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Anatomy > Lecture - Exam 4 > Flashcards

Lecture - Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

what are the respiratory organs

A

nose, nasal cavity, paranasal sinuses, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and lungs containing alveoli

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2
Q

what are alveoli

A

terminal air pouches at the end of bronchioles, responsible for gas exchange

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3
Q

what are the 2 zones the respiratory system is divided into

A

conducting zone and respiratory zone

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4
Q

what is the conducting zone responsible for

A

passage-way for air

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5
Q

what is the respiratory zone responsible for

A

allow exchange of gases between blood and atmosphere (within lung)

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6
Q

in the upper respiratory tract what are the 2 types of mucosa

A

olfactory mucosa and respiratory muscosa

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7
Q

where are olfactory mucosa

A

located on superior concha and upper nasal septum

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8
Q

what does olfactory mucosa house

A

olfactory receptors for smell

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9
Q

where are respiratory mucosa

A

lines remainder of nasal cavity, nasopharynx, trachea, bronchi

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10
Q

what are the 3 main characteristics of respiratory mucosa

A

ciliated, has goblet cells, and mucosal glands

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11
Q

what type of epithelium are on respiratory mucosa

A

pseudostratified columnar epithelium

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12
Q

where are the goblet cells located in the respiratory mucosa

A

within epithelium

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13
Q

where are the mucosal glands of the respiratory mucosa

A

underlying layer of lamina propria

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14
Q

what do the mucosal glands secrete and why

A

secrete lysozyme to destroy bacteria and mucus to trap debris

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15
Q

what layer is missing in the respiratory mucosa

A

muscularis mucosa

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16
Q

what is the outer layer of respiratory mucosa

A

it varies, could be bone, cartilage, or smooth muscle

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17
Q

where does the cilia in respiratory mucosa move contaminated mucus

A

to oropharynx to be swallowed (or spit out)

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18
Q

what are external nares

A

nostrils

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19
Q

where is the vestibule of external nares

A

interior/lateral to nostrils (space within flared region of nose)

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20
Q

what is within the vestibule and what purpose does it have

A

hairs to trap particles

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21
Q

what type of epithelium is in the external nares

A

stratified squamous epithelium

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22
Q

what is the nasal septum

A

what the nasal cavity is divided by

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23
Q

what is the septum covered by and why

A

Covered by respiratory mucosa to trap particles

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24
Q

what is the nasal septum continuous with

A

nasopharynx

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25
Q

what is the choanae

A

opening between nasal cavity and nasopharynx

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26
Q

what is the superior and middle section of the nasal conchae part of

A

the ethmoid bone

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27
Q

what is the inferior section of the nasal conchae part of

A

maxilla

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28
Q

how are the nasal conchae shaped as

A

scroll-like projections that form large ridges

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29
Q

what is the nasal conchae covered

A

covered by respiratory mucosa

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30
Q

what does the nasal conchae cause

A

turbulent air flow

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31
Q

where are the nasal meatuses

A

grooves inferior to each concha

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32
Q

what are the 3 parts of the meatus

A

Superior meatus, Middle meatus, Inferior meatus

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33
Q

what are the 3 functions of the conchae and meatuses

A

filter air of particulate matter, warm inhaled air, and moisten inhaled air (water from mucus coating)

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34
Q

what happens before exhalation

A

the heat and moisture from air is reclaimed

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35
Q

what are paranasal sinuses

A

air-filled spaces within skull bones surrounding nasal cavity (most open into meatuses)

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36
Q

what are the 4 paranasal sinuses

A

frontal, sphenoidal, ethmoidal, and maxillary

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37
Q

what are the paranasal sinuses continuous with

A

nasal cavity

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38
Q

what are the paranasal sinuses lined with

A

respiratory mucosa

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39
Q

what is the role of respiratory mucosa in the paranasal sinuses

A

warm and moisten air, trap dust, lighten skull, sound resonance

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40
Q

what is the nasopharynx

A

an air passageway

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41
Q

when is the nasopharynx closed off

A

during swallowing

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42
Q

what is the nasopharynx lined with

A

respiratory mucosa

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43
Q

what are pharyngeal tonsils

A

destroy entering pathogens

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44
Q

what opening does the nasopharynx contain

A

the opening to the pharyngotympanic (auditory) tube

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45
Q

where is the larynx

A

lies at entrance to trachea

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46
Q

what are the 3 functions of the larynx

A

voice production (contains vocal cords), provides an open airway, and routes air and food into proper channels (epiglottis)

