Lecture 12

Question 1

T or F? Most RBC’s have very strong antigens on them.

Answer 1

False, they are weakly antigenic and have little medical significance.

Question 2

What are the 2 groups of antigens on RBC’s that are the most significant?

Answer 2

O-A-B and Rh groups

Question 3

Which blood type has no antigens?

Answer 3

Type O

Question 4

Which blood type is considered the universal donors? Universal recipients?

Answer 4

Universal donors - Type O

Universal recipients - Type AB

Question 5

T or F? If you have type A blood, you have A-antibodies in your blood.

Answer 5

False, blood type/group A, (A antigen expressed on RBC’s), and therefore have “anti B” antibodies in their blood

Question 6

Which blood type is the rarest?

Answer 6

Type AB

Question 7

T or F? The body constantly produces RBC’s antibodies throughout life.

Answer 7

False, Immediately after birth the levels of these antibodies ~ 0; infants begin producing the appropriate antibody/s ~ 2-8 months after birth and this reaches a maximum after ~ 8-10 years, (gradually ↓ throughout life)

Question 8

What are the types of antibodies that go after the RBCs’ antigens?

Answer 8

These antibodies are mostly IgG and IgM immunoglobulins.

Question 9

IgG and IgM antibodies production is stimulated by external sources such as certain _______ and _______: lymphocyte “processing” eliminates any response to the individual’s own antigen/s.

Answer 9

bacteria ; food

Question 10

T or F? Agglutination can occur in individuals with type AB blood if they are receiving blood.

Answer 10

False. They have A and B antigens so their bodies do not make any “A or B” antibodies, so they can receive any blood type without agglutination.

Question 11

What is hemolysis?

Answer 11

The rupture or destruction of blood.

Question 12

T or F? The specific antibodies to rhesus antigens are not normally produced until exposure to the antigens from an exogenous source.

Answer 12

True. To produce a significant response the immune system needs repeated exposure, (like multiple inoculations).

Question 13

What are the 6 common types of Rhesus antigens?

Answer 13

“C,” “D,” “E,” “c,” “d” and “e.”

Question 14

T or F? For the Rhesus antigens, you can have C-antigens and c-antigens.

Answer 14

False, you cannot have “C” and “c” at the same time. This also applies to Dd and Ee pairings.

Question 15

The ____ Rh antigen is widely expressed in the population and is considered the most antigenic.

Answer 15

D; Rh grouping therefore primarily depends on whether a person expresses D, (Rh+: > 85% population), or not, (Rh-).

Question 16

Is it possible to give Rh(+) blood to Rh(-) patients without killing the patient?

Answer 16

Yes. If no previous exposure then there is little likelihood of any immediately significant reaction: however antibodies to the antigen/s will be produced over the next few weeks, and will cause agglutination of any remaining transfused Rh+ RBC’s. This may, therefore, cause a delayed transfusion reaction but this is usually mild: repeated exposures will increase the severity of the response until it can be as life-threatening as that of the O-A-B system.

Question 17

____ ______ was a cause of anemia: this condition in the newborn is caused by a Rh- mother producing a Rh+ baby.

Answer 17

Erythroblastosis fetalis , (inherited from father)

Question 18

T or F? The odds of Erythroblastosis fetalis decreases if the mother has more babies down the road.

Answer 18

False, increases not decrease

Question 19

What is Kernicterus?

Answer 19

Neurons in the brain motor areas appear to accumulate precipitated bilirubin intracellularly causing their destruction. Condition can be fatal, many surviving children can have permanent brain damage.

Question 20

What causes a newborn’s skin to appear yellow or “jaundiced” and the become anemic at birth?

Answer 20

Erythroblastosis fetalis causes hemolyzed RBC’s result in  more Hb recycling and therefore increases bilirubin production.

Question 21

What conditions can erythroblastosis fetalis cause?

