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Anatomy > Lecture - Exam 3 > Flashcards

Lecture - Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 2 main functions of blood

A
  1. carry respiratory gases, nutrients, wastes, and hormones
  2. helps body regulate temperature
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2
Q

what is the blood volume in males

A

5-6 liters

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3
Q

what is the blood volume in females

A

4-5 liters

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4
Q

what are the 2 main components of blood

A

cellular and liquid components

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5
Q

what is the cellular component of blood

A

formed elements = blood cells and cell fragments

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6
Q

what is the liquid component of blood

A

plasma

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7
Q

what is serum

A

plasma minus clotting proteins

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8
Q

what type of tissue is blood

A

specialized connective tissue

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9
Q

what is hematocrit

A

percent red blood cells

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10
Q

what is the hematocrit of males

A

47% +/- 5%

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11
Q

what is the hematocrit of females

A

42% +/- 5%

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12
Q

what are the 2 ways that blood cell counts can be taken and which is more popular now

A

flow cytometry (laser) or impedance (electrical resistance)
now CBC can all be done with impedance

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13
Q

what is plasma

A

a straw-colored, sticky fluid portion of blood

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14
Q

how much of blood is plasma

A

about 55% of whole blood

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15
Q

what is plasma made up of

A

about 90% water as well as ions, nutrients, wastes, and proteins (100 different substances)

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16
Q

what are the 3 main protein types in blood plasma

A

albumin, globulins, and fibrinogen

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17
Q

what does albumin do

A

most abundant protein, maintain osmotic pressure

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18
Q

what are the 3 types of globulins

A

alpha, beta, and gamma

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19
Q

what do alpha and beta globulins do

A

some transport metal ions (iron and copper) OR some transport lipids, including lipid hormones

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20
Q

what do gamma globulins do

A

they act as antibodies (immunoglobulins)

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21
Q

what do fibrinogens do

A

they are converted to fibrin, it is the major component of blood clots

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22
Q

what are the 3 layers when separating blood components (by centrifuge)

A

55% plasma on top, <1% buffy coat, and 45% RBCs
buffy coat and RBCs make up the formed elements

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23
Q

what are the 3 types of formed elements

A

erythrocytes (red blood cells), leukocytes (white blood cells), and platelets

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24
Q

when staining cells/cell fragments, what acidic dye is used and what color does it stain

A

eosin, stains pink

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25
Q

when staining cells/cell fragments, what basic dye is used and what color does it stain

A

hematoxylin or methylene blue, stains blue and purple

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26
Q

what is the function of erythrocytes (red blood cells (RBCs))

A

oxygen transporting cells

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27
Q

what is hemoglobin

A

an oxygen carrying protein in RBCs

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28
Q

how many RBCs are in females

A

4.3-5.2 million cells/cubic millimeter blood

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29
Q

how many RBCs are in males

A

5.2-5.8 million cells/cubic millimeter

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30
Q

what do mature RBCs lack

A

they have no organelles or nuclei

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31
Q

what is the shape of RBCs and why

A

biconcave shape, allows for 30% more surface area

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32
Q

where do RBCs originate

A

in the bone marrow

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33
Q

how long do RBCs live

A

100-120 days

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34
Q

how many white blood cells (WBCs) do people have on avaerage

A

7,500

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35
Q

what is the function of WBCs

A

protect the body from infectious microorganisms

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36
Q

where are WBCs found

A

outside the bloodstream in loose connective tissue

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37
Q

what is diapedesis

A

circulating leukocytes leave the capillaries by squeezing between endothelial cells

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38
Q

what are the 2 main types of WBCs

A

granulocytes and agranulocytes

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39
Q

what is the main difference between the 2 types of WBCs

A

granulocytes have enzyme filled vesicles in cytoplasm while agranulocytes lack vesicles

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40
Q

what are the 3 main types of granulocytes

A

neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils

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41
Q

what is the more numerous type of leukocyte

A

neutrophils

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42
Q

what is the function of neutrophils

A

Phagocytize bacteria and release enzymes that kill bacteria

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43
Q

what does the nucleus look like in neutrophils

A

it is multi-lobed, has 2-6 lobes

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44
Q

what are neutrophils also known as

A

polymorphonucleated granulocytes (PMNs)

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45
Q

what are band cells

A

immature neutrophil cells don’t have multi lobed nuclei but the mature cells do

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46
Q

when staining granules of neutrophils, what stain does it pick up

A

pick up both acidic and basic stains, appear neutral colored (azurophilic)

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47
Q

what much of WBCs do eosinophils make up

A

1-4% of all WBCs

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48
Q

what are the main functions of eosinophils

A

it is phagocytic:
1. turn off allergic reactions
2. help fight off parasitic infections

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49
Q

when staining granules of eosinophils, what stain does it pick up

A

stained by eosin, appears pink

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50
Q

what much of WBCs do basophils make up

A

about 0.5%

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51
Q

what does the nucleus look like in basophils

A

usually 2 lobes

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52
Q

what is the main function of basophils

A

inflammation mediation

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53
Q

what do basophils secrete to help inflammation mediation

A

histamine

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54
Q

when staining granules of basophilss, what stain does it pick up

A

stained by basic dyes, appears purple

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55
Q

what are the 2 main types of agranulocytes

A

lymphocytes and monocytes

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56
Q

what much of WBCs do lymphocytes make up

A

about 20-40%

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57
Q

T/F lymphocytes are the most important cells of the immune system

A

TRUE

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58
Q

what staining agranulocytes, what does it stain as

A

stains dark purple, the cytoplasm looks smooth

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59
Q

what are the 2 main classes of lymphocytes

A

T cells and B cells

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60
Q

what is the main function of T cells

A

attack foreign cells directly

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61
Q

what are the main functions of B cells

A

multiply to become plasma cells and secrete antibodies

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62
Q

is the nucleus volume/cytoplasm ration high or low in lymphocytes

A

Nucleus volume/cytoplasm ratio high (only small sliver of cytoplasm on one side)