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47
Q

what is the larynx made up of

A

5 major cartilages, 2 minor cartilages, and 1 bone (hyoid)

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48
Q

what does the hyoid bone do

A

aid movements of tongue

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49
Q

what are the 5 major cartilages of the larynx

A

epiglottis, thyroid cartilage, cricoid cartilage, are 2 arytenoid cartilages (paired)

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50
Q

what type of cartilage are each of the major cartilages in the larynx

A

all are hyaline cartilage except epiglottis which is elastic cartilage

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51
Q

where is the epiglottis

A

attaches to posterior tongue

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52
Q

what is the function of the epiglottis

A

closes off trachea during swallowing

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53
Q

what is the largest cartilage in the larynx

A

thyroid cartilage

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54
Q

what is the laryngeal prominence

A

the adams apple

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55
Q

what tissue is the thyrohyoid membrane made of

A

connective tissue

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56
Q

where is the cricoid cartilage are what is its shape

A

ring shaped, inferior to thyroid cartilage

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57
Q

what membrane is in the cricoid cartilage

A

cricothyroid membrane

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58
Q

what shape are the arytenoid cartilages

A

pyramid shaped

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59
Q

where are the arytenoid cartilages

A

sit on posterior cricoid cartilage

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60
Q

what do the arytenoid cartilages anchor

A

true vocal cords (vocal ligaments)

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61
Q

what fibers are the vocal ligaments made of

A

elastic fibers

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62
Q

what are the elastic fibers covered by

A

mucosa

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63
Q

what is the rima glottidis

A

space between vocal cords

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64
Q

how do vocal cords move

A

via movements of arytenoids

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65
Q

what are the 2 types of movements from the arytenoids

A

lateral-medial and rotation

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66
Q

what do the lateral-medial movements do

A

increase/decrease size of rima glottidis

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67
Q

what do the rotation movements do

A

change length/tension of cords = pitch

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68
Q

what causes pitch to change in voice

A

length and tension of vocal folds in the larynx

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69
Q

what causes a lower pitch in males during puberty

A

thyroid cartilage narrows and lengthens (vocal cords elongate)

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70
Q

what causes loudness to change in the larynx

A

depends on force of air across the vocal cords

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71
Q

what innervates the larynx

A

recurrent laryngeal neves, branch from vagus (cranial nerve X)

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72
Q

where does the trachea descend into

A

the mediastinum

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73
Q

what keeps airway open in the trachea

A

C-shaped cartilage rings (16-20)

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74
Q

what is in the walls of the trachea and what do they do during exhalation

A

elastin which recoils during exhilation

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75
Q

what epithelium is on the respiratory mucosa in the trachea

A

ciliated pseudostratified columnar with goblet cells

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76
Q

what do the cilia in the mucosa of the trachea do

A

move trapped particles in mucous toward pharynx

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77
Q

what is the bronchial tree

A

extensively branching respiratory passageways (about 23 orders of branching)

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78
Q

what are primary bronchi (main bronchi)

A

the largest bronchi (right and left primary bronchi)

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79
Q

what is different between the left and right bronchi

A

the right main bronchi is wider and shorter than the left

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80
Q

what are the 3 bronchi in the conducting zone

A

secondary (lobar) bronchi, tertiary (segmental) bronchi, and bronchioles

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81
Q

how many bronchi are in the secondary bronchi and what side are they on

A

3 on right (right lung has 3 lobes) and 2 on left side (left lung has 2 lobes)

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82
Q

where are the tertiary bronchi

A

they branch into different lung segments in each lobe

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83
Q

what are bronchioles

A

little bronchi; less than 1 mm n diameter

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84
Q

what are bronchioles missing that other bronchi have

A

no cartilage in the walls

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85
Q

what are terminal bronchioles

A

less than 0.5 mm in diameter, the end of conducting zone

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86
Q

what are the 3 changes that occur along the conducting pathway

A
  1. supportive tissue change
  2. epithelium change
  3. smooth muscle becomes important
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87
Q

what is the change that occurs in the connective tissues (2)

A
  1. C-shaped rings are replaced by cartilage plates (beginning in secondary bronchi to end of tertiary bronchi);
  2. no cartilage in bronchioles
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88
Q

what are the 3 different epithelium in the conducting pathways and where are they

