Laz Paper 9 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common causative organism of post-infective glomerulonephritis?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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2
Q

What does post-infectious glomerulonephritis lead to?

A

Post-infectious glomerulonephritis leads to nephritic syndrome

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3
Q

Why are NSAIDs contraindicated in heart failure?

A

NSAIDs are contraindicated in heart failure as they can lead to increased Na+ and H2O absorption, therefore increasing blood pressure

They’re also nephrotoxic and therefore can further damage an already poorly perfused kidney

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4
Q

What is the management of heart failure?

A

Management of heart failure:

  • ACE inhibitor
  • Beta blocker (used with caution)
  • Digoxin
  • Diuretics
  • Spironolactone (K+ sparing diuretic)
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5
Q

What is the function of alpha 1 antitrypsin?

A

Alpha 1 antitrypsin inhibits neutrophil produced elastase

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6
Q

How does alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency present?

A

It presents as emphysema and cirrhosis in a young person due to elastase damage to the lungs and liver

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7
Q

What is prosopagnosia?

A

Prosopagnosia is the inability to recognise faces?

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8
Q

What is Paget’s disease of the breast?

A

Paget’s disease of the breast is eczema overlying the areolar area commonly associated with underlying breast malignancy

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9
Q

How does an intraductal papilloma present?

A

Intraductal papilloma presents as a firm lump near to the nipple with bloody discharge

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10
Q

What is a paradoxical embolism?

A

A paradoxical embolism is an embolus that traverses an atrial septal defect

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11
Q

What is saponification?

A

Saponification is the process by which acute pancreatitis can lead to hypocalcaemia as the calcium is bound to lipids

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12
Q

Which drugs can lead to acute pancreatitis?

A

Azathioprine and sodium valproate

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13
Q

Why is adenosine contraindicated in asthmatics?

A

Because it can lead to bronchospasm

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14
Q

What is primary amenorrhoea?

A

Primary amenorrhoea is never having menstruated

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15
Q

What is the moa of Bendroflumethiazide?

A

Bendroflumethiazide is a thiazide diuretic meaning it inhibits on the Na+/Cl- channels on the distal convoluted tubule, reducing water reabsorption

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16
Q

What is the moa of loop diuretics?

A

Loop diuretics act on the ascending limb of the loop of henle and inhibit the Na+/K+/Cl- triple transporter and therefore reduce water reabsorption

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17
Q

What is the moa of potassium sparing diuretics?

A

K+ sparing diuretics like spironolactone, inhibit the action of aldosterone in the collecting duct by reducing its Na+ reabsorption capabilities and therefore increase H2O excretion

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18
Q

What is the moa of osmotic diuretics?

A

Osmotic diuretics are freely filtered into the tubules and are not reabsorbed therefore increasing osmotic pressure on the tubule liquid

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19
Q

How would a recurrent laryngeal nerve injury present?

A

Dysphonia and a bovine cough

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20
Q

Which types of tumours can compress the recurrent laryngeal nerve?

A

Apical lung tumours, more commonly on the left side

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21
Q

What are the main investigation findings for MS?

A

CSF would show oligoclonal banding, MRI would show scleral plaques

22
Q

What are Bence Jones proteins?

A

Bence Jones proteins are light chain-Ig complexes found in the urine due to multiple myeloma

23
Q

Which conditions are high CSF proteins characteristic of?

A

High CSF proteins will be present in Guillan-Barre syndrome (autoimmune) and bacterial and fungal meningitis

24
Q

What is xanthochromia?

A

Xanthochromia are the breakdown products of red blood cells, commonly found in the CSF 12 hours after a subarachnoid haemorrhage

25
Q

What are the main acquired causes of long QT syndrome?

A

Hypokalaemia, hypomagnesium

26
Q

What are the main inherited causes of long QT syndrome?

A

Romano-Ward syndrome, Jervill and Lang-Neilson syndrome

27
Q

How does multiple myelosis lead to renal failure?

A

Multiple myelosis leads to the collection of Ig complexes which act as a precursor for amyloid fibril formation, which can deposit on the glomerulus leading to renal failure

28
Q

Which organism is the most common cause of UTI?

A

E.coli

29
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for pneumonia?

A

Sputum culture, chest x-ray, bronchioalveolar lavage and culture and biopsy

30
Q

What are the atypical pneumonias treated with?

A

Atypical pneumonias are treated with clarythromicin or co-trimoxazole

31
Q

How does use of antibiotics lead to C.diff infection?

A

Antibiotics destroy competing cut bacteria

32
Q

What is the management of C.diff?

A

Oral vancomycin or oral metronidazole

33
Q

What would be seen on C.diff colonoscopy?

A

Pseudomembranous colitis

34
Q

What is the transmission mechanism of C.diff?

A

Faeco-oral

35
Q

What is a codocyte?

A

A codocyte is another word for a target cell

36
Q

Which layer is torn in an aortic dissection?

A

The tunica intima

37
Q

How do ruptured AAAs present?

A

Ruptured AAAs present as acute abdominal pain with circulatory collapse

38
Q

What is the ABCD2 score?

A

A score to assess the risk of stroke in patients with a TIA

39
Q

What is the GRACE score?

A

A score to triage patients who have unstable angina or NSTEMI

40
Q

What is the Ranson score?

A

Ranson score is used to assess acute pancreatitis (although the Glasgow score is now more widely used)

41
Q

What is the Waterlow score?

A

Waterlow score is used to assess risk of pressure sores

42
Q

What is the Rockall score?

A

Rockall score is used to assess risk of re-bleed following upper GI bleed

43
Q

Why can Conn’s syndrome present with polydipsia?

A

Conn’s syndrome is hyperaldosteronism and can lead to hypertension and hypokalaemia.

Hypokalaemia can lead to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

44
Q

What are the ECG changes in hyperkalaemia?

A
  • Tented T waves
  • Broad QRS complexes
  • Reduced P waves
45
Q

What are the ECG changes in hypokalaemia?

A
  • U waves
  • ST depression
  • Flattened T waves
  • Prolonged PR interval
46
Q

What are the secondary causes of hypertension in a young person?

A
  • Conn’s
  • Renal artery stenosis
  • Co-arctation of the aorta
47
Q

What is the triad for Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A
  • Confusion
  • Ataxia
  • Opthalmoplegia
48
Q

What is the progression of untreated Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

Korsakoff’s psychosis (irreversible)

49
Q

What are the reversible causes of cardiac arrest?

A

Hypovolaemia
Hypothermia
Hypoxia
Hypokalaemia/ hyperkalaemia

Toxic
Thromboembolic
Tension pneumothorax
Tamponade

50
Q

How can hypothyroidism lead to hyperprolactinaemia?

A

Hypothyroidism increases TRH levels, which stimulates prolactin release

51
Q

What does hyperprolactinaemia inhibit?

A

Hyperprolactinaemia inhibits GnRH release leading to hypogonadism

52
Q

What is used instead of adenosine in asthmatic patients with narrow complex SVT?

A

Verapamil