Formative 1 2020 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the antibodies present in autoimmune hepatitis?

A

Type 1 (adults)

  • ANA
  • Anti-smooth muscle
  • pANCA

Type 2 (kids)

  • Anti-LKM1
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2
Q

Which antibodies are present in primary biliary cirrhosis?

A

Anti-mitochondrial, cANCA

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3
Q

What is the presentation of primary biliary cirrhosis?

A
  • Female patient
  • Jaundice
  • Pruritis
  • Xanthelasma
  • Hepatosplenomegaly (if advanced)
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4
Q

What is the moa of Carbamazepine?

A

Anti-convulsant

Na+ channel inhibitor

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5
Q

What is the first step for someone presenting with suspected acute limb ischaemia?

A

Immediate IV unfractionated heparin, DO NOT delay treatment for investigations

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6
Q

What are the 6 Ps of acute limb ischaemia?

A
  • Pale
  • Pulseless
  • Perishingly cold
  • Paraesthesia
  • Paralysis
  • Pain
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7
Q

What is the management of actively bleeding peptic ulcer?

A
  1. Ensure the patient is haemodynamically stable
  2. Endoscopy
  3. IV PPI (some trusts use oral)
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8
Q

What is the management of actively bleeding variceal ulcer?

A
  1. Ensure the patient is haemodynamically stable
  2. Terlipressin or somatostatin analogue
  3. Broad spectrum antibiotic (ceftriaxone)
  4. Endoscopy with variceal band ligation
  5. Stent/ balloon tamponade
  6. Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt
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9
Q

What does a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt connect?

A

The hepatic portal vein with intrahepatic veins

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10
Q

What are the investigations for bladder cancer?

A
  1. Urinalysis to look for haematuria
  2. Urine cytoscopy- second voided preserved urine should be used
  3. Flexible cystoscopy
  4. Ultrasound kidneys, ureters, bladder for mets
  5. CT urogram
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11
Q

What is the most common complication of TURP?

A

Retrograde ejaculation

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12
Q

What are the investigations for pancreatic cancer?

A
  • Pancreatic protocol CT
  • Abdominal ultrasound
  • LFTs
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13
Q

Why are LFTs done in suspected pancreatic cancer?

A

They can indicate the level of obstruction but can’t specify that it’s due to pancreatic cancer

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14
Q

What is cholestatic hepatitis?

A

Any form of liver disease that causes inflammation of the liver and issues with bile transport

Triad

  • Pruritis
  • Dark urine/ light stools
  • Jaundice
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15
Q

What medications can lead to cholestatic hepatitis?

A
  • Co-amoxiclav
  • The -mycins
  • The -floxacins
  • The -itidines
  • Phenytoin
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16
Q

Why can tuberculosis not be detected on gram-staining?

A

Because it has a high lipid content and therefore has to be detected via Ziehl-Neelsen staining

(Acid-fast bacillus)

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17
Q

When should anticoagulants be stopped preoperatively?

A

Anticoagulants should be stopped 2-4 days before surgery and commenced as soon as the surgery is over

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18
Q

When should antiplatelets be stopped preoperatively?

A

Antiplatelets should be stopped 5-7 days before surgery and commenced as soon as the surgery is over

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19
Q

What are the characteristics of neuropathic ulcers?

A
  • Pressure loading sites
  • Painless
  • Risk factors of diabetes rather than cardiovascular
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20
Q

What is osteomalacia?

A

Softening of the bone in adults due to a lack of vitamin D, in children it is called Rickets

21
Q

What is the difference between dihydropyridines and non-dihydropyridines?

A

Dihydropyridines (amlodipine) act primarily on the smooth muscles of the vasculature to encourage vasodilation

Non-dihydropyridines (verapamil) act primarily on the heart muscle to decrease strength of contraction and heart rate

22
Q

Why are non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers contra-indicated in heart failure?

A

Because they can lead to bradycardia and reduced cardiac output which can lead to pulmonary effusion and increased breathlessness

23
Q

Which drugs have a -sartan suffix?

A

Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs)

24
Q

What is the management of COPD?

A
25
Q

What are the ECG changes for hyperkalaemia?

A
  • Tented T waves
  • Absent P waves
  • Broad QRS complexes
26
Q

What are the ECG changes for hypokalaemia?

A
  • Flattened T waves
  • U waves
  • ST depression
27
Q

What are the surgical management pathways of nephrolithiasis?

A
  • <10mm that doesn’t pass with conservative management, show wave lithotripsy
  • 10-20mm uretoscopy or show wave lithotripsy (uretoscopy more invasive)
  • >20mm or staghorn stone percutaneous nephrolithotomy
28
Q

What is the general management for atypical pneumonias?

A

Clarithromycin

29
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of neurofibromatosis?

A

Autosomal dominant

30
Q

Where does psoriasis tend to affect?

A

The extensor surfaces

31
Q

Where does eczema tend to develop?

A

The flexor surfaces

32
Q

Where does eczema tend to develop in kids?

A

The extensor surfaces

33
Q

What is metaplasia?

A

Change in the cell type

34
Q

What is dysplasia?

A

Change in the cell shape/ formation of abnormal cells

35
Q

What is neoplasia?

A

Uncontrolled, abnormal growth of cells in tissues

36
Q

What is granuloma annulare?

A

A hypersensitivity reaction with idiopathic origin

37
Q

What is necrobiosis lipodica?

A

Usually associated with diabetes, it’s a disorder of collagen degeneration with a granulomatous response, thickening of blood vessels and fat deposition

38
Q

What skin manifestation can indicate PCOS?

A

Acanthosis nigricans

39
Q

What is De Quervain’s thyroiditis?

A

A viral infection of the thyroid that is characterised by a painful multinodular goitre and hyperthyroidism followed by hypothyroidism after viral induced cell death most commonly seen in women 20-50

40
Q

How does infectious mononucleosis present?

A
  • University student
  • Splenomegaly (can’t play sport for 3-4 weeks)
  • Bilateral grey exudate on the tonsils
41
Q

What is the management of infectious mononucleosis?

A

Supportive + corticosteroids

If patients are given amoxicillin, they develop a widespread rash

42
Q

How does a subphrenic abscess present?

A
  • Fever (systemic symptoms)
  • Costal margin tenderness
  • Shoulder pain
  • Dyspnea
  • Upper quadrant pain
  • Hiccoughs
43
Q

What cancers is EBV a risk factor for?

A

Lymphona, particular Burkitt’s lymphoma

44
Q

What is the most likely organism to cause encephalitis?

A

HSV1

45
Q

What is a pilonidal sinus?

A

An abnormal sinus at the top of the natal cleft commonly due to friction causing folliculitis and the follicle extending into the subcutaneous tissue forming a sinus

46
Q

How does a pilonidal sinus present?

A

Usually patient is afebrile and has noticed a tract/ bump/ pus at the top of their natal cleft

47
Q

What is intertrigo?

A

Inflammation and rash of the areas of folded skin due to friction

48
Q

Which murmur is Rheumatic fever associated with?

A

Mitral regurgitation (pan-systolic)