A
  1. ciliated pseudostratified columnar to the end of bronchi
  2. replaced by ciliated simple columnar in larger bronchioles
  3. replaced by ciliated simple cuboidal in smallest bronchioles
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89
Q

when are the 3 times that smooth muscles becomes important

A
  1. contraction/relaxation changes diameter
  2. small amount in trachea causes reduced lumen during coughing
  3. in bronchioles is regulated air flow to lung
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90
Q

what are the main layers in bronchioles

A

contains smooth muscles and connective tissue in the outer layer

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91
Q

what are bronchopulmonary segments

A

the segments that each lung is divided into (functional and anatomical)

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92
Q

what are the bronchopulmonary segments separated by and why

A

thick sheet of connective tissue to minimize infection spread

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93
Q

what is each segment supplied by

A

tertiary bronchus (right lung=10 total and left lung=9-10 total)

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94
Q

what are the 3 air-exchanging structures in the respiratory zone

A

respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, and alveoli

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95
Q

where do respiratory bronchioles branch from

A

terminal bronchioles

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96
Q

what do respiratory bronchioles lead to

A

alveolar ducts (with a few alveoli)

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97
Q

what do alveolar ducts open into

A

alveolar sacs

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98
Q

what are alveolar sacs

A

clusters of several alveoli

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99
Q

what is the order of bronchi and bronchioles

A

primary bronchi -> secondary (lobar) bronchi -> tertiary (segmental) bronchi -> multiple branches of bronchioles -> terminal bronchioles (end of conducting zone) -> respiratory bronchioles -> alveolar ducts -> alveoli (last 3 are respiratory zone)

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100
Q

what is the function of alveoli

A

site for gas exchange between blood and air

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101
Q

how many alveoli are in each lung

A

about 150 million

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102
Q

what type of cells make up alveoli

A

Type I cells and their basal laminae

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103
Q

what type of epithelium are in the cells of alveoli

A

Simple squamous epithelial cells

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104
Q

what are the 2 things that are scattered amount type I cells in alveoli

A

Type II cells and macrophages

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105
Q

what type of epithelium is in type II cells

A

cuboidal epithelial cells

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106
Q

what do type II cells secrete and what does it do

A

pulmonary surfactant which reduces surface tension of inner alveolar wall and helps prevent alveoli from collapsing

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107
Q

what surrounds alveoli

A

extensive network of blood capillaries and elastic fibers

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108
Q

what occurs between blood capillaries and alveoli

A

Exchange of gases between blood in capillaries and air inside alveoli

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109
Q

what happens to the elastic fibers around alveoli during exhilation

A

some recoil of stretched alveoli

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110
Q

what connects alveoli and why

A

Interconnect by way of alveolar pores to equilibrate pressures between alveoli

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111
Q

what is the respiratory membrane

A

barrier for diffusion of gases across alveolar wall

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112
Q

how big is the respiratory membrane

A

very thin layer: 0.5mm

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113
Q

what are the 3 things that respiratory membrane consists of

A
  1. plasma membrane of type I alveolar cells
  2. basal laminae
  3. plasma membrane of capillary endothelial cells
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114
Q

what are the 4 organs of the urinary system

A

kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, urethra

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115
Q

what is the function of the kidneys

A

produce urine

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116
Q

what is the function of ureters

A

drain urine from kidneys

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117
Q

what is the function of the urinary bladder

A

stores urine

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118
Q

what is the function of the urethra

A

drain urine from bladder during urination

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119
Q

how is the urethra different in males and females

A

males: merges with reproductive tract; females: separate

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120
Q

what are the 3 layers of kidneys

A

renal cortex, renal medulla, and renal pelvis

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121
Q

what does the renal cortex contain

A

uriniferous tubules

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122
Q

what does the renal medulla contain

A

consists of renal pyramids

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123
Q

where is the renal pelvis/what is it near

A

just inside the hilus; continuous with ureter; within renal sinus

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124
Q

how many minor vs major calyces are in the kidneys

A

7-13 minor and 2-3 major

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125
Q

where do the minor calyces drain into

A

major calyces

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126
Q

where do the major calyces drain into

A

renal pelvis

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127
Q

what do renal pyramids consist of

A

collecting ducts

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128
Q

what do collecting ducts drain into and through what

A

minor calyces through openings at papillae of pyramids

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129
Q

what is the flow of filtrate from collecting ducts

A

collecting ducts -> through openings at papillae of pyramids -> minor calyces -> major calyces -> renal pelvis -> ureters

