lect 9- microbial growth and control Flashcards

1
Q

what 2 pathways function during the bacterial cell cycle

A

DNA replication/partition and cytokinesis

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2
Q

define replisome

A

group of proteins needed for DNA synthesis

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3
Q

define generation time

A

double time: time it takes for a population to double

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4
Q

what type of viable counting method yield the most probably number (MPN)

A

turbidity

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5
Q

what temperature range do psychrophiles function best at

A

0-20 degrees celsius

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6
Q

what temperature range do psychrotrophs function best at

A

0-35 degrees celcius

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7
Q

what temperature range do mesophiles function best at

A

20-45 degrees celsius (human body temperature)

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8
Q

what temperature do thermophiles function best at

A

55-85 degrees celsius

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9
Q

what temperature do hyperthermophiles function best at

A

85-113 degrees celsius

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10
Q

what pH range do most bacteria grow at

A

6.5 to 7.5

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11
Q

what pH range do mold and yeast grow between

A

5 and 6

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12
Q

define tonicity

A

measure of osmotic pressure

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13
Q

What do hypertonic environments cause

A

plasmolysis

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14
Q

where is sulfur found

A

in amino acids, thiamine and biotin

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15
Q

where is phosphorus found

A

in DNA, RNA, ATP and membranes (PO43- is source of phosphorus)

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16
Q

define aerotolerance

A

measure of the ability of a microorganism to grow in the presence/absence of oxygen

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17
Q

what are some ROS

A

superoxide radical, hydrogen peroxide, hydroxyl radical

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18
Q

what are the protective enzymes that aerobes produce against ROS

A

superoxide dismutase (SOD), catalase and peroxidase

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19
Q

what are some organic growth factors

A

vitamins, amino acids, purines and pyrimidines

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20
Q

what does ionization radiation do

A

disrupts chemical structure of many molecules, including DNA

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21
Q

what does UV radiation do

A

causes formation of thymine dimers

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22
Q

define disinfection

A

destruction or removal of vegetative pathogens but not bacterial endospores.

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23
Q

define sterilization

A

complete removal or destruction of all viable microorganisms

24
Q

define antisepsis

A

chemicals applied to body surfaces to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens

25
define sanitization
reduction of microbial populations to level deemed safe
26
what does tidal and static mean
cidal agents kill; static agents inhibit growth
27
define decimal reduction time
time to kill 90%
28
what does moist heat destroy and degrade
destroys viruses, fungi and bacteria. degrades nucleic acids, denatures proteins and disrupts membranes
29
what is steam sterilization effective against
all types of microorganisms, including spores
30
what does dry heat sterilization do
oxidizes cell constituents and denatures proteins
31
why is UV radiation limited to surface sterilization
because it does not penetrate glass, dirt films, water or other substances
32
what is ionization radiation used for
sterilization and pasteurization of antibiotics, hormones, sutures, plastic disposable supplies and food
33
what needs to be considered when using a disinfectant
concentration of disinfectant, organic matter, pH and time
34
describe phenolics
act by denaturing proteins and disrupting cell membrane. effective in presence of organic material and long lasting. has disagreeable odor and can cause skin irritation
35
describe alcohols
bactericidal, fungicidal but not sporiidal. inactivates some viruses. denatures proteins and possibly dissolve membrane lipids
36
what are hologens important for
antimicrobial agents
37
describe why iodine is improtant
skin antiseptic. oxidizes cell constituents and iodinates proteins. at high concentrations may kill spores.
38
what does chlorine destroy
vegetative bacteria and fungi. it is sporicidal
39
What do heavy metals do
effective but usually toxic. combine with and inactivate proteins; may also precipitate proteins
40
what are cationic detergents inactivated by
hard water and soap
41
describe aldehydes
sporicidal and can be used as chemical sterilant. combine with and inactivate nucleic acids and proteins
42
describe sterilizing gas
microbicidal and sporicidal. combine with and inactivate DNA and proteins
43
what does a dilution test do
determines rate at which selected bacteria are destroyed by various chemical agents
44
define selective toxicity
ability of drug to kill/inhibit pathogen while damaging host as little as possible
45
define therapeutic index
ratio of toxic does to therapeutic dose
46
describe the role of penicillin
cidal. effects gram + (inhibits transpeptidation enzymes involved in crow-linking the polysaccharide chains of peptidoglycan) and inhibitor of cell wall synthesis
47
what is the most crucial features of penicillins
beta lactam ring
48
describe cephalosporins
structurally and functionally similar to penicillins. broad spectrum.
49
describe vancomycin and tecoplanin
glycopeptide antibiotics. inhibit cell wall synthesis
50
what is vancomycin important for the treatment of
antibiotic resistant staphylococcal and enterococcal infections
51
describe chloramphenicol
protein synthesis inhibitor: binds to 50S portion and inhibits formation of peptide bond
52
describe what streptomycin does
protein syn inhibitor: changes shape of 30S portion, causing code on mRNA to be read incorrectly
53
describe what tetracycline does
protein syn inhibitor: inters with attachment of tRNA to mRNA-ribosome complex. it is bacteriostatic
54
describe what erythromycin does
usually bacteriostatic. binds to 23S rRNA of 50S ribosomal subunit: inhibits peptide chain elongation
55
what do sulfonamides do
inhibit folic acid synthesis. broad spectrum (competitive inhibitor
56
what do quinolines do
interfere with nucleic acid synthesis