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63
Q

what does the cytoplasm in lymphocytes stain

A

slightly blue or purple

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64
Q

what much of WBCs do monocytes make up

A

4-8%

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65
Q

what is the size of monocytes

A

it is the largest leukocyte

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66
Q

what is the nucleus shaped like in monocytes

A

kidney shaped

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67
Q

what is the main function of monocytes

A

they are phagocytic cells, transform into macrophages

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68
Q

where are monocytes

A

they leave they bloodstream and enter loose (areolar) connective tissue

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69
Q

what are platelets

A

cell fragments (NOT whole cells)

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70
Q

where do platelets come from

A

Break off from megakaryocytes in bone marrow

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71
Q

what is the main function of platelets

A

have vesicles containing molecules that help initiate the clotting of blood

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72
Q

what do platelets form and why

A

form platelet plug to prevent loss of blood from injured blood vessel

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73
Q

what activates the platelet plug/platelet aggregation

A

exposure to subendothelial collagen

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74
Q

what is hematopoiesis

A

process by which blood cells are formed

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75
Q

where do all blood cells originate

A

bone marrow

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76
Q

how many new blood cell are formed everyday

A

100 billion

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77
Q

what are the 2 types of marrow

A

red marrow and yellow marrow

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78
Q

what is red marrow

A

actively generates new blood cells

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79
Q

what different types of blood cells are in red marrow

A

different stages of developing blood cells because cells go through several maturation stages

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80
Q

where is red marrow found in adults

A

Remains in proximal epiphyses, girdles, and all of axial skeleton of adults

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81
Q

where is red marrow found in children and infants

A

most bones have red marrow

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82
Q

what are the 2 tissues in red marrow

A

reticular connective tissue and blood sinusoids

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83
Q

what does reticular connective tissue do in red marrow

A

have reticular fibers that support developing blood cells

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84
Q

what are blood sinusoids in red marrow

A

large capillaries with wide open intercellular junctions

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85
Q

what is yellow marrow

A

dormant marrow that is mainly composed of fat cells

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86
Q

where is yellow marrow located

A

in most of the long bones of adults (appendicular skeleton)

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87
Q

what are hemopoietic stem cells

A

most undifferentiated blood stem cells that continually divide

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88
Q

what 2 progeny stem cells do hemopoietic stem cells give rise to

A

lymphoid stem cells and myeloid stem cells

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89
Q

what do lymphoid stem cells give rise to

A

lymphocytes

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90
Q

what do myeloid stem cells give rise to

A

all other blood cells besides lymphocytes (including proerythroblasts, myeloblasts, monoblasts, and megakaryoblasts)

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91
Q

what are erythrocytes formed from

A

proerythroblasts

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92
Q

what are megakaryocytes formed from (break off to form platelets)

A

megakaryoblasts

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93
Q

what are granulocytes formed from

A

myeloblasts (one cell line for each type)

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94
Q

what are monocytes formed from

A

monoblasts (myeloid line)

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95
Q

what are lymphocytes (B cells and T cells) formed from

A

lymphoid stem cells

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96
Q

what are the 3 main blood vessels

A

arteries, capillaries, and veins

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97
Q

what are arteries

A

carry blood AWAY from the heart

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98
Q

what are capillaries

A

smallest blood vessel, the site of exchange of molecules between blood and tissue fluid

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99
Q

what are veins

A

carry blood TO the heart

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100
Q

what are the 3 layers of blood vessels

A

tunica intima, tunica media, and tunica externa (adventitia)

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101
Q

what is tunica intima composed of

A

simple squamous epithelium (endothelial cells)

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102
Q

what is the outer layer of tunica intima

A

the subendothelial layer

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103
Q

what is the subendothelial layer composed of

A

thin layer of loose connective tissue

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104
Q

what is tunica media made of

A

primarily sheets of smooth muscle; also, collagen and elastin, especially in larger vessels

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105
Q

what is tunica externa composed of

A

dense irregular connective tissue

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106
Q

what is lumen

A

central blood-filled space of a vessel

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107
Q

what is the order of the many layers of a vessel (what is on the inside toward the outside)

A

starting from inner most layer: lumen -> tunica intima -> subendothelial layer -> tunica media -> tunica externa

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108
Q

how do you tell veins from arteries since they usually run together (3)

A

veins have thinner walls while arteries have thicker tunica media
veins have larger lumen/vessel size ration, arteries have smaller lumen/vessel size ration
veins have thicker tunica externa while arteries have more smooth muscle/elastin

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109
Q

what are the 3 main types of arteries

A

elastic arteries, muscular arteries, and arterioles

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110
Q

what is the size of elastic arteries

A

the largest artery, about 2.5 to 1 cm in diameter

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111
Q

what is a major structure that is an elastic artery

A

aorta and its major branches

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112
Q

what are elastic arteries also called

A

conducting arteries

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113
Q

what is the main function of elastic arteries

A

have high elastin content in tunica media which stores energy for continuous flow of blood

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114
Q

what is the size of muscular arteries

A

about 1cm to 0.3 mm

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115
Q

what arteries are muscular arteries

A

most arteries

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116
Q

what are the 2 unique characteristics of muscular arteries

A
  1. thick tunica media (smooth muscle)
  2. has internal and external elastic laminae
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117
Q

what is the size of arterioles

A

the smallest artery, 0.3mm to 10 microm in diameter

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118
Q

where is the smooth muscle in arterioles

A

the tunica media is smooth muscle

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119
Q

do all arterioles have all 3 tunics

A

no, only the larger arterioles have all 3

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120
Q

what are the 2 types of contraction that occur to the diameter of the lumen in arterioles

A

contraction of smooth muscles causes either vasoconstriction or vasodilation

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121
Q

what is vasoconstriction

A

the diameter of the lumen becomes smaller

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122
Q

what is vasodilation

A

the diameter of the lumen becomes larger

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123
Q

what are the 2 things that control the diameter of arterioles

A
  1. local factors in the tissue
  2. sympathetic nervous system
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124
Q

how large are capillaries

A

smallest blood vessel, about 8-10 microm in diameter

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125
Q

how are red blood cells formed when going through capillaries

A

single file

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126
Q

do capillaries have to same function throughout the body

A

no, it is site specific

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127
Q

what is the function of capillaries in the lungs

A

oxygen enters blood, carbon dioxide leaves

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128
Q

what is the function of capillaries in the small intestine

A

receive digested nutrients

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129
Q

what is the function of capillaries in endocrine glands

A

pick up hormones

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130
Q

what is the function of capillaries in the kidneys

A

removal of nitrogenous wastes

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131
Q

what type of cells form capillaries

A

a single layer of endothelial cells (simple squamous)

