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Flight Paramedic Certification Study set > Legal aspects/safety ops > Flashcards

Legal aspects/safety ops Flashcards

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1
Q

What does COBRA stand for? What is there role?

A

Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation act

Protects uninsured patient’s from being denied emergency care

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2
Q

What does EMTALA stand for? What is there role?

A

Emergency Medical Treatment Act and Active Labor Act

Part of COBRA and requires emergent care to sustain life

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3
Q

Who is responsible for patient until they arrive at the receiving facility during a transfer?

A

Sending physician

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4
Q

What do you have to prove to be guilty of negligence?

A 
Failure to provide:
Care owed
a breach of that duty
conduct that caused harm
Proximate cause (was the harm foreseeable)
Damage resulting from conduct
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5
Q

Difference between Malfeasance, nonfeasance and misfeasance

A

Malfeasance is purposely doing the wrong thing
Nonfeasance is not providing care when needed
Misfeasance is doing something wrong without realizing you did it

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6
Q

Difference between Assault and battery?

A

Assault is when you do something that could harm someone else
Battery is doing something that does cause harm

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7
Q

What does CAMTS stand for? What is there role?

A

Commission for the accreditation of Medical Transport Systems
Similar to hospital’s JCAHO and accredits companies to become transport systems.
Sets safety and conduct standards

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8
Q

What does AMRM stand for? What is there role?

A

Air Medical Resource Management
Distributes workload to all crew
Also referred to as CRM (crew resource management)

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9
Q

What is sterile cockpit?

A

Only essential communication during all phases of flight except straight or level flight. Critical phases of flight are taxing, fueling, takeoff and landing

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10
Q

What stages are the most dangerous?

A

Take off and landing

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11
Q

What is EAP and when is it initiated?

A

Emergency accident plan
After 2 missed check-ins or over 30 min from last check in.
EAP triggers search and rescue mission

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12
Q

What is flight following?

A

Real time contact with pilot

every 15 min during flight or every 45 min while on ground during mission

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13
Q

What are CAMTS safety initiatives?

A

5 intubations for each population serviced before mission and quarterly after that
Flame retardant clothing, must be able to pull 1/4 away from body
-Long range flights are considered > 3 hours
-Seatbelts must be worn at all times unless directed by PIC
-Must have a way to contact dispatch or medical control
-Must have fire suppression

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14
Q

Pilot in charge qualifications for Helicopter

A

2000 hrs total flight time
1200 hrs being in helicopter
1000 hrs being pilot in charge
100 hrs at night
must be instrument rated
Airline transport pilot license within 5 years
Area orientation for each service area-5 hrs total 2 being at night

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15
Q

Pilot in charge qualifications Fixed wing

A

2,000 hours of total flight time

	- 1,000 hours as PIC
	- 100  hours at night as PIC
- Must possess an ATP certificate
- Must be instrument rated
- Fixed wing must file IFR and VFR flight plans
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16
Q

What is FAA part 91 regulation?

A

General operating rules
Applies to pilots flying that are not for hire
No limit on how long the Pilot can fly
No weather minimums, pilot assumes risk

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17
Q

What is FAA part 135 regulation?

A

Flying passengers for money
Max 14 hour day, 12 hour shift with 2 hour extension
8 hours total flying time in 24 hour period

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18
Q

What is FAA part 91.17 regulation?

A

Pilot may not fly
• Within 8 hours of having consumed alcohol
• While under the influence of ETOH
• With a BAL of 0.04% or greater
• While using any drugs that affects safety

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19
Q

What are the flight minimums to day non mountain?

A

Local 800 feet 2 miles

cross country 800 feet 3 miles

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20
Q

What are flight minimums for night non mountain with NVG or terrain avoidance warning system?

A

Local 800 feet 3 miles

Cross country 1000 feet 3 miles

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21
Q

What are flight minimums for night mountain with NVG or terrain avoidance warning system?

A

Local 1000 feet 3 miles

Cross country 1000 feet 5 miles

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22
Q

What are flight minimums for day in mountain area?

A

Local 800 feet 3 miles

Cross country 1000 feet 3 miles

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23
Q

NVG’s can multiply available light by how many times?

A

Up to 10,000 times

24
Q

What is the number 1 factor in air medical crashes? Number 2?

A

Number 1 is weather

Number 2 is flying at night

25
Q

What is the number 1 cause of air medical crashes?

A

Human error
Accepting flights :
Marginal weather, PIC is assuming risk
Below minimums cannot fly

26
Q

What is VFR?