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130
Q

what is the functional unit of kidneys

A

uriniferous tubules (about 1 mil per kidney)

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131
Q

what are uriniferous tubules composed of (2)

A

nephrons and collecting ducts

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132
Q

what are the 2 parts of a nephron

A

renal corpuscle and renal tubules

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133
Q

what do collecting ducts do

A

involved in concentrating urine

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134
Q

what are the 2 parts of renal corpuscles

A

glomerulus and glomerular capsule

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135
Q

where are renal corpuscles located

A

only in renal cortex

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136
Q

what is the glomerulus capsule

A

twisted ball of blood capillaries (fenestrated)

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137
Q

what are the 2 layers of the glomerular capsule

A

parietal layer (outer layer) and visceral layer

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138
Q

what type of epithelium is in the parietal layer of the glomerular capsule

A

simple squamous epithelium

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139
Q

what does the visceral layer of the glomerular capsule consist of and what does it cover

A

consists of podocytes and cover glomerular capillaries

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140
Q

which capsule surrounds the other

A

Glomerular capsule surrounds glomerulus

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141
Q

what is the vascular pole

A

open end where arterioles enter and leave

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142
Q

what are the 2 types of capillary beds that nephrons are associated with

A

each glomerulus and peritubular capillaries

143
Q

what are the capillaries fed and drained by in each glomerulus

A

by afferent arteriole (blood into glomeruli) and by efferent arteriole (blood out of glomeruli

144
Q

what do peritubular capillaries arise from

A

efferent arterioles

145
Q

where are peritubular capillaries

A

they surround renal tubules

146
Q

what are the characteristics of the peritubular capillaries

A

low pressure, porous, and absorb solutes and water

147
Q

what are the 2 classes of nephrons

A

cortical nephrons and juxtamedullary nephrons

148
Q

which class of nephron is more abundant

A

cortical nephrons (85%)

149
Q

where are cortical nephrons

A

entirely within cortex of kidney

150
Q

what percentage does juxtamedullary nephrons make up

A

15% of nephrons

151
Q

where are juxtamedullary nephrons

A

at junction of cortex and medulla

152
Q

what structure do juxtamedullary nephrons make up

A

long loops of henle

153
Q

what are juxtamedullary nephrons responsible for

A

kidney’s ability to form small volumes of concentrated urine

154
Q

what is a vasa recta

A

thin walled looping capillary

155
Q

where is the vasa recta

A

surrounds juxtamedullary nephrons; part of the kidneys urine concentrating mechanism

156
Q

where do the vasa recta capillaries dip down from

A

dip down from base of pyramids toward ampullae into medulla

157
Q

what is the order of blood vessels supplying kidneys

A

renal artery -> interlobar arteries -> arcuate arteries -> interlobular (radiate arteries) -> afferent arterioles -> glomeruli -> efferent arterioles -> peritubular capillaries and vasa recta -> veins

158
Q

what are the 3 continuous segments of the renal tubule

A

proximal convoluted tubule (PCT), loop of henle, and distal convoluted tubule (DCT)

159
Q

what are the 3 subparts of the loop of henle

A

descending limb, thin ascending limb, and thick ascending limb

160
Q

where does the distal convoluted tubule drain into

A

into collecting ducts

161
Q

where does the filtrate come from before entering into the renal tubules

A

glomerular (capsular) space

162
Q

where does the filtrate leave the glomerular space through

A

Leave capsular space through opening into tubule (urinary pole)

163
Q

what type of epithelium is in the PCT

A

simple cuboidal epithelium with extensive microvilli on apical surface of cells and a brush border (stains pink)

164
Q

what type of epithelium is in each part of the loop of henle

A

descending limb: first simple cuboidal then simple squamous further along
loop region: simple squamous
ascending limb: thin segment is simple squamous but thick segment is simple suboidal