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132
Q

what holds together the cells of capillaries

A

tight junctions and desmosomes

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133
Q

what tunica layers are present in capillaries

A

only tunica intima (outer tunics are absent)

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134
Q

what are intercellular clefts in capillaries

A

gaps of un-joined membrane between tight junctions; overlap

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135
Q

what is the function of intercellular clefts in capillaries

A

so small molecules can enter and exit

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136
Q

what are the supporting cells for capillaries

A

pericytes

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137
Q

what are the 2 main types of capillaries

A

continuous and fenestrated

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138
Q

what is the most common type of capillary

A

continuous

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139
Q

what are fenestrated capillaries

A

they have openings in endothelial cell membrane (fenestrae)

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140
Q

where are fenestrated capillaries found

A

kidneys, intestines, and pancreas

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141
Q

what are the 4 routes into and out of capillaries

A
  1. direct diffusions (lipid soluble molecules)
  2. through intercellular clefts
  3. through fenestrations
  4. through cytoplasmic vesicles (pinocytosis)
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142
Q

what are sinusoids

A

wide, leaky capillaries found in some organs

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143
Q

what type of capillary are sinusoids usually

A

fenestrated

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144
Q

how are the intercellular clefts in sinusoids oriented

A

wide open

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145
Q

what is the function of sinusoids

A

to exchange large substances (proteins and whole cells)

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146
Q

where are sinusoids found

A

in bone marrow, spleen, and liver

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147
Q

what is a capillary bed

A

a network of capillaries running though tissues

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148
Q

what are metarteriole and thoroughfare channels

A

small arteries that connect to capillary beds and control blood flow into them (or bypass them)

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149
Q

what are precapillary sphincters

A

bands of smooth muscle on the metarteriole that regulates the flow of blood into tissues (they can open or close)

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150
Q

what happens when precapillary sphincters are closed

A

blood does not pass through capillaries, it gets bypassed from inactive tissues

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151
Q

which tissues have reduced blood flow through capillary beds

A

metabolically inactive tissues

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152
Q

what 3 tissues lack or have sparse capillary beds

A
  1. epithelia and cartilage
  2. cornea and lens of eye
  3. tendons and ligaments
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153
Q

why do epithelia and cartilage tissues lack or have sparse capillary beds

A

they are avascular

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154
Q

why do cornea and lens of eye tissues lack or have sparse capillary beds

A

because it gets nutrients from aqueous humor

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155
Q

why do tendon and ligament tissues lack or have sparse capillary beds

A

poorly vascularized and receive nutrients from nearby connective tissues

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156
Q

what is the main function of veins

A

conduct blood from capillaries toward the heart

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157
Q

is the blood pressure in veins low or high compared to arteries

A

low in veins, high in arteries

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158
Q

what are venules

A

smallest veins (8-10 microm)

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159
Q

what are postcapillary venules

A

smallest venules

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160
Q

when venules joing, what do they form

A

veins

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161
Q

what is the thickest tunic in veins

A

tunica externa

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162
Q

what is the tunica media made of in veins

A

a little smooth muscle and mostly collagen

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163
Q

what are the 2 main mechanisms to counteract low venous pressure

A

one-way valves in some veins and skeletal muscle pump

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164
Q

where are one-way valves in veins located in the body

A

mainly in the limbs

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165
Q

how does a skeletal muscle pump work

A

the muscle presses against the thin-walled vein, squeezing it closed

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166
Q

what are vascular anastomoses

A

formed when vessels interconnect

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167
Q

do organs receive blood from 1 arterial source or many

A

many (which then forms arterial anastomoses)

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168
Q

what are collateral channels

A

network of backup blood vessels that help maintain blood flow

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169
Q

what provides collateral channels

A

arterial anastomoses

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170
Q

are vein anastomoses or arterial anastomoses more common

A

vein anastomoses

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171
Q

what do large vessels have on their tunica axterna

A

tiny arteries, capillaries, and veins

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172
Q

what is vasa vasorum

A

vessels of vessels

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173
Q

what is the function of vasa vasorum

A

nourish the outer region of large vessels

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174
Q

where does the inner region of large vessels get nutrients

A

from luminal blood

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175
Q

what are the great vessels of circulation (4)

A
  1. aorta and its major branches
  2. pulmonary trunk/pulmonary arteries and veins
  3. inferior vena cava
  4. superior vena cava
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176
Q

what is the function of the inferior vena cava

A

return blood to heart from lower body

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177
Q

what is the function of the superior vena cava

A

carry blood returning to heart from head/upper body

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178
Q

what is the heart

A

a muscular double pump

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179
Q

what are the 2 circuits of the heart

A

pulmonary circuit and systemic circuit

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180
Q

what is the function of the pulmonary circuit

A

takes blood to and from the lungs

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181
Q

what is the function of the systemic circuit

A

vessels transport blood to and from body tissues

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182
Q

what are the 4 chambers of the heart

A

2 (left and right) atria on top and 2 (left and right) ventricles on bottom

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183
Q

what is the function of atria

A

receiving chambers, blood from the pulmonary and system circuits

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184
Q

what is the function of ventricles

A

the pumping chambers of the heart

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185
Q

what are the 4 earliest heart chambers

A
  1. sinus venosus
  2. atrium
  3. ventricle
  4. bulbus cordis
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186
Q

what does the sinus venosus in early development become part of

A

the right atrium

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187
Q

what does the sinus venosus do in early development

A

determines heart rate

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188
Q

what does the atrium in early development become

A

the adult left atrium

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189
Q

what does the ventricle in early development become

A

the adult left ventricle

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190
Q

what does the bulbus cordis in early development become

A

great arteries and right ventricle mainly; also base of aorta and pulmonary trunk/arteries

