sulfa allergy and thinks she is also allergic to penicillins. Whats the best treatment?

augmentin
Levaquin
Bactrim
Clarythromycin

A

This patient has strep pharyngitis and a UTI

Give Levaquin treats UTI and strep

pt is allergic to augmentin and bactrim

38
Q

What is the most common site for female breast cancer?

A

Tail of Spence

The upper outer quadrant of the breast

39
Q

An elderly women was found on the floor after she passed out. Shes been ordered an EKG and xray. What labs would you order next?

UA
electrolytes
glucose
H and H

A

Blood glucose

40
Q

An adult patient’s lab work reveal macrocytosis and reticulocytopenia. You will evaluate for…

alcoholism
thalassemia
hypothyroidism
liver disfx

A

thalassemia

these findings are associated with vit B12 deficiency
Thalassemia is a hemolytic anemia that causes excessive destruction of RBCs

41
Q

A 76 y/o male with a history of CVD presents with hyperlipidemia…what intensity statin do you prescribe?

A

Moderate intensity

This is because the patient is >75 years with ASCVD

if he was less than 75 then he would be prescribed a high intensity statin like atorvastatin or rosuvastatin

42
Q

What is the most common type of cancer in young children?

A

acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)

malignancy of bone marrow

43
Q

The Somogyi effect is characterized by what?

A

high fasting blood glucose in the morning caused by the secretion of glucagon by the liver

-nocturnal hypoglycemia

44
Q

What is secondary prevention and secondary prevention activities?

A

Detecting disease at an early stage to halt or slow its progression

All screening and lab tests (mammography, pap smears etc) are secondary activities

45
Q

What foods do you recommend for a patient with folic acid deficiency?

A

Liver
dark leafy vegetables
beans
pasta
breads
cereals

46
Q

The ELISA and Western blot test are used to detect what?

A

HIV antibodies only

47
Q

How does malignant neuroleptic syndrome present?

A

high fever
muscular rigidity
BP changes
urinary incontinence
AMS

48
Q

how does acute serotonin syndrome present?

A

sudden onset high fever
muscular rigidity
clonus
uncontrolled shivering
AMS

49
Q

A patient with normocytic hemolytic anemia who has electrophoresis results of hemoglobin S with a 20% concentration of hemoglobin F has what??

A

sickle cell anemia

50
Q

What is tertiary prevention?

A

Any type of rehab for a particular condition

-swimming
-cardiac rehab
-speech therapy

51
Q

Koilonychia is associated with what condition?

A

“spoon-shaped nails”

iron deficiency anemia

52
Q

What medication is a treatment option for BPH and htn?

A

Terazosin (Hytrin)

53
Q

what is bipolar II characterized by?

A

not associated with impairment of social function and able to maintain work and family requirements

54
Q

what is bipolar I characterized by?

A

significant impairment with social function and work life

55
Q

what is schizoaffective disorder characterized by?

A

schizophrenia and major depression

56
Q

Roseola infantum
cause
onset
rash course

A

Cause: herpes
Onset: 6 months to 2 years
Rash: maculopapular that first appear on trunk then spread to extremities
Fever&raquo_space;» rash

57
Q

What lab value is elevated in ETOH abusers?

A

Serum GGT

58
Q

What drug class is recommended for the treatment of postherpetic neuralgia?

A

Tricyclic antidepressants
anticonvulsants

59
Q

Hand food mouth disease
cause
tx

A

Cause: Coxsackievirus

Tx: symptomatic

60
Q

What part of the DTaP vaccine causes a fever?

A

pertussis component