165
Q

what type of epithelium is in the DCT

A

simple cuboidal with a few microvilli and reduced brush border

166
Q

is the lumen to tubule size ration greater in the DCT or PCT

A

Lumen to tubule size ratio greater in DCT than in PCT

167
Q

what is the function of the collecting ducts

A

Each collect filtrate from the DCT of several nephrons

168
Q

what type of epithelium do the collecting ducts have

A

first simple cuboidal then toward papillae it becomes columnar

169
Q

what also changes in the collecting ducts when the epithelium changes

A

the lumen gets smaller

170
Q

what is the function of the juxtaglomerular complex

A

regulation of blood pressure

171
Q

what do juxtaglomerular (granular) cells secrete

A

renin

172
Q

where are juxtaglomerular cells located

A

around afferent arterioles

173
Q

what part of the complex pathway are juxtaglomerular cells involved with

A

Na+ reabsorption

174
Q

what is the macula densa part of

A

a portion of DCT

175
Q

what do the epithelium cells look like in the macula densa

A

tall closely packed epithelial cells

176
Q

what are the 2 main functions of the macula densa

A
  1. act as chemoreceptors to monitor solute concentration in filtrate passing through DCT
  2. signal juxtaglomerular cells to secrete renin if
177
Q

what is the function of the ureters

A

carry urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder

178
Q

what does the oblique entry of the ureter into the bladder prevent

A

backflow of urine

179
Q

what are the 3 layers of the ureter

A

mucosa, muscularis, and adventitia

180
Q

what type of epithelium is the mucosa layer of the ureter

A

transitional epithelium (stratified)

181
Q

what is within the mucosa layer of the ureter

A

typical lamina propria and elastic fibers

182
Q

what are the 2 layers in the muscularis layer of the ureter

A

inner longitudinal layer and outer circular layer

183
Q

what type of tissue is in the adventitia layer of the ureter

A

typical connective tissue

184
Q

what is the urinary bladder

A

a collapsible muscular sac

185
Q

what type of epithelium is in the urinary bladder

A

transitional epithelium

186
Q

what are the 3 layers of the muscularis layer in the urinary bladder made of

A

3 layers of smooth muscle (detrusor muscle)

187
Q

what is the function of the urinary bladder

A

stores and expels urine

188
Q

what shape is the urinary bladder when it is full and where does it lie

A

spherical, expands into abdominal cavity

189
Q

where is the urinary bladder when it is empty

A

lies entirely within the pelvis

190
Q

what are the 4 main functions of the reproductive system

A

produce sex cells, produce sex hormones, nourish sex cells, transport sex cells

191
Q

what is the general term for sex cells and what is the specific male and female terms

A

gametes, male=spermatazoa, female=oocytes

192
Q

what is the general term for male sex hormones and what is the main one

A

androgens, mainly testosterone

193
Q

what is the general term for female sex hormones and what is the main one

A

estrogens, mainly estradiol

194
Q

what are the 2 classes of sex organs

A

gonads and accessory sex organs

195
Q

what are the gonads called in males and females

A

males= testes, females=ovaries

196
Q

what are the 2 main structures of accessory sex organs

A

glands and transport tubes (for gametes)

197
Q

what do the glands do in the accessory sex organs

A

secrete fluids and various molescules

198
Q

where are the testes contained

A

in the scrotum

199
Q

what is the scrotum

A

skin and superficial fascia surrounding the testes

200
Q

what type of muscle is the scrotum

A

dartos muscle (smooth muscle)

201
Q

what does the position of the testes provide

A

an environment 3 degrees cooler than body temp

202
Q

why do the testes need to be in a cool environment

A

Internal body temperature too high for sperm development

203
Q

what is cremaster muscle

A

bands of skeletal muscle surrounding the testes to elevate the testes

204
Q

what are the 2 main parts of the testes

A

tunica albuginea and seminiferous tubules

205
Q

what is the tunica albuginea in the testes

A

a fibrous capsule of dense connective tissue surrounding each testis

206
Q

what part of the tunica albuginea divides each testis

A

partitions (septa) that extend inward

207
Q

what are the lobes of each testis made of

A

250-300 lobules, each lobule containing 1-4 coiled semiferous tubules

208
Q

what is spermatogenesis

A

the site of sperm development in the seminiferous tubules

209
Q

what are the seminiferous tubules surrounded by

A

loose (areolar) connective tissue and myoid cells

210
Q

what do myoid cells do in seminiferous tubules

A

rhythmically contract to propel sperm through tubules

211
Q

what does the epithelium in the seminiferous tubules consist of

A

spermatogenic cells and sertoli cells

212
Q

what are spermatogenic cells

A

sperm forming cells

213
Q

what are sertoli cells (sustentacular cells)