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191
Q

in embryonic heart development, how does the heart bend and what moves around

A

heart bends into an S shape, moving the atria to the top

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192
Q

in embryonic development, what divides the atria and ventricles

A

septa

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193
Q

where is the heart located in the thorax

A

between the lungs

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194
Q

how is the apex oriented

A

directed out (toward sternum) about 45 degrees and to left about 45 degrees

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195
Q

what is the pericardium

A

the covering on the heart

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196
Q

what are the 3 layers of the pericardium

A

fibrous pericardium, parietal layer of serous pericardium, and Visceral layer of serous pericardium

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197
Q

what is the fibrous pericardium made of

A

the strong layer of dense connective tissue

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198
Q

what is between the 2 layers of the serous pericardium

A

pericardial cavity

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199
Q

what are the 3 layers of the heart wall

A

epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium

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200
Q

what is the epicardium

A

the visceral layer of the serous pericardium (serosal membrane)

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201
Q

what kind of membrane is the epicardium and what type of tissue is it

A

simple squamous epithelium; thin connective tissue

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202
Q

what is the myocardium

A

cardiac muscle

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203
Q

how is the muscle arranged in the myocardium

A

in circular and spiral patterns

204
Q

where is the endocardium

A

it lines the internal walls of the heart

205
Q

what kind of membrane is endocardium and what type of tissue is it

A

simple squamous epithelium on a layer of loose connective tissue

206
Q

what is the thickness of walls in the atria vs ventricles

A

thin walls in atria and thick walls in ventricles

207
Q

is the left or right ventricle thicker and by how much

A

left ventricle 3X thicker than right

208
Q

why is the left ventricle thicker than the right

A

exerts more pumping force

209
Q

how does the thickness of the left ventricle affect the shape of the right ventricle

A

it flattens the right ventricle into a crescent shape

210
Q

what divides the right and left atria

A

inter-atrial septum

211
Q

what divides the right and left ventricles

A

inter-ventricular septum

212
Q

where does oxygen poor blood start

A

in the superior and inferior venae cavae (SIV & IVC)

213
Q

where does the SIV and IVC carry the blood

A

through the pulmonary circuit

214
Q

what consists in the pulmonary circuit

A

Right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary trunk, right/left pulmonary arteries, lungs

215
Q

after going to the lungs, where is oxygen rich blood

A

in the pulmonary veins

216
Q

where do the pulmonary veins bring the blood

A

back to the heart in the systemic circuit

217
Q

what consists in the systemic circuit

A

Left atrium, left ventricle, aorta, distributing (muscular) arteries to body

218
Q

what are the 2 one-way valves in the heart

A

atrioventricular valves (AV) and aortic & pulmonary valves

219
Q

what is the atrioventricular valve

A

the valve between the atria and ventricle

220
Q

what is in the right AV valve

A

tricuspid

221
Q

what is in the left AV

A

mitral (bicuspid)

222
Q

what is the aortic and pulmonary valve

A

the valve at junction of ventricles and great arteries

223
Q

what is inside aortic and pulmonary valves

A

semilunar components (3 crescent shaped leaflets)

224
Q

what are both heart valves composed of

A

endocardium with connective tissue core

225
Q

what is chordae tenineae

A

connective tissue strands that connect AV valves to small muscles extending from lower ventricle walls

226
Q

what are papillary muscles

A

what chordae tendineae connects AV valves to during contraction of ventricles

227
Q

where are papillary muscles

A

lower ventricle and extend into ventricular cavity

228
Q

what does contraction of papillary muscles prevent

A

prevents eversion of AV valves into atria

229
Q

describe the function of the AV valve

A
  1. blood returning to heart fills atria; puts pressure on AV valve causing it to open
  2. ventricles fill and contract; blood is forced against AV valve cusps
  3. AV valve closes; papillary muscle contract and chordae tendineae tighten preventing valve from everting into atria
  4. pressure rises in ventricle; blood is pushed against semilunar valves forcing them open
230
Q

what forces semilunar valves to close

A

blood pressure in aorta/pulmonary trunk

231
Q

what is turbulence

A

the “lub-dup” sound when valves close

232
Q

what causes the first “lub” sound of heart contraction

A

the AV valve closes

233
Q

what causes the second “dup” sound of heart contraction

A

the semilunar valves closing

234
Q

is the valve sound best heard directly over valve or in a corner of the heart

A

corner of heart

235
Q

where is the pulmonary valve best heard

A

superior left corner

236
Q

where is the aortic valve best heard

A

superior right corner

237
Q

where is the mitral valve best heard

A

at left inferior corner

238
Q

where is the tricuspid valve best heard

A

inferior right corner

239
Q

where is the superior right corner of the heart

A

at the 3rd rib at costal cartilage/sternum

240
Q

where is the inferior right corner of the heart

A

at the 6th rib about 1.5 inch lateral to the sternum

241
Q

where is the superior left corner of the heart

A

at the 2nd rib at costal cartilage about 1.5 inch lateral to the sternum

242
Q

where is the inferior left corner of the heart

A

lies in the 5th inter-costal space (between 5th and 6th rib) at the mid-clavicular line

243
Q

what do auto-rhythmic cardiac cells

A

generate action potentials, signal other muscle cells to contract rhythmically

244
Q

what are the 2 types of auto-rhythmic cardiac cells

A

pacemaker cells and conducting cells

245
Q

what are the 2 locations of pacemaker cells

A

in nodes:
1. sinoatrial (SA) node
2. atrioventricular (AV) node

246
Q

where is the sinoatrial (SA) node

A

upper right atrium

247
Q

what do the pacemaker cells in the sinoatrial node do

A

sets inherent rate of contraction (primary pacemaker)

248
Q

where is the atrioventricular node

A

between atria and ventricles

249
Q

what are the 5 main parts in the conducting system

A

interatrial pathway, internodal pathway, atrioventricular bundle, bundle branches, and purkinje fibers

250
Q

where is the interatrial pathway

A

between atria (left and right)

251
Q

where is the internodal pathway

A

between SA and AV nodes

252
Q

where is the atrioventricular bundle

A

(bundle of His) between upper ventricles

253
Q

where is the bundle branches

A

into each ventricle (left and right)

254
Q

where are the purkinje fibers

A

through each ventricle wall (between endocardium and myocardium)