Answer 21

Anemia
Jaundice
Enlarge liver and spleen
Increase in immature RBCs
Kernicterus

Question 22

What is the most lethal component of transfusion reactions?

Answer 22

kidney failure; this can occur within minutes of a transfusion if a severe enough reaction occurs.

Question 23

kidney failure after a transfusion is probably due to?

Answer 23

1. Hemolyzed RBC’s release toxic substances that produce strong vasoconstriction so ↓kidney function.
2. Circulatory shock can develop during which there is a further ↓blood pressure and therefore further ↓kidney function.
3. The excessively increased amounts of released Hb from hemolyzed RBC’s leaks into the kidney tubules via the glomerular membranes and precipitates as water is reabsorbed therefore blocking them and effectively stopping kidney function.

Question 24

A transplant of tissue or organs within the same person/animal is called a(n) “______” and between identical twins is called a(n) “_______”. These rarely cause any significant immune reactions.

Answer 24

autograft; isograft

Question 25

A transplant of tissue or organs between individuals of the same species is called a(n) “_____” while if between different species it is called a(n) “________”.

Answer 25

allograft; xenograft (xenografts almost always produce a reaction resulting in death of the transplanted tissue or cells in ~ 1day to 5 weeks unless significant supporting therapy is provided)

Question 26

T or F? Allografts, which are the most common type of transplant, are, therefore “tissue matched,” to minimize any possible reaction and subsequent rejection.

Answer 26

True

Question 27

Which immune response must be suppressed to prevent rejection of transplant?

Answer 27

T-lymphocytes

Question 28

What is commonly used to suppress the growth of lymphocyte tissues?

Answer 28

Cortisol/glucocorticoids (This decreases production of all lymphocytes but also increases rate of infection and cancer.)

Question 29

It is impossible to synthesize drugs that interact with peptide receptors, (nature providing the exception with morphine), what can we do as a treatment?

Answer 29

Antibodies can be generated to interact very specifically with peptides and their receptors.

Question 30

How are are monoclonal antibodies produced?

Answer 30

From a single Plasma cell, (produced by inoculating animals), are fused with myeloma cells, (B-lymphocyte tumors), to form hybridomas that act as “antibody factories” from which the antibodies can be harvested.

Question 31

T or F? Antibodies can also be made that neutralize the various cytokines so allowing, where possible/known, specific targeting of immune system function.

Answer 31

True

Question 32

_________ are important in many functions including regulating lymphocyte movement throughout the body: its effects can be blocked by using antibodies to its GPR receptors.

Answer 32

sphingosine-1-phosphate, (sphingolipids in general),

Question 33

T or F? Some antibodies can actually activate their target receptor.

Answer 33

True. As happens with the Thyroid Stimulating Hormone receptor on the thyroid gland: antibodies to this GPR receptor can actually cause Graves disease which is due to oversecretion/hypersecretion of thyroid hormones.

Question 34

with respect to _______ disease, the immune system ages and appears to become less effective in countering exogenous/pathogenic factors while increasing “self-recognition.”

Answer 34

Alzheimer’s

Question 35

The change in ______ levels can cause chronic, low level inflammatory environment which can facilitate the development of certain diseases which would not have occurred with a “young” immune system.

Answer 35

cytokines

Question 36

What is lipodromics?

Answer 36

Study of pathways and networks of cellular lipids in the biological system, such as sphingolipids.

Question 37

What are the principal Innate Response players?

Answer 37

granulocytes, mono/macrophages and “like” cells AND NK’s.

Question 38

What principal mechanism/s does the Innate Response utilize?

Answer 38

inflammation and phagocytosis.

Question 39

What are the principal Acquired/Adaptive Response players?

Answer 39

lymphocytes (all) and mono/macrophages and “like” cells.

Question 40

What principal mechanism/s does the Acquired/Adaptive Response utilize?

Answer 40

specifically identified/antibody-labeled phagocytosis, chemical killing and MAC/Perforin-mediated lysis via the Complement system.