A

support cells

214
Q

what is the shape of sertoli cells

A

tall, columnar shaped cells

215
Q

what is the relationship between spermatogenic and sertoli cells

A

All spermatogenic cells in direct contact with Sertoli cells

216
Q

what are the 3 reasons why sertoli cells are required for sperm development

A
  1. Secrete molecules necessary for sperm maturation
  2. Provide nutrients for sperm
  3. Secrete fluid to flush sperm into epididymis
217
Q

what do the tight junctions between the sertoli cells form

A

blood testis barrier

218
Q

when do spermatogenesis cells start to form

A

begins at puberty

218
Q

what are the 2 main components of the head

A

chromosomes (within nucleus) and acrosome at tip

218
Q

why does the blood testis barrier need to exist

A

Immune system does not recognize mature sperm and late spermatocytes as “self” ; barrier prevents destruction by immune cells

218
Q

how many sperm are produced daily

A

400 million

219
Q

as sperm cells differentiate, where do they move to

A

move from periphery of tubule toward lumen

219
Q

what is the order of sperm cell differentiation

A

spermatogonia -> primary spermatocytes -> secondary spermatocytes -> spermatids -> spermatazoa

220
Q

why is there an unlimited supply of sperm cells

A

following cell dividion, one spermatogonia (most immature) stays to produce more

220
Q

what are the 3 parts of sperm

A

head (with nucleus), midpiece, and tail (flagellum)

221
Q

what are the acrosome in sperm

A

enzymes necessary for fertilization

222
Q

what is contained within the midpiece

A

mitochondria

223
Q

what is the function of the tail of sperm

A

performs whiplike movements to propel sperm

224
Q

what are leydig cells (interstitial cells)

A

cells in testes that secrete testosterone

225
Q

where are leydig cells located

A

in between seminiferous tubules

226
Q

what is the rete testis

A

interconnecting network of ducts

227
Q

what gets flushed into the rete testis

A

Spermatazoa flushed from seminiferous tubules

228
Q

after being flushed into rete testis, where does the spermatazoa go

A

into initial portion (proximal) of epididymis

229
Q

when uncoiled, how long is the epididymis

A

6m

230
Q

where is the epididymis

A

within scrotum

231
Q

what type of epithelium is on the epididymis

A

pseudostratified columnar epithelium

232
Q

what is on top on the epithelium in the epididymis

A

tufts of stereocilia (immobile long microvilli)

233
Q

what is on top of the stereocilia

A

sperm

234
Q

how long does it take for sperm to move through everything

A

20 day minimum but can remain in terminal for 2-3 months

235
Q

what is the ductus deferens

A

18 inch long structure connected to epididymis that transports sperm

236
Q

what is a vasectomy

A

surgically cut portion of ductus deferens located in scrotum

237
Q

what does the thick muscularis layer in the ductus deferens do

A

make contractions to help move sperm

238
Q

what connects the ductus deferens to the prostatic urethra

A

ejaculatory duct

239
Q

what epithelium lines the ductus deferens

A

pseudostratified columnar with stereocilia

240
Q

what are the 3 main components in the accessory glands

A

seminal vesicles, prostate gland, and bulbourethral gland

241
Q

where are the seminal vesicles

A

lie on the posterior surface of the urinary bladder

242
Q

what is the function of seminal vesicles

A

secretes most (60%) of semen

243
Q

what is semen

A

spermatazoa and fluids

244
Q

what makes up the fluid portion of semen

A

fructose to nourish sperm

245
Q

what does the fluid portion secrete and why

A

prostaglandins which are molecules that induce contractions in female reproductive tract

246
Q

why does semen clot

A

more likely to remain in female reproductive tract

247
Q

where do seminal vesicles drain into

A

ejaculatory duct

248
Q

where is the prostate gland

A

encircles the prostatic urethra

249
Q

what consists within the prostate gland

A

20-30 compound tubuloalveolar glands embedded in dense connective tissue

250
Q

what are the 3 types of compound tubuloalveolar glands in the accessory glands

A

mucosal, submucosal, and main glands

251
Q

when tumors grow in the glands, which glands are typically benign vs malignant

A

mucosal glands are benign and submucosal/main glands are malignant if tumor grows