255
Q

what are the 3 nerves that go to and from the heart that alter heart rate

A
  1. visceral sensory fibers
  2. parasympathetic branches of vagus nerve (SA and AV node)
  3. sympathetic fibers from cervical chain ganglia
256
Q

what is the function of coronary arteries

A

supply heart with blood

257
Q

what do the coronary arteries arise from

A

the aorta

258
Q

what are the 3 main branches of the coronary arteries

A

left and right coronary arteries, arterial anastomoses

259
Q

what is the main function of the coronary sinus

A

delivers almost all venous blood from heart to right atrium

260
Q

when are all major vessels in place in fetal development

A

by month 3

261
Q

what are the 3 main differences between fetal and postnatal circulation

A
  1. fetus must supply blood to placenta
  2. most blood bypasses liver
  3. very little blood is sent through the pulmonary circuit (fetus does not breath; lungs not in use)
262
Q

what are the 2 umbilical vessels running in the umbilical cord

A

paired umbilical arteries and unpaired umbilical vein

263
Q

what does the paired umbilical artery do

A

move oxygen poor blood to the placenta

264
Q

what does the paired umbilical artery branch from

A

internal iliac arteries of fetus

265
Q

what does the unpaired umbilical vein do

A

move oxygen rich blood from placenta to fetus (high in nutrients); some goes to liver but most goes through ductus venosus

266
Q

what is the ductus venosus

A

a vessel that moves to and from placenta, most blood bypasses fetal liver and enters inferior vena cava

267
Q

what 2 things in fetuses shunt away from pulmonary circuit (vessel that goes to and from lungs)

A

foramen ovale and ductus arteriosus

268
Q

how does blood move into the foramen ovale instead of the pulmonary circuit

A

when R atrium contracts, about half blood goes thru foramen ovale into L atrium instead of R ventricle; enters aorta

269
Q

how does blood move into the ductus arteriosus instead of the pulmonary circuit

A

goes into aorta directly from pulmonary trunk instead of moving to pulmonary circuit

270
Q

what is remnant of the umbilical vein

A

ligamentum teres (anterior liver surface)

271
Q

what is remnant of the ductus venosus

A

ligamentum venosum (liver’s inferior surface)

272
Q

what is remnant of the umbilical arteries

A

medial umbilical ligaments (internal to naval)

273
Q

what are the 2 main structures in the lymphatic system

A

lymphatic vessels and lymph nodes

274
Q

what is the purpose of the lymphatic system

A

collect excess tissue fluid and blood proteins lost from blood capillaries then return tissue fluid and blood proteins back to bloodstream

275
Q

what is edema

A

excess tissue fluid

276
Q

what is elephantiasis

A

a parasitic worm that lives in lymph vessels

277
Q

what does elephantiasis do

A

blocks lymph vessels, prevents return of excess tissue fluid and blood, accumulates in tissue (edema)

278
Q

where does the lymphatic system pick up lymph and where does it carry the fluid

A

collect lymph from loose connective tissue and carry fluid to veins in the neck (one way flow; only toward heart)

279
Q

what is the order of lymphatic vessels (4)

A
  1. lymph capillaries
  2. lymphatic collecting vessels
  3. lymph trunks
  4. lymph ducts
280
Q

what do lymph capillaries do

A

smallest, first receive lymph

281
Q

where are lymph capillaries located

A

blood capillaries

282
Q

what tunic is present in lymph capillaries

A

Simple squamous endothelium, other tunics absent

283
Q

what are mini-valve flaps on lymph capillaries

A

they open and close to allow fluid to enter, formed by endothelial cells overlapping

284
Q

what does the high permeability of lymph capillaries allow

A

uptake of large amounts of tissue fluid and entrance of bacteria, viruses, and cancer cells

285
Q

what are lacteals

A

specialized lymphatic capillaries

286
Q

where are lacteals located

A

in lining of small intestine

287
Q

what do lacteals do

A

receive digested fats absorbed from small intestine (fats not directly absorbed into blood, first go to lymph)

288
Q

what do lymphatic collecting vessels do

A

collect from lymph capillaries

289
Q

where are lymphatic collecting vessels

A

near muscular arteries and veins

290
Q

what do lymphatic collecting vessels contain a lot of

A

internal valves (more than veins) to help direct flow one way

291
Q

what are the 4 things that propel lymph

A

bulging of skeletal muscles around them, pulsing of nearby arteries, tunica media of larger lymph vessels, random movements

292
Q

what are scattered along collecting vessels

A

lymph nodes

293
Q

what type of tissue are lymph nodes

A

dense connective tissue capsule

294
Q

what are lymph nodes responsible for

A

cleanse lymph of pathogens

295
Q

what are the pathogens destroyed by in lymph nodes

A

destroyed by T lymphocytes, antibodies, and macrophages

296
Q

what are the vessels called that enter nodes and exit nodes

A

afferent vessels (enter nodes) and efferent vessels (exit nodes)

297
Q

what does lymph filter through

A

lymph sinuses

298
Q

where are lymph sinuses located

A

throughout and between lymphoid nodules (follicles) of B cells; T cells scattered

299
Q

how are lymph nodes organized

A

in clusters

300
Q

for each of the following locations, what is the name of the lymph node:
1. at base of limbs (2)
2. along descending aorta
3. along major lymph vessels in neck
4. in mediastinum
5. along iliac artery in pelvis

A
  1. axillary nodes (armpit) and inguinal nodes (upper thigh)
  2. aortic nodes
  3. cervical nodes
  4. tracheobronchial nodes
  5. iliac nodes
301
Q

what are lymph trunks

A

collect lymph from collecting vessels

302
Q

what are the 5 major lymph trunks

A
  1. lumbar trunks
  2. intestinal trunk
  3. bronchomediastinal trunks
  4. subclavian trunks
  5. jugular trunks
303
Q

what are lumbar trunks responsible for

A

receives lymph from lower limbs

304
Q

what is the intestinal trunk responsible for

A

receives chyle from digestive organs, abdominopelvic cavity

305
Q

what are cisterna chyli and where are they located

A

bulbous swelling located at the union of lumbar and intestinal trunks

306
Q

what are the bronchomediastinal trunks responsible for

A

collects lymph from thoracic viscera (lungs, heart, etc.)