A

Visual flight rules
Can only fly in weather that you can see where you are flying
Cannot fly with instruments in this rule

27
Q

What is IFR?

A

Instrument Rated Rule
Weather may not be suitable to sight only, instruments needed
Can fly VFR if weather permits

28
Q

What is IIMC?

A

When a pilot began flying VFR and unexpectedly encounter IFR weather.
Referred to as double IMC

29
Q

What are transponders?

A

In the cockpit and signals ground radar

Sends code with the aircrafts position, altitude and call sign

30
Q

What are some specific transponder codes that you need to know?

A
  • 1200-VFR
  • 1202-Gliders
  • 7500-Hijack
  • 7600-Communication failure
  • 7700-Emergency
  • 7777-Military intercept code
31
Q

What are the requirements for unsecured landing zone?

A
  • Must have communication w/ground contact
    - Must be large enough to land, usually 100’x100’
    - 1 approach and departure heading
    - 2 passes required before landing, 1 high pass and 1 low pass
31
Q

What are the requirements for unsecured landing zone?

A
  • Must have communication w/ground contact
    - Must be large enough to land, usually 100’x100’
    - 1 approach and departure heading
    - 2 passes required before landing, 1 high pass and 1 low pass
32
Q

What are requirements for permanent Landing zone

A
  • Must have 2 approach and departure heading
    - Perimeter lighting on helipad
    - Landing beacon (Flashing red and green)
    - Windsock
    - Secured access
    - Class D fire extinguisher
33
Q

If multiple aircraft landing at a landing zone, which way do the aircraft face?

A

In the same direction

34
Q

What are the 3 inflight emergency wording?

A

Land immediately: engine fire/failure, land now
Land as soon as possible: Low transmission pressure/chirp light, land at next LZ or airport
Land as soon as practical: go to closest convenient location

35
Q

What is auto rotation?

A

Refers to rotors turning without engine power

air moves up into rotor from below as the helicopter descends

36
Q

What is the pre-crash sequence?

A

Lay pt flat

- Turn off O2
- Assume crash position
	- Seat belt secured
	- Helmet strap tight & visor down
	- Knees together, feet 6” apart flat on the floor
	- Arms across chest with thumbs out
	- Chin to chest
37
Q

After crash, what order do you turn off things?

A

Throttle, fuel, battery (TOO, FREAKING, BAD)

38
Q

After crash, what order you begin for survival?

A

Shelter, Fire, water, create signal

39
Q

What does ELT stand for?

A

Emergency locator transmitter

40
Q

When is the ELT self activated?

A

At 4 g’s but can be manually activated

41
Q

What frequencies does the ELT transmit on?

A

121.5 MHZ
Upgraded to 406MHZ
This is required for Part 135
You can hold down COMM 1 button for 5 seconds and will automatically activate 121.5 MHZ

42
Q

Who is in charge of search and rescue for downed aircraft?

A

Within US is civil air patrol (CAP)

Over US waters would be US coast guard with in 25 nautical miles of us shoreline

43
Q

What does aircraft lighting say to you when flying?

A
  • Port (left side)- Red light
    • Starboard (right side)- Green light
    • Stern (Rear)- White light
  • If you see an aircraft in front of you and there is a green light on your left and a red light on your right, the aircraft is coming at you.
44
Q

Per CAMTS, when does your seat belt need to be worn?

A

At all times except straight or level flight or when your PIC directs you to.

45
Q

What are the preferred angles to enter and exit air craft?

A

10 o’clock and 2 o’clock preferred

46
Q

When landing at a hazmat scene, where is the best place to land?

A

Uphill upwind

47
Q

What is the maximum distance VHF radio can transmit?

A

100 km

48
Q

What is the radio frequency for emergency traffic?

A

121.5 mhz

upgraded to 406 mhz

49
Q

What is the maximum distance UHF can transmit?

A

30-40 miles

50
Q

What is the main difference between simplex and duplex radios?

A

Simplex: sending and receiving on same frequency
Duplex: sending and receiving on different frequency and uses repeaters to travel further

51
Q

What is a fixed base station?

A

System intended to be used with other bases, no hand held or mobile radios

52
Q

What is a control station?

A

Base station that uses repeaters

53
Q

What is a temporary base station?

A

Used for less than a year

54
Q

What standards must ground ambulances meet

A

KKK 1882

55
Q

Per CAMTS, what is the ground clearance at gross wt?

A

6 inches

56
Q

How often do ambulance major fluids and tire pressure need to be checked?

A

Twice a week at minimum

Flight Paramedic Certification Study set (17 decks)

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