252
Q

what does the prostate gland secrete

A

25-30% of seminal fluid

253
Q

what does the prostate gland do to clotted semen

A

dissolve it to release sperm

254
Q

what size and where is the bulbourethral gland

A

pea sized glands inferior to prostate gland

255
Q

what do the bulbourethral glands produce

A

mucus

256
Q

where does the mucus produced by the bulbourethral glands go

A

enters spongy (penile) urethra prior to ejaculation

257
Q

what does the mucus from the bulbourethral glands do (2)

A

cleanses and lubricates urethra and enhances pH for optimal survival

258
Q

what type of tissue is in the penis and where is it

A

Thick tubes of erectile tissue surrounded by connective tissue; run length of penis

259
Q

what are cavernous spaces in the penis

A

Contain large blood sinuses that can fill with blood during sexual arousal

260
Q

what does the parasympathetic input do in the penis

A

dilate arteries and compress veins

261
Q

what happens when the penis is erect

A

blood rushes into cavernous spaces

262
Q

what are the 3 erectile bodies

A

2 dorsal erectile bodies and 1 ventral erectile body

263
Q

what are the dorsal erectile bodies called and where is it

A

corpora cavernosa, most of the mass of penis

264
Q

what is the ventral erectile body called and where is it

A

corpus spongiosum, surrounds penile urethra and expands into glans penis

265
Q

what are the 4 main parts of the female reproductive system

A

ovaries, uterine tubes (fallopian tubes), uterus, and vagina

266
Q

what do the ovaries produce

A

oocytes and hormones

267
Q

what is the function of the uterine tubes

A

transports ova to uterus and is the site of fertilization

268
Q

what is the function of the uterus

A

provides environment for developing embryo/fetus

269
Q

what is the function of the vagina

A

delivery of baby and coitus

270
Q

what are the 3 main layers of the ovaries

A

tunica albuginea (fibrous capsule), cortex, and medulla

271
Q

what is within the cortex

A

contains developing gametes

272
Q

what type of tissue is the medulla

A

loose connective tissue

273
Q

what is within the medulla layer

A

Largest blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics

274
Q

what are oogonia

A

undifferentiated sex cells

275
Q

how many oogonia do early fetus ovaries have

A

6-7 million

276
Q

what are oocytes

A

differentiated sex cells

277
Q

what are follicular cells

A

supportive cells that always surround oocytes from right before birth and onward

278
Q

what are follicles

A

oocytes plus follicular cells

279
Q

what are primordial follicles

A

most immature follicle

280
Q

what type of cells make up the primordial follicles

A

single layer of squamous follicular cells

281
Q

what happens to most primordial follicles

A

most degenerate before birth

282
Q

how many primordial follicles do fetuses have vs when they are born

A

about 2 million when a fetus and about 500,000 at birth

283
Q

what happens to the primordial follicles when the individual starts puberty

A

10-20 primordial follicles start to develop

284
Q

what are granulosa cells

A

when the follicles start to develop, they form a single layer of cuboidal cells

285
Q

what are primary follicles

A

oocyte + single layer of granulosa cells

286
Q

how many primordial follicles mature to be released as ova (eggs)

A

about 400 (1 per month starting at puberty until 45)

287
Q

what are atretic follicles (atresia)

A

the rest of the primordial follicles that are not released as eggs but start to mature (they degenerate)

288
Q

what stimulates development of follicles

A

follicle stimulating hormone from anterior pituitary gland

289
Q

what is zona pellucida

A

a glycoprotein layer that surrounds the developing oocyte

290
Q

what structures secrete zona pellucida

A

oocytes and granulosa cells

291
Q

what does the zona pellucida create

A

a barrier for sperm to penetrate during fertilization

292
Q

what part of the sperm is used to penetrate the zona pellucida

A

acrosomal enzymes in sperm head

293
Q

what does the zona pellucida do to prevent many sperm from penetrating

A

As soon as one sperm penetrates zona pellucida, it hardens and prevents other sperm from fertilizing oocyte

294
Q

what are theca cells

A

specialized connective tissue cells that surround layers of granulosa when granulosa cells divide

295
Q

what are secondary follicles

A

oocyte + granulosa cells + thecal cells

296
Q

what is the antrum

A

fluid filled space developed by seconddary follicles

297
Q

what is the antrum filled with

A

liquor folliculi

298
Q

what cells produce estrogens

A

granulosa and thecal cells

299
Q

when the antrum expands, what does it separate

A

separates the oocyte from most granulosa cells (remains connected by a thin stalk of cells)