307
Q

what are the subclavian trunks responsible for

A

receive lymph from arms and thoracic wall (front and back)

308
Q

what are the jugular trunks responsible for

A

drain lymph from the head and neck

309
Q

what are lymph ducts

A

empty lymph into veins of neck

310
Q

what are the 2 lymph ducts

A

thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct

311
Q

where is the thoracic duct

A

ascends along vertebral bodies

312
Q

what parts of the body does the thoracic duct drain

A

drains 3/4 of body (lower limbs, left upper limb, and left side of head neck and trunk)

313
Q

where does the thoracic duct empty into

A

venous circulation (junction of left internal jugular and left subclavian veins)

314
Q

what parts of the body does the thoracic duct drain

A

right side of head and upper right thorax

315
Q

where does the right lymphatic duct empty into

A

into junction of right internal jugular and subclavian veins

316
Q

what are the 2 groups that organs are divided into

A

alimentary canal and accessory digestive organs

317
Q

what organs are included in the alimentary canal

A

mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, and large intestine

318
Q

what organs are included in the accessory digestive organs

A

teeth, tongue, gallbladder, salivary glands, liver, pancreas

319
Q

what are the 4 layers of the alimentary canal wall from the esophagus to anus

A

mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, serosa

320
Q

what is the mucosa (most inner or outer)

A

most inner layer

321
Q

what are the 3 sub layers of the mucosa

A

epithelium, lamina propria, and muscularis mucosae

322
Q

where is the epithelium of the mucosa

A

interface with lumen

323
Q

what type of tissue is the lamina propria made of

A

loose connective tissue

324
Q

what type of tissue is the muscularis mucosae

A

thin layer of smooth muscle

325
Q

what is the muscularis mucosae responsible for

A

produces localized movements of mucosa

326
Q

where is the muscularis mucosae absent (2)

A

mouth and pharynx

327
Q

where is the submucosa

A

external to mucosa

328
Q

what type of tissue is the submucosa made of

A

connective tissue; intermediate type (similar to loose and dense irregular)

329
Q

what is within the submucosa

A

contains blood and lymphatic vessels; nerve fibers

330
Q

where is the muscularis externa

A

external to submucosa

331
Q

what type of tissue is the muscularis externa made of

A

smooth muscle

332
Q

what are the 2 layers of the muscularis externa and which is inner/outer

A

circular muscularis (inner) and longitudinal muscularis (outer)

333
Q

what is the muscularis externa responsible for

A

move and mix ingested food

334
Q

where is the serosa

A

outer most layer

335
Q

what membrane is the serosa

A

visceral peritoneum

336
Q

what type of membrane and tissue is the visceral peritoneum

A

Mesothelium- simple squamous epithelium + thin connective tissue layer

337
Q

what is adventitia and what organs have it

A

ordinary fibrous connective tissues, organs outside of peritoneal cavity

338
Q

what are the 2 glands in the digestive system

A

intrinsic glands and extrinsic glands

339
Q

where are the intrinsic glands

A

within wall of alimentary canal

340
Q

what are the 2 types of intrinsic glands

A

mucosal and submucosal glands

341
Q

what are the 2 types of intrinsic glands continuous with

A

with epithelial lining

342
Q

what do the intrinsic glands make

A

mucus, gastric acid, proteolytic enzymes, and bicarbonate

343
Q

where are extrinsic glands

A

outside of alimentary canal and connected via long ducts

344
Q

what is the main type of extrinsic gland

A

salivary glands

345
Q

what do the salivary glands in the pancreas make

A

secretes most digestive enzymes

346
Q

what do the salivary glands in the liver make

A

bile salts, aid in digestion of fat

347
Q

where is the enteric nervous system

A

within the wall of alimentary canal

348
Q

what are the 2 types of plexuses in the enteric nervous system

A

myenteric and submucosal plexuses

349
Q

what does the enteric nervous system mainly receive input from

A

the autonomic nerves, but the enteric nervous system can function independently

350
Q

what are the 3 reflex arcs in the enteric nervous system that control digestive processes

A
  1. short sensory neurons
  2. short visceral motor neurons
  3. interneuron-like neurons (not true interneurons)
351
Q

what is the myenteric nerve plexus also called

A

auerbach’s plexus

352
Q

where is the myenteric nerves plexus

A

In muscularis externa, between circular and longitudinal layers

353
Q

what is the function of the myenteric nerve plexus

A

Receive input from both parasympathetic and sympathetic; control contractions of muscularis externa

354
Q

what is the submucosal nerve plexus also called

A

meissner’s plexus

355
Q

where is the submucosal nerve plexus located

A

within submucosa

356
Q

what is the function of the submucosal nerve plexus

A

receive input from both parasympathetic and sympathetic; control localized movement of muscularis mucosae and gland secretion

357
Q

what is the peritoneum

A

a serous membrane

358
Q

where is the visceral peritoneum

A

surrounds digestive organs

359
Q

where is the parietal peritoneum

A

lines the interior abdominopelvic wall

360
Q

what is the peritoneal cavity

A

a slit-like potential space

361
Q

what is a mesentery

A

a double layer of peritoneum

362
Q

what is the purpose of a mesentery

A

holds organs in place, attaches to dorsal and ventral abdominal wall, and provides a route for circulatory vessels and nerves

363
Q

what are the 2 main types of mesenteries

A

dorsal mesenteries and ventral mesenteries

364
Q

what are dorsal mesenteries connected to

A

the posterior wall

365
Q

are most mesenteries dorsal or ventral

A

dorsal

366
Q

what is an example of a dorsal mesentery

A

greater omentum (largest dorsal mes.): Extends from greater curvature of stomach to posterior abdominal wall; extends forward and drapes over transverse colon and some of small intestine

367
Q

what do the ventral mesenteries connect to

A

the anterior wall

368
Q

what is an example of a ventral mesentery

A

lesser omentum: extends from liver to lesser curvature of stomach; indirectly connected to anterior abdominal wall

369
Q

what are secondarily retroperitoneal organs

A

some organs of the alimentary canal that lose their mesenteries during embryonic development

370
Q

where are secondarily retroperitoneal organs

A

lie outside of peritoneum

371
Q

what happens to the mesenteries in secondarily retroperitoneal organs

A

they are reabsorbed

372
Q

what organs are secondarily retroperitoneal

A

part of duodenum, ascending colon, descending colon, rectum, and pancreas

373
Q

where is the peritoneal cavity in retroperitoneal organs

A

behind the peritoneum

374
Q

where is the peritoneal cavity in peritoneal organs

A

digestive organs that keep their mesentery

375
Q

what are the 2 examples of ventral mesenteries

A

falciform ligament (anterior liver to anterior abdominal wall) and lesser omentum (stomach to liver)

376
Q

what are the 4 examples of dorsal mesenteries

A

greater omentum, transverse mesocolon, mesentery of intestine, and sigmoid mesocolon

377
Q

what are the 2 parts of the mouth

A

vestibule and oral cavity

378
Q

where is the vestibule

A

between the cheek and teeth

379
Q

where is the oral cavity

A

internal to teeth and anterior 2/3 of tongue

380
Q

what is the palate

A

roof of the mouth

381
Q

what are the 2 parts of the palate

A

hard palate and soft palate

382
Q

what is the hard palate

A

made of bone, anterior 2/3, separates oral and nasal cavities

383
Q

what are the 2 components of the hard palate

A

palatine process of maxilla and palatine bone

384
Q

what is the soft palate

A

posterior 1/3, muscular flap, closes off passage-way between nasal cavity and oropharynx during swallow

385
Q

what are the 3 cellular layers in the mouth

A

mucosa, submucosa, and external muscularis

386
Q

what is the cell wall type in the mucosa layer

A

stratified squamous epithelium

387
Q

what does the mucosa layer help transition in the mouth

A

from keratinized to non-keratinized at lips

388
Q

what is absent in the mucosa layer in the mouth

A

muscularis mucosae

389
Q

where is the submucosa layer present

A

in guns and bony palate above the bones

390
Q

where is the external muscularis present

A

in cheeks and soft palate

391
Q

what type of muscle is the external muscularis layer

A

skeletal muscle

392
Q

what is the function of teeth

A

bite off portions of food and begin its mechanical breakdown

393
Q

what are alveoli

A

sockets in the gums where teeth sits

394
Q

what are the 3 parts of teeth

A

crown, neck and root

395
Q

what are the 5 parts that the teeth are composed of

A

enamel, dentine, pulp cavity and pulp, cementum, and periodontal membrane (ligament)

396
Q

what is the enamel

A

outer layer of crown and neck

397
Q

when is the enamel made and how long does it last

A

produced before tooth erupts and lasts a lifetime

398
Q

what is 99.5% of the enamel made of

A

calcium-phosphate crystals (no cells)

399
Q

where is the dentine

A

underlies enamel, the bulk of tooth

400
Q

what are dentinal tubules

A

microscopic canals through dentine layer

401
Q

what are odontoblasts and where are they located

A

cells that secrete dentine within the inferior layer of dentinal tubules

402
Q

what is pulp cavity and pulp

A

non mineralized center of tooth

403
Q

what type of tissue is pulp

A

connective tissue

404
Q

what is within the pulp

A

nerves and blood vessels

405
Q

what is cementum

A

thin layer of bone on outside of root

406
Q

what is the function of cementum

A

Provides an anchor for thin collagen fibers from periodontal membrane (ligament) on its outside

407
Q

what type of tissue is periodontal membrane (ligament)

A

dense connective tissue

408
Q

what is the function of periodontal membrane

A

anchors tooth in socket via collagen fibers

409
Q

how does periodontal disease start and what does it turn into

A

starts as gum infection (gingivitis) that breaks down periodontal membrane and results in loss of teeth

410
Q

what are the 4 types of teeth

A

incisors, canines, premolars, and molars

411
Q

what is the shape of incisors

A

chisel shaped

412
Q

what do incisors do to food

A

sheer bites of food

413
Q

what is the shape of canines

A

cone shaped

414
Q

what do canines do to food

A

piercing and tearing food

415
Q

what is the shape of premolars

A

flat surface with 1 or 2 cusps

416
Q

what do premolars do to food

A

grind food

417
Q

what is the shape of molars

A

broad surface with 4-5 cusps; 2 roots (lower molars) or 3-4 roots (upper molars)

418
Q

what do molars do to food

A

grinding of food

419
Q

how many permanent teeth do people have

A

32 teeth

420
Q

what is the dental formula for permanent teeth

A

2-1-2-3

421
Q

what are wisdom teeth

A

the 3rd molar

422
Q

how many deciduous teeth do people have

A

20 teeth

423
Q

when do deciduous teeth first appear

A

6 months ish

424
Q

what is the dental formula for deciduous teeth

A

2-1-0-2

425
Q

what is the tongue

A

interlacing fascicles of skeletal muscle

426
Q

what is the function of the tongue

A

grips food and repositions it; helps form some consonants

427
Q

what are the 2 types of muscles in the tingue

A

intrinsic and extrinsic muscles

428
Q

where are intrinsic muscles and what do they do

A

within the tongue and change shape of tongue

429
Q

where are extrinsic muscles and what do they do

A

external to tongue and move tongue left/right and in/out

430
Q

what are the 3 types of papillae on the tongue

A

filiform, fungiform, and vallate papillae

431
Q

what papillae are most abundant

A

filiform

432
Q

which papillae are the largest

A

vallate

433
Q

what is the function of salivary glands

A

produce saliva

434
Q

what type of gland are salivary glands

A

compound tubuloalveolar glands

435
Q

what are the 2 kinds of glands that salivary glands can be

A

intrinsic and extrinsic

436
Q

what is the function of intrinsic salivary glands

A

continually secrete; moisten oral cavity

437
Q

what are the 2 types of intrinsic glands

A

mucosal and submucosal glands

438
Q

what are the 3 types of extrinsic glands

A

parotid, submandibular, and sublingual glands

439
Q

what are the 5 things that extrinsic salivary glands secrete

A

mucus, starch digesting enzymes, bacteria killing molecules, ions, and water

440
Q

what are the 2 types of cells that secrete things

A

mucous cells (secrete mucous) and serous cells (secrete the other 4 things)