300
Q

what is the corona radiata

A

A layer of granulosa cells remain around oocyte

301
Q

how long does the corona radiata remain with mature oocytes

A

until after ovulation

302
Q

what does the secondary follicles turn into

A

a mature follicle (graafian)

303
Q

after ovulation what happens to the follicle cells that do not turn into the one mature follicle

A

corpus luteum

304
Q

what does the corpus luteum secrete

A

progesterone and estrogen

305
Q

what are the 2 main layers in the uterine tubes

A

mucosa and muscularis

306
Q

what type of epithelium is in muscosa layer

A

simple columnar with both ciliated and non ciliated cells

307
Q

how is the mucosa layer structured

A

many folds

308
Q

what do the cilia do in the mucosa layer

A

Beating of cilia help propel ovum toward uterus; create currents

309
Q

what do cells secrete in the mucosa layer

A

fluid to aid transport of ovum

310
Q

what are the 3 layers of muscularis made of

A

smooth muscle

311
Q

what does contraction of the muscluaris layer do

A

aids in movement of ovum

312
Q

what is the uterus

A

hollow thick walled organ

313
Q

what are the 3 layers in the uterine wall and which is the inner/outer layer

A

endometrium (inner), myometrium (middle), and perimetrium (outer)

314
Q

what type of epithelium lines the endometrium layer

A

simple columnar epithelial

315
Q

what are the 2 layers of the endometrium

A

functional layers and basal layer

316
Q

what are the parts of the functional layer

A

lamina propria with blood vessels and uterine glands

317
Q

what happens to the functional layer during menstration

A

it is shed

318
Q

what is the function of the basal layer of the endometrium

A

remains to replenish endometrium

319
Q

what is the thickest layer of the uterine wall

A

myometrium

320
Q

what type of muscle is the myometrium made of

A

smooth muscle

321
Q

what does contraction of the myometrium do

A

helps expel baby

322
Q

what is the perimetrium made of

A

outer serous membrane

323
Q

what is the cervix

A

narrow region of uterus that opens into vagina

324
Q

what are the 2 things the cervix is responsible for

A
  1. Functional layer re-builds; increase in blood vessels and glands
  2. secretion of nutrients for embryo
325
Q

what is the vagina

A

thin walled tube

326
Q

what are the 4 layers of the vagina

A

mucosa, muscularis, adventitia, and fornix

327
Q

what type of epithelium lines the mucosa layer

A

stratified squamous epithelium

328
Q

what is within the lamina propria layer of the muscosa

A

elastic fibers

329
Q

what is the function of the transverse folds in the mucosa layer

A

help grip penis

330
Q

what type of muscle is the muscularis

A

smooth muscle

331
Q

what is the fornix

A

recessed portion around cervix

332
Q

how many lobes are the mammary glands divided into

A

15-25

333
Q

what does each lobe in the mammary glands contain

A

a distinct compound acinar (alveolar) gland with many branching ducts

334
Q

what is each lobe divided into

A

lobules

335
Q

what is each lobule

A

cluster of secretory units (alveoli)

336
Q

what shaped cells make up the lobules

A

cuboidal cells

337
Q

what are the lobes in the mammary glands separated by

A

large amounts of adipose (fat)

338
Q

what is milk carried through

A

carried through larger, and larger ducts until they become Lactiferous Ducts beneath nipple

339
Q

what is the lactiferous sinus

A

when lactiferous ducts converge at nipple and contain a swelling

340
Q

where does milk collect during nursing

A

in lactiferous sinus

341
Q

what is myoepithelial

A

modified smooth muscle cells that surround alveoli, ducts and sinuses; help express milk

342
Q

what are suspensory ligaments made of

A

fibrous connective tissue from fascia of underlying skeletal muscle to dermis of skin

343
Q

what is the function of suspensory ligaments

A

support breast

344
Q

what is the mammary line

A

epidermal ridge from armpit to groin where mammary glands develop

345
Q

what happens to most mammary lines

A

all but a pair in thorax degenerate

346
Q

what part of the mammary glands develop before puberty

A

only lactiferous ducts with few branches

347
Q

what part of the mammary gland develop at puberty

A

lactiferous ducts grow and branch extensively but secretory units (acini) are absent

348
Q

what happens to mammary glands during pregnancy

A

secretory glands divide and acini sprout from ends of ducts

Anatomy (13 decks)

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