441
Q

what type of secretory cells do extrinsic parotid salivary glands have

A

only serous

442
Q

what type of secretory cells do extrinsic submandibular salivary glands have

A

evenly mixed serous and mucous

443
Q

what type of secretory cells do extrinsic sublingual salivary glands have

A

mostly mucous

444
Q

where is the pharynx

A

the throat region of alimentary canal

445
Q

what are the 3 parts of the pharynx

A

Nasopharynx, Oropharynx, and Laryngopharynx

446
Q

where is the nasopharynx

A

posterior to nasal cavity

447
Q

where is the oropharynx

A

posterior to oral cavity

448
Q

where is the laryngopharynx

A

posterior to larynx

449
Q

what is the purpose of the oro- and laryngeal pharynx

A

passages for air and food

450
Q

what type of cell membranes do oro- and laryngeal pharynxs have

A

stratified squamous epithelium

451
Q

what type of epithelium is in the esophagus

A

stratified squamous epithelium

452
Q

when the esophagus is empty, what do the mucosa and submucosa in longitudinal folds do

A

expand to allow food to pass

453
Q

what type of gland are the mucous glands in the esophagus

A

primarily compound tubuloalveolar glands in submucosa

454
Q

what are the 2 types of muscle in the muscularis externa of the esophagus

A

skeletal muscle first (proximal) third of length; smooth muscle in distal 2/3

455
Q

what is the most external layer called in the esophagus

A

adventitia

456
Q

what are the 3 layers of the stomach

A

mucosa, submucosa, and muscularis externa

457
Q

what type of membrane is in the mucosa of the stomach

A

simple columnar epithelium with goblet cells

458
Q

what are 2 of the components of the mucosa layer of the stomach

A

gastric pits and gastric glands

459
Q

what type of muscle is the muscularis externa made of

A

smooth muscle

460
Q

what is the extra layer in the muscularis externa of the stomach made of

A

extra oblique layer of smooth muscle

461
Q

what are gastric pits

A

cup-shaped invaginations into mucosa

462
Q

what are gastric glands

A

long tubular shaped glands that extend from the base of pits

463
Q

in the cardiac and pyloric region what type of cells do gastric glands have

A

mostly mucous secreting cells

464
Q

in the fundus and body of stomach what type of cells do gastric glands have (3)

A

mucous neck cells, parietal cells, and chief cells

465
Q

what do mucous neck cells secrete

A

mucus

466
Q

what do parietal cells secrete

A

gastric acid and intrinsic factor

467
Q

what do chief cells secrete

A

pepsinogen

468
Q

what do enteroendocrine cells secrete

A

various hormones

469
Q

where are enteroendocrine cells

A

scattered along lining of alimentary canal (among epithelial cells) and in gastric galnds

470
Q

what is the longest portion of the alimentary canal

A

the small intestine

471
Q

what is the small intestine responsible for

A

most enzymatic digestion and absorption of nutrients and fluids

472
Q

what are the 3 subdivisions of the small intestine

A

duodenum (5%), jejunum (35%) and ileum (60%)

473
Q

what are the 3 modifications of the small intestine to increase absorption through increasing SA

A

circular folds, villi, and microvilli

474
Q

what are circular folds

A

transverse ridges in mucosa and submucosa layers

475
Q

what are villi

A

finger like projections of the mucosa

476
Q

what type of epithelium do villi have

A

simple columnar epithelium

477
Q

what are the 2 components in the villi

A

blood vessels and lacteals

478
Q

where are microvilli

A

apical surface of aborptive cells

479
Q

what type of epithelium is along the small intestine

A

Simple columnar epithelium

480
Q

what are the 2 main cells that are within the epithelium of the small intestine

A

goblet cells (secrete mucus) and enteroendocrine cells (secrete hormones)

481
Q

what are intestinal crypts

A

small pockets of epithelium in the small intestine that secretes intestinal juice

482
Q

what do basal cells do in the small intestine

A

divide to replace old/defective epithelial cells

483
Q

what are the 5 parts of the large intestine

A

cecum, appendix, colon, rectum, and anal canal

484
Q

what component of the small intestine is absent in the large intestine

A

villi

485
Q

what type of epithelium are in the large intestine

A

simple columnar epithelial tissue

486
Q

how are intestinal crypts different in the large intestine

A

deeper than sm intestine, straight, rectangular, much large, filled with goblet cells

487
Q

what is the epithelium in the anal canal

A

stratified squamous epithelium

488
Q

what is the hepatic portal system

A

A specialized part of the vascular circuit

489
Q

what is a portal system

A

two different capillary beds in
series

490
Q

what is the functions of the hepatic portal system

A

Picks up digested nutrients (Also picks up potentially toxic substances that have been ingested and delivers to liver) and Delivers nutrients to the liver for processing

491
Q

what percentage of blood flow to the liver is via portal system vs hepatic artery

A

75% portal system and 25% hepatic artery

492
Q

what are the 3 veins in the hepatic portal system

A

Splenic Vein, Superior mesenteric vein, and Inferior mesenteric vein

493
Q

what does does the splenic vein do

A

Any microbes escaping the spleen travel to liver to be destroyed

494
Q

what does the superior mesenteric vein do

A

Drains entire small intestine; part of colon

495
Q

what does the inferior mesenteric vein to

A

Drains distal colon, including rectum

496
Q

what forms the hepatic portal vein

A

Splenic and superior mesenteric veins converge

497
Q

what is the liver an unusual gland

A

no typical secretory units

498
Q

what are hepatocytes

A

liver cells

499
Q

what are the basic units of liver

A

hepatic lobules

500
Q

what are hepatic lobules

A

Hexagonal-shaped collections of hepatocytes

501
Q

what are hepatocytes arranged in

A

plates/sheets

502
Q

what is in the center of each lobule

A

central vein

503
Q

what is at the sides of each lobule

A

portal triage

504
Q

what are the 3 segments of the portal triage

A

Segment of hepatic portal venule, Segment of arteriole from hepatic artery, and Segment of bile duct

505
Q

what are present between the sheets/plates of hepatocytes

A

blood sinusoids

Anatomy (13 decks)

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